Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Illness and Patho 1 > Reproductive > Flashcards

Reproductive Flashcards

1
Q

What is stage one of fibrocystic breast condition?

A

Premenstrual fullness and tenderness occurring on the menstrual cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Physiologic modularity of the breast including lobules, ducts, and stromal tissue

A

Fibrocystic Breast Condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common breast problem of women between 20-50 years of age?

A

Fibrocystic Breast Condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Solid, slowly enlarging, benign mass; round, firm, easily movable, non-tender and clearly delineated from the surrounding tissue

A

Fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How can ductal ectasia be managed?

A

Warm complex and antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can fibrocystic breast condition be managed?

A

Symptomatic management, hormonal manipulation, drug therapy, diuretics, avoiding caffeine, mild analgesics, and limiting salt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is stage two of fibrocystic breast condition?

A

Multiple nodular areas in both breasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Benign breast problem of women approaching menopause caused by dilation and thickening of the collecting ducts in the sub-areolar area

A

Ductal Ectasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are fibroadenomas made up of?

A

Connective tissue that is unattached to the surrounding breast tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Benign process in the epithelial lining of the duct, forming a pedunculated outgrowth of tissue

A

Intraductal Papilloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the symptoms of fibrocystic breast condition?

A

Ropey, bumpy, lumpy breast tissue that is tender, painful, and burning characterized by fibrosis and cysts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What vitamins should be increased when a patient has fibrocystic breast condition?

A

Vitamins C, E, and B complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the most common breast mass in women under the age of 30?

A

Fibroadenoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why do the symptoms of fibrocystic breast condition usually go away after menopause?

A

Because estrogen decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is stage three of fibrocystic breast condition?

A

Microscopic cysts associated with pain, tenderness, or burning in women 35-55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is fibrocystic breast condition caused by?

A

An imbalance of of estrogen to progesterone ration with more estrogen and less progesterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the signs of ductal ectasia?

A

Hard, tender mass with irregular boarders, greenish brown nipple discharge, enlarged axillary nodes, redness and edema over the site of the mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Where are fibroadenomas often located?

A

The upper outer quadrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When do the symptoms of fibrocystic breast condition usually resolve?

A

After menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In what age range does intraducal papilloma occur in?

A

40-55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What types of adjunctive therapy can be used for patients with breast cancer?

A

Radiation therapy, chemotherapy, SERMs, hormonal therapy and targeted therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What should patients with premenstrual syndrome eat?

A

Limit sugar, red meat, alcohol, coffee, tea and chocolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Vaginal bleeding that occurs after a 12 month cessation of menses after the onset of menopause

A

Postmenopausal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Vaginal mucosa is dry, thin, and traumatized easily with intercourse

A

Atrophic vaginitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the signs of intraductal papilloma?

A

Bloody or serous nipple discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Soft, red, oval tissue masses in cervix

A

Cervical polyps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Tissue overgrowth in uterus that is a precursor of endometrial cancer

A

Endometrial hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long is radiation therapy used after breast cancer?

A

6-7 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Benign condition of breast enlargement in men

A

Gynecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the genes that put patients at risk for breast cancer?

A

BRCA1 & BRCA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Most commonly diagnosed invasive cancer in women

A

Breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

An early form of breast cancer that does not metastasize

A

Noninvasive breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is intraductal papilloma diagnosed?

A

By ruling out breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Gross removal of a tumor from a breast

A

Lumpectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the causes of postmenopausal bleeding?

A

Atrophic vaginitis, cervical polyps, or endometrial hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the key to survival for breast cancer patients?

A

Early detection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the causes of gynecomastia?

A

Primary cancer, drugs, aging, obesity, estrogen excess, liver disease, hyperthyroidism, androgen deficiency, chronic renal failure, or alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What do breast cancers in men usually present as?

A

Hard, non painful subareolar masses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What stages of breast cancer is chemo used for?

A

Stage 2 or higher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Highly aggressive form of invasive breast cancer that presents as redness, swelling and rash of the breast skin that may or may not be itching, painful, or thickened

A

Inflammatory breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What causes endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Declining ovarian stimulation, leading to prolonged estrogen stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the types of noninvasive breast cancer?

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ and lobular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the key to diagnosis breast cancer?

A

Ultrasounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When should mammograms start?

A

Yearly at 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Why does primary dysmenorrhea occur?

A

Increased production and release of uterine prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Removal of the portion of a breast that contains a tumor

A

Partial Mastectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Most common type of breast cancer that spreads from mammary ducts to surrounding tissue characterized by irregular, poorly deformed masses

A

Invasive breast cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a SERM?

A

An estrogen receptor blocking agent, like tamoxifen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the purpose of Herceptin?

A

It blocks HER2/neu gene expression to slow or stop growth of cancer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Breast affected by cancer, along with skin and axillary nodes is completely removed

A

Modified Radical Mastectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A benign problem of endometrial tissue implantation outside the uterine cavity

A

Endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the key diagnostic procedure for endometriosis?

A

Laparoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of menopause based on?

A

The level of hormones and estrogen swings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the surgical management for dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A

Hormone manipulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Inflammation of the lower genital tract

A

Simple vaginitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

If a patient has amenorrhea, what else should they be assessed for?

A

Hirsutism, galactorrhea, and nutritional status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What conditions are dysfunctional uterine bleeding associated with?

A

Endocrine disturbances, polycystic ovary disease, stress, extreme weight loss, long term drug use and anatomic abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is endometriosis caused by?

A

Birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How can simple vaginitis be managed?

A

Perineal cleaning after urination or defecation, wearing cotton underwear, avoiding strong douches and feminine hygiene sprays, avoiding tight fitting pants, using estrogen creams, eating yogurt with antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the signs of uterine prolapse?

A

Dyspareunia, backache, pressure in the pelvis, bowel or bladder problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Septic shock characterized by abrupt high temperature, headache, sore throat, vomiting, diarrhea, generalized rash, and hypotension

A

Toxic shock syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Absence of a menstrual period

A

Amenorrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Nonspecific term used to describe bleeding that is excessive or abnormal in amount or frequency without predisposing anatomic or systemic conditions

A

Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How long does perimenopause last?

A

10 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is simple vaginitis caused by?

A

Menopause, STD, Trichomonas, candida, changes in normal flora, alkaline pH, tampons and condoms, douches or sprays, health problems such as diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the causes of amenorrhea?

A

Abnormalities of the reproductive tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the surgical manipulation for dysfunctional uterine bleeding?

A

DNC, endometrial ablation, and hysterectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the symptoms of endometriosis?

A

Pain, dyspareunia, painful defection, sacral backache, hypermenorrhea, and infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How is amenorrhea treated?

A

Hormone replacement, ovulation, stimulation, and periodic progesterone withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is toxic shock syndrome treated?

A

Penicillin or vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the treatment for rectocele?

A

High-fiber diet, stool softeners, laxatives, and surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the treatment for cystocele?

A

Kegel exercises or surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What generally causes follicular cysts to rupture?

A

Torsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are theca-luatein cysts a result of?

A

Molar pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What causes polycystic ovaries?

A

High levels of luteinizing hormone overstimulate the ovaries

76
Q

What is the sign of a fibroid?

A

Midcycle bleeding

77
Q

Small, purplish red cyst occurring after ovulation and often with increased secretion of progesterone causing low abdominal or pelvic pain

A

Coprus Luteum Cyst

78
Q

Protrusion of the rectum through a weakened vaginal wall

A

Rectocele

79
Q

What are the common complications of hysteroscopic surgery?

A

Fluid overload, embolism, hemorrhage, perforation of the uterus, bowel or bladder and ureter, persistent increased menstrual bleeding, and incomplete suppression of menstruation

80
Q

Obstruction of the duct of the Bartholin’s gland caused by infection, thickened mucus near the ductal opening or trauma such as lacerations or episiotomy

A

Bartholin Cyst

81
Q

What is the best stool softener?

A

Milk of magnesia

82
Q

Pedunculated tumors arising from the mucosa and extending to the opening of the cervical os

A

Cervical polyps

83
Q

What are the symptoms of rectocele?

A

Constipation, hemorrhoids, fecal impaction, feelings of rectal or vaginal fullness

84
Q

What is the treatment for polycystic ovary?

A

Oral contraceptives, surgery, or clomiphene

85
Q

What are the symptoms of cystocele?

A

Difficulty in emptying the bladder, urinary frequency and urgency, urinary tract infection, and stress urinary incontinence

86
Q

What is the most common type of endometrial cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

87
Q

What can happen if a corpus luteum cyst ruptures?

A

Intraperitoneal hemorrhage

88
Q

For which stages of endometrial cancer is a TAHBSO recommended?

A

Stage 2 and above

89
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of cervical cancer?

A

Painless vaginal bleeding, watery, blood-tinged vaginal discharge that may become dark and foul smelling, leg pain, flank pain, unexpected weight loss, pelvic pain, dysuria, hematuria, rectal bleeding, chest pain and cough

90
Q

What are the adverse affects of radiation therapy for endometrial cancer?

A

Nausea, bladder infections, pain, diarrhea, and DVTs

91
Q

What is the main symptom of endometrial cancer?

A

Postmenopausal bleeding

92
Q

Uncommon cysts hat develop as a result of prolonged stimulation of the ovaries by excessive amount of hCG

A

Theca-Luatein Cysts

93
Q

What are the stages of uterine prolapse classified by?

A

The degree of decent of the uterus

94
Q

What is the most common type of ovarian cancer?

A

Serous adenocarcinoma

95
Q

What are the symptoms of vulvar cancer?

A

Irritation or itching in the perineal area or a sore that will not heal

96
Q

What type of cancers are cervical and vulvar generally?

A

Squamous cell carcinomas

97
Q

What test identifies abnormal vulvar cells?

A

Touidine blue test

98
Q

Protrusion of the bladder through the vaginal wall due to weakened pelvic structures

A

Cystocele

99
Q

What is vaginal cancer associated with?

A

Diethylstilbestrol

100
Q

What are the symptoms of ovarian cancer?

A

Abdominal discomfort, dyspepsia, indigestion, gas and distention

101
Q

What are the symptoms of fallopian tube cancer?

A

Postmenopausal bleeding, increased abdominal pain, watery vaginal discharge, and leukorrhea

102
Q

What is the rarest gynecological cancer?

A

Fallopian tube cancer

103
Q

What drugs can be used to treat BPH?

A

5-Alpha reductase inhibitor, Alpha-1 selective blocking agents, lycopene, and estrogens and androgens

104
Q

What type of cancer is prostate cancer?

A

Adenocarcinoma

105
Q

What is the post op care after a radical prostatectomy?

A

Hydration with IV therapy, caring for wound drains, preventing emboli, preventing pulmonary complications, antibiotics, analgesics, laxatives, and antispasmodics

106
Q

Three-way urinary catheter with a 30- to 45- mL retention balloon through the urethra into the bladder

A

Continuous Bladder Irrigation

107
Q

Inability to achieve or maintain an erection for sexual intercourse

A

Erectile dysfunction

108
Q

What information does a duplex doppler give for a patient experiencing erectile dysfunction?

A

Blood supply

109
Q

What are the symptoms of BPH?

A

Hyperirritable bladder, urgency, frequency, hesitancy, hydroureter, diverticula, hydronephrosis, dribbling, hematuria

110
Q

Where does prostate cancer metastasize to?

A

Lymph nodes, bones, lungs, and liver

111
Q

What should the nurse do for post op TURP patients?

A

Encourage voiding, increasing fluid intake, and monitor for bleeding

112
Q

Why is it very important to document the time a catheter is removed from a patient?

A

Because they need to void in a specified amount of time

113
Q

What are the side effect of continuous bladder irrigation?

A

Post op bleeding and the urge to void continuously

114
Q

When does BPH occur?

A

Late 50s - early 60s

115
Q

In who is testicular cancer most common?

A

Men 15 - 35 years old

116
Q

What are therapies for erectile dysfunction?

A

Drug therapy, vacuum devices, intraurethral applications, intracorporal injections, and prosthesis

117
Q

Glandular units in the prostate that undergo an increase in the number of cells resulting in enlargement of the prostate gland

A

Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

118
Q

How is a hydrocele treated?

A

Drained via needle and string or removed surgically

119
Q

A small, asymptomatic sperm-containing cyst that develops on the epididymis along side the testicle

A

Spermatocele

120
Q

What should be measured when a patent is catheterized?

A

Intake and Output

121
Q

What complications can occur after a radical prostectomy?

A

Urinary incontinence and erectile dysfunction

122
Q

A cluster of dilated veins that occur behind and above the testes causing infertility

A

Varicocele

123
Q

What electrolyte would be elevated in a patient with prostate cancer?

A

Calcium

124
Q

Cystic mass usually filled with straw colored fluid that forms around the testis resulting from impaired lymphatic drainage of the scrotum, causing swelling of the tissue surrounding the testes

A

Hydrocele

125
Q

What are the types of nonsurgical management for prostate cancer?

A

Radiation, hormonal therapy, chemotherapy, and targeted therapy

126
Q

What type of cancer is penile?

A

Epidermoid or squamous cell

127
Q

When is scrotal trauma most likely to occur?

A

During puberty

128
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of penile cancer?

A

Painless warlike growth or ulcer

129
Q

What can cause priapism?

A

Thrombosis, leukemia, sickle cell, DM, malignancies, abnormal reflex, drugs, and prolonged sexual activity

130
Q

How is priapism treated?

A

Enemas, catheterization, and surgical intervention

131
Q

Constricted prepuce that cannot be retracted over the glans so that it remains down around the tip of the penis

A

Phimosis and Paraphimosis

132
Q

Torsion of the testes involving a twisting of the spermatic cord

A

Scrotal Trauma

133
Q

Acute testicular inflammation resulting from trauma or infection

A

Orchitis (Mumps)

134
Q

What causes nonbacterial/chronic pelvic pain syndrome?

A

Viral illness or STD, autoimmune disease, or allergies

135
Q

Uncontrolled and long-maintained erection without sexual desire, causing the penis to become large and painful

A

Priapism

136
Q

How is penile cancer prevented?

A

Circumcision

137
Q

What is the treatment for orchitis?

A

Bedrest with scrotal elevation, ice, pain meds, and antibiotics

138
Q

Inflammation of the epidermis resulting from an infection or noninfectious source such as trauma

A

Epididymitis

139
Q

Infection of the lower urinary tract that causes urethral discharge and a boggy, tender prostate

A

Bacterial prostatitis

140
Q

Why is scrotal trauma a surgical emergency?

A

The testes are very sensitive to any decrease in blood flow

141
Q

What is the treatment for epididymitis?

A

Bedrest with scrotal elevation

142
Q

How long does it take for secondary syphilis to develop?

A

Six weeks to six months after onset

143
Q

How long does latent syphilis last?

A

One year

144
Q

How long does secondary syphilis last?

A

Four to twelve weeks

145
Q

What confirms a syphilis diagnosis?

A

Venereal Disease Research Laboratory serum test

146
Q

Which type of syphilis requires more than one penicillin dose?

A

Late latent syphilis

147
Q

What does primary syphilis look like?

A

Ulcer on genitalia or any mucous membrane

148
Q

Where to genital herpes stay when dormant?

A

In the sacral ganglia

149
Q

When is genital herpes contagious?

A

During viral shedding

150
Q

How long does tertiary syphilis last?

A

Four to twenty years

151
Q

What does secondary syphilis look like?

A

Rash on palms and feet

152
Q

What is the incubation period for genital herpes?

A

Two to twenty days

153
Q

In what stage is syphilis contagious only to fetuses?

A

Latent syphilis

154
Q

What is the most common STD?

A

Genital Herpes

155
Q

How is syphilis spread?

A

Sexual contact, kissing, and close body contact

156
Q

What does tertiary syphilis look like?

A

Benign lesions of the gums, mucous membranes, and bones

157
Q

Genital warts caused by HPV

A

Condylomata Acuminata

158
Q

What is the goal of treatment for genital herpes?

A

To decrease the severity, promote healing, and decrease the recency of recurrent outbreaks

159
Q

What is the treatment for syphilis?

A

Penicillin

160
Q

Why does chlamydia cause infertility?

A

Scarring of the fallopian tubes

161
Q

Sexually transmitted bacterial infection of a gram negative diplococcus

A

Gonorrhea

162
Q

Complex infection process in which organisms from the lower genital tract migrate from the endocervix upward through the uterine cavity into the fallopian tubes

A

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

163
Q

How is pelvic inflammatory disease diagnosed?

A

Rule out ectopic pregnancy and appendicitis

164
Q

What other infections can gonorrhea lead to?

A

Meningitis and endocarditis

165
Q

What does Condylomata Acuminata look like?

A

Initially single, small papillary growth that grow into large cauliflower-like masses

166
Q

What is presumed if a patient has gonorrhea?

A

They also have chlamydia

167
Q

What infections are caused by pelvic inflammatory disease?

A

Endometritis, salpingitis, oophritis, parametritis, peritonitis, and tubal or tubo-ovarian abscess

168
Q

What are the symptoms of gonorrhea?

A

In men, dysuria and penile discharge; in women, vaginal discharge, urinary frequency or dysuria

169
Q

What drugs may be prescribed to treat genital herpes?

A

Acyclovir, famciclovir, or valacyclovir

170
Q

What drugs are prescribed to treat gonorrhea?

A

Cephalosporins and zithromax or doxycycline

171
Q

What are the symptoms of chlamydia?

A

In men, urethritis, and women are asymptomatic

172
Q

What can the spread of gonorrhea cause in women?

A

Endometritis, salpingitis, and pelvic peritonitis

173
Q

In what position should patients with PID be in?

A

Semi-Fowlers

174
Q

Result of genital infection with one of three serotypes of Chlamydia which is spread systematically until it localizes in the genital or rectal lymph nodes

A

Lymphogranuloma Venereum

175
Q

Painful, soft genital lesions caused by infection and transmitted through contact with the ulcer or with the discharge

A

Chancroid

176
Q

What are the risk factors for PID?

A

Younger than 26, multiple sex partners, smoking, IUD, history of STDs

177
Q

What is the incubation period of a chancriod?

A

Three to ten days

178
Q

What is the most common complication of PID?

A

Infertility

179
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of lymphogranuloma venereum?

A

A groove in the penis

180
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of PID?

A

Lower abdominal pain, irregular vaginal bleeding, change in vaginal discharge, dysuria, dyspareunia, hunched over gait, fatigue, diaphoresis, hyperthermic, abdominal tenderness or rigidity, yellow or green cervical discharge, and a reddened or friable cervix

181
Q

What is the treatment for chancroids?

A

Azithromycin, ceftriaxone, ciprofloxacin, and erythromycin

182
Q

Which hepatitis is not generally a STD?

A

Hepatitis A

183
Q

What are the types of parasites?

A

Scabies, Pediculosis pubis, trichomoniasis, and candidiasis

184
Q

Painless nodules that are ulcerated and vascular and bleed easily on contact

A

Granuloma Inguinale

185
Q

What is the real name for crabs?

A

Pediculosis pubis

186
Q

How is granuloma inguinale treated?

A

Doxycycline

187
Q

How is granuloma inguinale diagnosed?

A

By the presence of Donovan bodies in the ulcers

Illness and Patho 1 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions