Reproduction, Development and Ageing Flashcards

1
Q

What are the male reproductive hormones?

A
  • gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) - hypothalamus
  • luteinising hormone (LH) - anterior pituitary
  • follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) - anterior pituitary
  • testosterone - testis
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2
Q

What are the reproductive hormone names based off?

A

o there action in FEMALES

  • in the testes there are no follicles -> LH and FSH names have nothing to do with their action biologically or physiologically in males
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3
Q

What is the course of ejaculate?

A
  • sperm are released from the testis and stored within the epididymis within the scrotum prior to ejaculation
  • at ejaculation sperm pass through the two Vas Deferens (which are contractile), and is mixed with fluid from the seminal vesicles -> the fluid then leaves the ejaculatory duct, and passes into the urethra where it mixes with secretions from the prostate gland
  • then is contiunally propelled out of the urethra
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4
Q

Describe Leydig cells.

A
  • lie outside of the seminiferous tubules
  • the primary source of androgens in ALL male mammals -> prodominantly testosterone
  • site of LH action
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5
Q

Describe Sertoli cells.

A
  • cells in the seminiferous tubules support the process of spermatogenesis
  • produce inhibin
  • function of Sertoli cells is driven by FSH and testosterone together
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6
Q

Describe the production of testosterone.

A
  • produced in the testis by Leydig cells
  • inhibin negatively feeds back on the hypothalamus to constrain the production of GnRH
  • testosterone also feeds back from the Leydig cells to the hypothalamus and pituitary gland -> therefore constrains the production of gonadotrophins (LH/FSH)
  • androgen binding protein mediates the effects of testosterone on Sertoli cells by binding to testosterone
  • is a pulsatile manner to the regulation of the productive system
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7
Q

Where are sperm produced?

A
  • seminiferous tubules
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8
Q

Describe spermatogenesis.

A
  • primordial sperm cells undergo mitosis to produce prmary spermatocytes
  • primary spermatocytes undergo the first stage of meiosis to produce secondary spermatocytes -> the second meiotic division produces spermatids
  • spermatids then mature into spermatozoa
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9
Q

Do men go produce sperm throughout their lives?

A

o yes, after puberty

  • quantity and quality does generally decrease with increasing age
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10
Q

What are the females reproductive hormones?

A
  • gonadotrophin releasing hormone (GnRH) - hypothalamus
  • luteinising hormone (LH) - anterior pituitary
  • follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) - anterior pituitary
  • oestrogen - ovaries
  • progesterone - ovaries
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11
Q

Describe the reproductive axis in women in the follicular phase.

A
  • hypothalamus prodcued GnRH which stimulates the anterior pituitary to prodcue and secrete FSH and LH
  • this causes the ovary to produce estradiol and progesterone -> oestradiol is dominant
  • oestradiol then has a negative feedback on the hypothalamus and the pituitary
  • around 10 days in oestradiol switches to positive feedback on the hyothalamus and pituitary which causes a LH surge which further drives the positive feedback -> oestradiol is still dominant
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12
Q

Describe the reproductive axis in women in the luteal phase.

A
  • after ovulation the cycle switches back to negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary
  • progesterone aslo becomes dominant to maintain the uterine wall
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13
Q

What occurs to the female hypothalamus-pituitary axis in pregnancy?

A
  • progesterone levels RISE, and continues to do so for the whole length of pregnancy -> switches off the whole hypothalamic-pituitary axis
  • menstrual cycle completely comes to a halt during pregnancy due to progesterone –ve feedback
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14
Q

Which phase of the ovarian cycle will change its length if the cycle becomes shorter or longer due to environmental factors?

A
  • the luteal phase -> stress can make this phase several days longer
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15
Q

What physiological change occurs at ovulation?

A
  • a womens body temperature will rise by around 0.5 degrees celcius
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16
Q

Describe the endometrial cycle.

A
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17
Q

Describe oogenesis.

A

o the first polar body is essentially a nucleus -> takes half of the chromosomes away -> process comes to a halt at the point of the development of the secondary oocyte -> eggs are metaphase II

  • meiosis resumes at the point of puberty, and after that point -> individual eggs resume the process as they go through the final stages of folliculogenesis
  • the longer the eggs are held, the poorer the organisation of the DNA -> why developmental problems are associated with increasing maternal age

o start with a primary oocyte, living inside a primordial follicle -> follicle starts growing independent of the sex hormones

o eventually, one follicle becomes dominant -> grows more quickly than the others -> dominant follicle enters the secondary part of the development, to become the antral follicle

o antral follicle gives rise to the egg that is released -> other follicles enter the process of atresia and break down -> normally, one ovary produces one dominant follicle per cycle (not always the case)

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18
Q

How long does the process of producting a mature oocyte take?

A
  • around 3 months
  • will be multiple occytesmaturing in each ovary
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19
Q

How long can oocytes and spermatozoa last in the femlae reproductive tract?

A
  • oocyte = 24 hours
  • spermatozoa = 3 days
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20
Q

Describe fertilsation.

A
  • sperm swims to where the egg is in the fallopian tube -> once close enough are attracted by chemo-attraction
  • binds to the zona pellucida on the outside of the egg -> sperm produce digestive enzymes to digest their way through the zona pellucida -> eventually, one sperm will RELEASE its nucleus into the cytoplasm of the egg
  • meiosis of maternal chromosomes resumes, forming female pro-nucleus (23 chromatids), and the second polar body
  • sperm chromosomes de-condense to form male pro-nucleus (23 chromatids)
  • BOTH pro-nuclei are duplicated and then align on the mitotic spindle, and are separated into 2 identical ‘daughter’ cells -> done at the 1st cleavage division of the embryo
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21
Q

What cause penile and clitoral erection?

A
  • partly under the control of the brain, via the spinal cord and efferent nervous system
  • tactile stimulus of the organ can activate the afferent system (pudendal nerve) -> is a more direct interaction
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22
Q

What changes occur during erection?

A
  • initiated by increased parasympathetic activity to smooth muscle of pudendal artery
  • is an increases in the activity of Nitric Oxide Synthase (NOS), and hence nitric oxide (NO) -> increased production of cyclic GMP which induces dilatation of arterial smooth muscle -> increases blood flow in corpus cavernosum
  • in turn this compresses the dorsal vein, restricting the outflow of blood
  • urethra is protected from increased pressure by surrounding corpus spongiosum (less turgid)
  • same mechanims are in play in the clitoris
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23
Q

When is the absolutel limit of survival outside of the womb?

A
  • without the intensive care unit, the absolute limit of survival outside the womb is 27 weeks (defines the end of the second trimester)
  • modern intensive care cots have increased this limit to 23 weeks -> is extremely dangerous -> survival rates are quite low when premature births take place
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24
Q

What are the maternal changes that occur during pregnancy and what trimester do they prodominantly occur in?

A
  • increased weight [3rd]
  • increased blood volume [2nd & later]
  • increased blood clotting tendency [2nd & later]
  • decreased blood pressure [2nd]
  • altered brain function [throughout] – function of the brain changes
  • altered hormones [throughout] – can be largely different to normal physiology
  • altered appetite (quantity and quality of what the mother eats changes) [throughout]
  • GI imbalance (morning sickness)
  • altered fluid balance [2nd & later]
  • altered emotional state [throughout]
  • altered joints - e.g. more flexible knees [3rd]
  • altered immune system [throughout]
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25
Q

What hormonal changes occur in a women during pregnancy?

A
  • human chorionic gonadotrophin is the key hormone in early pregnancy -> is a functional homologue of LH, driving the production of oestrogens and progesterones from the corpus luteum
  • corpus luteum usually degenerates towards the end of the last week of the menstrual cycle -> fall in progesterone results in the breakdown of endometrium -> to keep the pregnancy going, we need progesterone -> hCG drives the progesterone production from the corpus luteum -> peaks and falls in the first trimester
  • placental lactogen is produced, and levels increase as the size of the placenta increases, same pattern of production is seen in progesterone and oestrogens
  • by 10 weeks gestation, the placenta is the source of all progesterone -> up to then, mainly corpus luteum
  • levels of progesterone and oestrogens greatly exceed the levels seen during the normal menstrual cycle, so they may have potent effects on the maternal system in pregnancy -> are well above required because low progesterone levels lead to loss of the pregnancy at all gestational ages.
  • high levels of steroids suppressing the HPG, leads to very low levels of LH and FSH throughout pregnancy, and hence no cyclic ovarian or uterine functions
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26
Q

What is meant by the term conceptus?

A
  • everything resulting from fertilised egg -> baby, placenta, fetal membranes, umbilical cord
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27
Q

What are the timing issues in pregnancy?

A
  • menstrual cycle is not precisely 28 days, and ovulation is not precisely on day 14

o first day of the last menstrual period is taken as the start of pregnancy -> a clearly established day -> from this, we can work out when the women ovulated (2 weeks after that)

o embryologists, however, will take the first day as being the point of fertilisation

  • these timings differ by 2 weeks -> doesn’t make a huge difference in the scheme of ‘term dates’ but does at the beginning of pregnancy
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28
Q

What are the lumps in a placenta called?

A
  • cotyledons
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29
Q

Describe the structure of the placenta.

A
  • placental villus is extensively branched, which provides a very large surface area
  • maternal vascular system is set up over this surface area
  • umbilical vein carries the oxygenated blood (is flowing away from the foetal heart) and the 2 umbilical arteies carry the deoxygenated blood -> same as in the lungs
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30
Q

What are the functions of the placenta?

A
  • separation of blood supplies of mother and baby
  • exchange of nutrients (maternal to foetal) and waste products (foetal to maternal)
  • connection (or anchorage)
  • immunoregulation -> allows the maternal immune system to switch off
  • biosynthesis -> e.g. progesterone, oestrogens and hCG
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31
Q

Describe the development of a placenta.

A
  • starts as a layer of single cells in the blastocyst
  • day 9 post-fertilisation, the conceptus is almost completely implanted within the endometrium -> At this stage, the outer layer of the conceptus is multi-nucleated syncytiotrophoblasts containing fluid-filled lacunae
  • underlying layer of cytotrophoblast is proliferating adjacent to the embryo -> where the placenta will develop -> following implantation, the cytotrophoblast proliferate into the syncytium
  • a columnar structure forms (cytotrophoblast column), which undergoes branching (villous sprouts) -> at the centre of each villus are mesenchymal (extra-embryonic mesoderm) cells -> from these cells, the villus vascular system develops
  • branching continues throughout pregnancy -> gives rise to the complex branched villi
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32
Q

Why do cytotrophoblast shells limit blood supply to an embryo in early development?

A
  • keeps the number of free radicals from oxygen low -> less likely to cause damage
  • allows for remodelling of spiral arteries to allow high volume of blood in second and third trimesters
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33
Q

What does mal-development of the placenta lead to?

A
  • miscarriage (late first trimester) – if the placenta doesn’t anchor properly
  • miscarriage (second trimester)
  • pre-eclampsia (early delivery)
  • fetal growth restriction (small infant)
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34
Q

What is the cut off point for a delivery to be considered term?

A
  • term = 37-41 weeks
  • pre-term = 23-37 weeks -> mostly due to pre-term labour but some are due to C-sections due to a significant risk to the baby and/or mother
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35
Q

Define labour.

A
  • fundally dominant contractions, coupled with cervical ripening (softening) and effacement (thinning of the cervix as well as expanding sideays)
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36
Q

Describe the process of labour is independent of gestational age.

A
  • cervical ripening and effacement (increasing)
  • co-ordinated myometrial contractions (increasing)
  • rupture of fetal membranes
  • delivery of infant
  • delivery of placenta
  • contraction of uterus
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37
Q

What are Braxton Hicks contractions?

A
  • a latent stage, around 8 weeks before labour, in which the myometrium undergoes changes
  • rather than being completely relaxed (to allow for foetal growth), a part of it contracts briefly, and relaxes
  • occurs intermittently but regularly
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38
Q

Describe phase I of labour?

A
  • involves contractions and cervical/uterine changes
  • > contractions become more powerful and more co-ordinated
  • > cervix begins to soften (ripening) and gets thinner (effacement)
  • length of phase I is incredibly variable (12 to 48 hours) -> gets shorter with subsequent pregnancies
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39
Q

Describe phase II of labour.

A
  • baby is delivered
  • > contractions continually get stronger and more frequent
  • can last hours but is never as long as phase one
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40
Q

Describe phase III of labour.

A
  • the placenta is delivered
  • around half an hour long
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41
Q

What initiates term labour?

A
  • no-one really knows
  • might be driven by oestrogens, low progesterones, CRH and oxytocin etc
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42
Q

What initiates pre-term labour?

A
  • intrauterine infection
  • infection elsewhere in mother’s body
  • intrauterine bleeding
  • multiple pregnancy
  • maternal stress
  • many other factors
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43
Q

Describe cervical ripening and effacement.

A
  • change from rigid to flexible structure
  • remodelling (loss) of extracellular matrix
  • recruitment of leukocytes (neutrophils)

o is an inflammatory process -> leads to the production of:

  • > prostaglandin E2, interleukin-8
  • > local (paracrine) change in IL-8
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44
Q

Describe co-ordinated myometrial contractions.

A
  • fundal dominance
  • increased co-ordination and power of contractions
  • mediated by:
  • > prostaglandin F2a (E2) levels increased from fetal membranes
  • > oxytocin receptor increases -> more oxytocin receptors (not oxytocin) means the uterus in more responsive to it
  • > contraction associated proteins
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45
Q

Describe rupture of the foetal membranes.

A
  • loss of strength due to changes in amnion basement component

o is what is happening when a woman’s ‘water breaks’

  • involves inflammatory changes and leukocyte recruitment -> is modest in normal labour, exacerbated in pre-term labour
  • > increased levels and activity of MMPs
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46
Q

Which pro-inflammatory transcription factor is most important in labour?

A

o NF-Kappa-B

  • enters the nucleus and upregulates lots of porteins which are key in labour -> e.g. COX-2 (prostaglandins), IL-8, IL-1b, MMPs, oxytocin receptor, PG receptors, contraction-associated proteins
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47
Q

Name the current top 2 factors for initiating normal labour.

A
  • corticotrophin releasing hormone
  • platelet activating factor
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48
Q

Why does CRH make sense to be an initiator of labour?

A
  • its maternal blood circulation levels rise dramatically in the last 3-4 weeks of pregnancy due to the loss of its binding protein
  • it increases the production of prostaglandins (COX-2, E2) which are known to be important in labour
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49
Q

Why does platelt activating factor make sense to be an initiator of labour?

A
  • PAF is part of lung surfactant
  • babies don’t have surfactant in utero however surfactant proteins and complexes are produced in the last couple of months of pregnancy by the maturing lungs -> more mature the lung is = the higher the levels of surfactant get
  • levels of surfactant in amniotic fluid increase near term -> a foetal signal of maturity -> baby can now be delivered safely, because it can breathe air
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50
Q

What is the current hypothesis on parturition?

A
  • high levels of CRH will start to switch UP IL and prostaglandin production in the foetal membranes
  • cortisol from the adrenal gland is acts on the foetal lung -> stimulates the foetal lungs to produce surfactant (including PAF)

o high levels of cortisol production = more surfactant produced = more PAF

  • lungs are in intimate contact with amniotic fluid (baby takes amniotic fluid into lungs, and expels it) -> allows PAF to enter the amniotic fluid, and PAF upregulates the same factors in the membranes
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51
Q

What is DHEAS?

A
  • a steroid produced in the adrenal glands
  • can move to the placenta and can be converted to oestrogens
  • oestrogens upregulate PGs, OT and OT receptors -> all required for increased myometrial contractility
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52
Q

How does pregnancy occur despite progesterone levels remaining high?

A
  • progesterone is NEEDED to sustain pregnancy -> one of the ways of causing pregnancy loss is giving a progesterone antagonist
  • progesterone levels remain very high until after delivery of the placenta (unlike sheep) but the effect of progesterone is lost in normal term labour -> thought to be because there is an interaction between the progesterone receptor and NFkB
  • throughout pregnancy progesterone receptors are present in large quantities (unlike NFkB) therefore, NFkB cannot do its normal job of upregulation inflammatory cascades
  • at the end of pregnancy, NFkB levels rise (driven by CRH/PAF) and progesterone levels fall
  • switching off of progesterone may act as an initiator of labour
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53
Q

Define foetal growth.

A
  • increase in mass that occurs between the end of embryonic peoid and birth
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54
Q

What 2 factors is foetal growth dependent on?

A

o genetic potential -> derived from both parents and mediated through growth factors e.g. insulin like growth factors

o substrate supply -> essential to achieve genetic potential

-> derived from placenta which is dependent upon both uterine and placental vascularity

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55
Q

What are the 3 phases of normla foetal growth?

A
  1. cellular hyperplasia (happens rapidly in the first few weeks)
  2. hyperplasia and hypertrophy
  3. hypertrophy alone
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56
Q

What techniques are used to ante-natally asses the size of a foetus?

A
  • palpation of the maternal abdomen
  • measure the uterus with a tape measure -> measure their symphysis fundal height = pubic symphysis to the fundus of the uterus - SFH
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57
Q

Why might a foetus be measured to be smaller than expected?

A
  • we have the wrong dates
  • baby is small for gestational age -> could be pathological or just a small baby
  • oligohydramnios - amniotic fluid deficiency
  • the foetus is lying transversely
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58
Q

Why might a foetus by measured to be larger than expected?

A
  • we have the dates wrong
  • molar pregnancy
  • multiple gestation
  • large for gestational age
  • polyhydramnios - excess amniotic fluid
  • maternal obesity
  • fibroids - non-cancerous growth of the uterus
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59
Q

What are the pros and cons of SFH?

A

o pros of SFH = SIMPLE and INEXPENSIVE

o cons of SFH = low detection rate, great inter-operator variability, influenced by a number of factors (BMI, foetal lie, amniotic fluid, fibroids)

  • nowadays, in modern obstetric practice, we use ultrasound machines to measure the baby more objectively
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60
Q

How are pregnancies dated?

A
  • dating can be done by asking the mother for the first day of her last menstrual cycle (LMP) -> fairly inaccurate method (irregular periods, abnormal bleeding, contraceptives, breast feeding)
  • nowadays all pregnancies are dated using the crown rump length (CRL) -> exception being IVF (know exactly when the embryos were made)
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61
Q

What 4 measuremenst are taken to asses foetal growth?

A
  • bi-parietal diameter
  • head circumference
  • abdominal circumference
  • femur length
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62
Q

What are the factors that influence foetal growth?

A

o maternal factors -> poverty, age, drug use, weight (low BMI can result in a small baby), disease (hypertension, diabetes, coagulopathy), smoking, alcohol, diet, prenatal depression, environmental toxins

  • foeto-placental factors -> genotype -> genetic potential, gender (B>G), hormones -> previous pregnancy (if a mother has had a previously affected pregnancy with intra-uterine growth restriction, she is at a higher risk of having it again in subsequent pregnancy)
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63
Q

What are the major foetal hormones?

A
  • GH
  • prolactin
  • FSH
  • LH
  • insulin
  • androgens
  • iodothyronines
64
Q

Describe customised growth charts.

A
  • adjusted to reflect maternal constitutional variation (maternal height, weight, ethnicity, parity)
  • optimised by presenting a standard free from pathological factors such as diabetes and smoking
  • based on foetal weight curves derived from normal pregnancies
65
Q

What is the difference between small for gestational age (SGA) and foetal growth restricted (FGR)?

A
  • SGA = estimated birth weight that is <10th centile
  • FGR = failure of foetus to achieve its pre-determined potential which is backed up with definitive evidence
66
Q

How is foetal growth restriction assessed?

A
  • the term FGR should only be used for foetuses with definite evidence that growth has altered
  • growth is a dynamic process of a change of size over time -> so it can only be assessed by serial observation -> the gap between measurements is at least 2 weeks
  • allows doctors to truly see what the projectile is on a centile biometry
67
Q

What are the short-term problems associated with low birth weight, FGP and pre-maturity?

A
  • respiratory distress -> particularly if developed before 34 weeks (minimised by giving steroid injections)
  • intraventricular haemorrhage -> produces a risk of cerebral palsy later on
  • sepsis -> due to an immature immune system
  • hypoglycaemia -> if the liver is less developed, you see metabolic problems
  • necrotising enterocolitis
  • jaundice
  • electrolyte imbalance
68
Q

What are the medium-term problems associated with low birth weight, FGP and pre-maturity?

A
  • respiratory problems
  • developmental delay -> special needs schooling maybe required
69
Q

What are the long-term problems associated with low birth weight, FGP and pre-maturity?

A
  • foetal programming -> ischaemic heart disease, congenital heart disease and diabetes are more common, due to compensatory pathways (influenced by initiation by poor growth at the beginning of life)
70
Q

What are the causes of small for gestational age babies?

A
  • dating problems and normal /simply a small baby make up 75%
  • foetal problem -> abnormality or infection etc
  • placental insufficiency -> placental cysts, infarction, placenta praevia etc
  • maternal factors -> medical (chronic hypertension, diabetes etc) or behavouiral (smoking, alcohol, drugs etc)
71
Q

What is pre-eclampsia?

A
  • a failure in the trophoblastic invasion of the placenta -> spiral arteries remain narrow -> requires high shearing force to maintain a=enough blood supply tp the foetus
  • defined as: pregnant women who have hypertension, oedoma and proteinuria
  • high bp occurs in 10% of pregnancies and is associated with small babies
72
Q

Which foetuses have their growth monitored closely?

A

o mother has a bad obstetric history -> previous maternal hypertension, previous FGR, previous stillbirth, placental abruption

o concerns in index pregnancy -> abnormal serum biochemistry, reduced symphysis fundal height, antepartum haemorrhage, maternal systemic disease e.g. hypertension, renal, coagulation

73
Q

How are pregnancies screened for ‘at risk’ FGR foetuses?

A
  • uterine artery doppler at 24 weeks -> blood flow through uterine arteries -> allows us to identify high resistance flow -> have high resistant flow = higher increase in resistance in the maternal circulation
74
Q

What factors are used to predict if a foetuses may become growth- restricted?

A
  • mother has a poor obstetric history
  • primips
  • obese
  • Afro-Caribbean/African
  • family history
  • diabetes
  • systemic vascular disease
  • renal disease
  • thrombophilias
75
Q

What is the consequences of impedence of the umbilical veins?

A
  • foetus moves less to reserve energy
76
Q

How FGR pregnancies dealt with?

A
  • if it is confirmed to due to impedence of the umbilical vein -> immediate delivery of the bay is offered it is over 28 weeks of 500g or larger
  • will need corticosteroids to improve neonatal wellbeing
77
Q

What complicates delivery in pregnancies with FGR?

A
  • timing delivery in these pregnancies depends on balancing the risks to the foetus if it remains in utero and the hazards from the prematurity, which decrease as the gestation advances
  • evidence of foetal compromise on CTGs or abnormal Dopplers/ultrasound finding/maternal compromise
78
Q

If delivery is required as a treatment, how is the mode of delivery decided?

A

o dependent on:

  • gestation of the pregnancy
  • condition of the pregnancy
  • state of the cervix
  • presentation of the foetus
  • other factors: oligohydramnios -> labour may be poorly tolerated due to cord compression
79
Q

Fetal growth restriction is not associated with:

A) High resistance umbilical artery Doppler readings

B) Preterm delivery

C) Increased risk of delivery by Caesarean section

D) Neonatal hyperglycaemia

E) Neonatal necrotising enterocolitis

A
  • D -> is associated with hypoglycaemia but not hyperglycaemia
80
Q

What are the causes of mal-development?

A
  • genetics = 30%
  • environmental = 15%
  • multifactorial = 55%
81
Q

What is chimerism?

A
  • 2 genetically distinct conceptuses that fuse to form one individual early on in development
82
Q

What chromosome distribution mal-developments exsist?

A
  • mosaicism
  • chimerism
83
Q

Which 3 chromosomes can a human have 3 of and still be compatible with life?

A
  • 13 = Patau’s syndrome -> most die before birth and 80% die within a year
  • 18 = Edward’s syndrome -> most die before birth, the few who don’t are unlikely to for more than 2 weeks
  • 21 = Down’s syndrome -> heart problems determine survival
  • all other trisomies have been detected in pregnancy but don’t make it to birth -> exception is chromosome 1 -> never been found -> though to be because it carries the most DNA so a problem with it is fatal before implantation can occur
84
Q

Which chromosome is viable with life there is only one copy?

A
  • X0 = Turner’s syndrome
  • partial chromosome losses can be compatible -> increased chance of cancers/tumours -> only a single hit is required in TSG
  • translocations can also occur and lead to XX boys etc
85
Q

Describe Holt-Oram syndrome.

A

o range of heart and hand defects

  • chambers in the heart don’t develop properly due to septal defects
  • thumbs will develop as fingers -> sometimes only on one hand

o phenotype is due toa mutation in TBX5 (a TF)

86
Q

Describe achondroplasia.

A
  • gain of function mutation in FGFR3 causes a defect is in conversion of cartilage to bone -> a lack of bone growth occurs
  • gives rise to achondroplastic dwarfism
  • long bones of the legs in particularly haven’t developed as they should -> very short
87
Q

Define teratogen.

A
  • any agent that can disturb the development of an embryo or foetus
88
Q

Name the 3 categories of teratogens and give some examples.

A
  • infectious agents -> rubella virus , herpes simplex virus, HIV, syphilis, zika virus etc
  • physical agents -> X-rays and other ionising radiation
  • chemical agents -> thalidomide, lithium, amphetamines, cocaine, alcohol etc
89
Q

When is a foetus most vunerable to teratogens?

A
  • first trimester -> although the first couple of weeks aren’t affected in terms of mal-development -> the foetus imple wouldn’t be able to survive so would die
  • some systems (CNS) are vunerable throughout
90
Q

What is polydactly?

A
  • a minor defect in which a hand (or both) has an extra finger
  • is usually still fully functional
91
Q

Summarise limb development.

A
  • fore limb bud appears at day 27/28 and the hind limb bud at day 29
  • buds grow out from lateral plate mesoderm rapidly under the control of special signalling regions
  • digits are fully formed and patterned by day 56
92
Q

How does sonic hedehog gene influence growth of the limbs?

A
  • expressed in the control centre of the limbs -> co-ordinated the development of the limbs
  • if it is also expressed on the corresponding mirror image you will get the formation of a limb which is symmetrical -> 2 thumbs and 2 fingers (in a chicken a wing with two end bones)
93
Q

What is a cleft lip and/or palate?

A
  • a major mal-development of the lip and/or palate
94
Q

Describe development of the face and what goes wrong when a cleft lip and/or palate forms.

A
  • faces start developing with the eyes either side of the head (near to the ears), the nose also starts off developing relatively laterally
  • movement of structures medially requires that clefting occurs in the middle of the face -> this gap is then filled in with cells -> if this filling in process fails a cleft lip and/or palate will form
95
Q

Why must a cleft palate be treated?

A
  • to prevent food entering the nasal cavity and then potentially the lungs
96
Q

Why is it important to treat a cleft lip?

A
  • the cosemetics and psychology of the patient
97
Q

What is the treatment for cleft lips and/or palates, plus state the results?

A
  • surgery
  • outcomes are very good as cells are proliferating very fast in a young infant (surgery must be done soon) so very little scarring occurs
98
Q

What is spina bifida?

A
  • defect where there is incomplete closing of the backbone and membranes around the spinal cord
99
Q

What are the 3 types of spina bifida?

A
  • spina bifida occulta -> CNS is okay but the spine isn’t correctly formed -> characterised by a small patch of hair over the lesion -> is hidden and often doesnt cause any major problems
  • meningocele -> a swelling/lesion containing CSF pokes out of the spinal column
  • myelomeningocele -> swelling/lesion containing nervous tissue pokes out of the spinal column -> all nerves below the lesion will be damaged and many will not function at all
100
Q

Describe the development of the spinal column and what goes wrong in spina bifida?

A
  • development of the bony part of the spine is driven and controlled by neural tissue (CNS tissue)
  • spina bifida development takes place within the first 4 weeks post-fertilisation
  • formation of the CNS is the formation of a tubular structure
  • in spina bifida, the tube does not completely seal up (in one or more places) -> this process is called neuralation -> in spina bifida, neuralation is of the posterior neuropore is faulty
101
Q

Which vitamin is very important in preventing spina bifida? When should this vitamin be taken?

A

o folic acid

  • folic acid should be given 3 months prior to conception -> egg does most of its development before it is selected as the main follicle within these 3 months -> at this point, the egg is taking up nutrients and building its reserves for development -> why folic acid must be given 3 months before fertilisation
102
Q

What is anencephaly?

A
  • defect in skull and brain development due to a faulty closure of the anterior neuropore
  • the more complicated areas of the brain don’t develop but the parts essential for life (brainstem etc) do
  • more common in females
103
Q

How can anencephaly be prevented?

A
  • folic acid 3 months before conception
104
Q

What defects occur when thalidomide is taken during pregnancy?

A
  • predominantly the limbs (upper limbs more common, but lower limbs can also be affected)
  • deformed eyes and hearts, deformed alimentary and urinary tracts, blindness and deafness
105
Q

What was thalidomide used to treat and what is it now used to treat?

A
  • was = hyperemia gravidarum - severe morning sickness
  • now = some cancers and leprosy
106
Q

How does thalidomide induce limb defects?

A
  • one of the thalidomide isoforms STOPS blood vessel development by inhibiting FGF and snic hedgehog in some way -> if it stops vessel development, cell death results -> growing limb cannot grow
  • is devoid of nutrients and truncates prematurely -> if the exposure is short, it is PARTIAL limb loss that results, longer exposure can result in complete limb loss
107
Q

What is respiratory distress syndrome?

A
  • lung surfactant disorder/deficiency
  • occurs in premature babies as lung development occurs slowly throughout pregnancy and after birth -> affects 100% at GA 24 weeks, 50% at GA 26-28 weeks and 25% at GA 30-31 weeks
  • symptoms can be lessened with a glucocorticoid injection into the mother 2-3 days before birth -> wil still require support
108
Q

Why do doctors measure growth?

A
  • poor growth in infancy is associated with high childhood morbidity and mortality.
  • growth is the best indicator of health – a child who is growing well will be healthy
  • demonstration of normality of growth by age and stage of puberty
  • measurement allows us to identify disorders of growth
  • assess obesity
109
Q

What is the height velocity calculation?

A
110
Q

Describe the endocrine control of growth.

A
  • hypothalamus produces GHRH, which stimulates the pituitary gland to make and release GH -> GH binds to proteins and travels to the GH receptor
  • initiates the production of IGF-1 -> IGF-1 travels around the body with binding proteins -> IGF-1 receptors are located within the growth plates of bones (IGF-1 has an autocrine AND paracrine effect)
  • growth plate is cartilage which within are osteoblasts -> IGF-1 interacts with the osteoblasts and activates them -> begin to proliferate, and the bone becomes longer and longer
  • is some negative control by GH from the hypothalamus
111
Q

Where is most IGF-1 produced?

A
  • liver = 70%
112
Q

What kind of effecst does IGF-1 have?

A
  • autocrine and paracrine
113
Q

In what phase of growth is growth fastest?

A
  • ante-natal followed by the first year of life
114
Q

Describe growth in infancy/under 1 year old.

A
  • rapid initial growth -> 23-25 cm in first year -> continuation of foetal growth, but a decrease in the velocity
  • baby is nutritionally dependant for a year -> nutrition controls growth in the first year of life -> when the baby reaches 1 year of age, GH is vital in baby growth -> 9-12 months growth starts to be influenced by GH
  • in GH deficiency, the height of a baby plateaus very low down on a growth chart around 9-12 months
115
Q

Describe growth in childhood (1-adolescence).

A
  • post infancy to adolescence
  • growth rates in boys and girls similar -> same growth velocity = 5-6cm/year
  • is where the GH/IGF-1 axis drives growth -> nutrition has less impact her
  • after this sex steroid drive growth along with GH
116
Q

Whay happens when a person stops growing?

A
  • bones mature and epiphyses fuse -> sex steroids fuse the growth plates
  • final growth occurs in the spine
  • final epiphyses to fuse are in the pelvis
117
Q

Name some causes of short stature.

A
  • genetics -> if you have short parents, you will be short
  • pubertal and growth delay
  • IUGR/SGA -> 10-20% of babies who are small at birth
  • dysmorphic syndromes -> chromosome abnormalities often result in short stature
  • endocrine disorders
  • chronic paediatric disease
  • psychosocial depravation -> stressors can affect the pulsatility of GH
118
Q

How can mid-parental centiles be used to estimate maximum potential height of a child?

A
  • male = ((mothers’ height + fathers’ height)/2) + 7
  • females = ((mothers’ height + fathers’ height)/2) - 7
119
Q

If growth is abnormally patterned but hormones are normal what causes could be at play?

A

o may be due to syndromes

  • Turner syndrome XO – females who don’t go through puberty, and are short
  • Down’s syndrome (trisomy 21)
  • skeletal dysplasias

o significant illnesses can interfere with growth -> inflammation, poor nutrition and the effects of drugs such as steroids -> blocks the intracellular signalling processes of GH – so IGF-1 will be much lower

o achondroplasia -> actually have a normal sitting height but an abnormal standing height, because of their shorter legs

120
Q

Name some chronic paediatric diseases known to affect growth.

A
  • badly controlled asthma
  • sickle cell
  • juvenile chronic arthritis
  • inflammatory bowel disease -> Crohn’s disease or coeliac disease
  • cystic fibrosis
  • renal failure
  • congenital heart disease
121
Q

Name some causes of tall stature.

A
  • parents are tall, the child will be tall
  • early puberty – makes a child tall at first
  • Marfans syndrome or Klinefelter’s syndrome -> really long arm span and really tall
  • growth hormone excess
122
Q

Name 3 syndromes associated with obesity.

A
  • Prader-Willi
  • Cushing’s
  • Lawrence-Moon-Biedl
123
Q

Describe the genetics of weight gain?

A

o polygenic inheritance - > many genes affect how much we will weight -> monogenic obesity syndromes (PWS etc are very rare)

o weight is a highly heritable trait (40-70%)

  • leptin deficiency or leptin receptor deficiency
  • POMC deficiency
  • PC-1 deficiency
  • MC4R deficiency
124
Q

Define puberty.

A
  • process of physical changes through which a child’s body matures into an adult body that is capable of sexual reproduction
125
Q

Define adrenarche.

A

o increase in adrenal androgen production

  • occurs prior to onset of puberty (between the ages of 6 and 10)
  • during adrenarche the adrenal cortex secretes increased levels of androgens (DHEA, DHEAS) but without increased cortisol levels
126
Q

Define menarche.

A
  • onset of the first menstraul cycle
  • although the definition is a singular event you can’t really define menstraul cycle as began before 3 complete cycles
127
Q

Describe the 5 stages of puberty.

A
  • stage 1 = hormone production begins/increases but there aren’t any physical signs
  • stage 2 = change in body shape (breast begins to form, more triangular in boys and curvy in girls) and pubic hair begins to appear -> girls begine to grow in height and weight
  • stage 3 = contiuation of growth and change in body shape (boys also begin to grow) as well as changes in siza and shape of genitals -> boys shoulders and muscle mass increases dramatically and voice begins to deepen
  • stage 4 -> girls = breasts and aureolas develop, pubic hair has a more triangular adult appearance, menarche will begin if it hasn’t already
  • > boys = penis starts to grow in width (texture more adult like too) , testicles and scrotum also continue to grow, hair may begin to grow on the anus, armpits and face, the voice continues to deepen
  • stage 5 = final height is reached/approached, genital and hair is like that of an adults = fully developed -> some boys will continue to grow into their 20s
128
Q

What are the main psychological changes in adolescence?

A
  • cogntition -> abstract thinking
  • identity
  • increased self-awareness
  • expression and regulation affected
129
Q

What is anorexia nervosa?

A
  • persistent restriction of energy intake leading to significantly low body weight (in context of what is minimally expected for age, sex, developmental trajectory, and physical health -> used to defined as a body weight at least 15% below expected or BMI<17.5
  • linked with a psychopathology-morbid dread of fatness -> aim for lower weight than premorbid or healthy -> hence particularly avoid fattening food
  • causes endocrine disturbance -> secondary amenorrhoea or loss of sexual interest/potency in men/boys
130
Q

Describe conduct disorder.

A

o conduct disorder is the child equivalent of anti-social personality disorder -> a persistent failure to control behaviour appropriately within socially defined rules

  • are 3 overlapping domains of behaviours -> defiance against authority, aggressiveness and antisocial behaviours
  • becomes a disorder when it becomes an impairment in every day functioning
131
Q

How is conduct disorder treated/intervented?

A
  • child focused -> behaviour modification, problem-solving skills training
  • family-focused -> family counseling and social work, family therapy, parent management training -> ARE MORE EFFECTIVE
132
Q

What are some causes of conduct disroders?

A
  • genes are NOT strongly linked
  • “difficult” temperament
  • immediate environment -> parental psychiatric disorder, parental criminality, sexual abuse
  • wider environment -> school factors (ways in which schools deal with these children), wider social influences
133
Q

How is depression treated?

A
  • mild depression -> support and stress reduction with non-specific counseling
  • moderate depression -> 3-step plan -> support and stress reduction first, cognitive behavioural therapy and anti-depressants
  • severe depression -> combination from the start
134
Q

What are the 2 main theory branches on why we age?

A
  • programmed ageing
  • damage or error theory
135
Q

Describe programmed ageing theory.

A
  • revolve around genetics -> is evidence that cells in culture have a limit for the number of times they can divide -> this is the Hayflick limit - after this limit is reached, cells cannot continue to divide
  • theoretical benefit of limiting replication is prevention of cancer
  • EVIDENCE TO SUGGEST THAT HUMANS WITH MORE ACTIVE TELOMERASE LIVE LONGER
136
Q

Describe damage or error theories on ageing.

A
  • revolve around free radicals (oxygen, hydrogen peroxide and nitrous oxide)
  • free radicals are generated in the body, particularly by mitochondria and damage the mitochondria, and mitochondrial DNA -> mitochondrial DNA doesn’t have very good repair mechanisms -> as mitochondria become damaged they die which leads to cell death
137
Q

What challenges does society face as a result of population ageing?

A
  • working life/retirement balance -> won’t be able to fund pensions for everyone
  • caring for older people, the sandwich generation (people with young children and elderly parents)
  • extending healthy old age not just life expectancy
  • iInadequate or absent services
  • outdated and ageist beliefs/assumptions
  • medical system designed for single acute diseases
  • limited accessibility for those with disabilities
138
Q

Define frailty.

A
  • a physiologic syndrome characterized by decreased reserve and resistance to stressors, resulting from cumulative decline across multiple physiologic systems, and causing vulnerability to adverse outcomes
139
Q

How does frailty develop?

A

- genetic factors -> some people age faster than other people -> if your parents live to old age, you are much more likely to live to old age

  • environmental factors (e.g. smoking and alcohol consumption) -> combine to cause cellular and molecular damage -> reduced physiological reserves in all the organ systems -> FRAILTY
  • a minor stressor event pushes people beyond their functional reserve -> cannot cope anymore -> this often becomes cyclical
140
Q

How can frailty be treated?

A
  • exercise, nutrition and drugs -> prevention is better than cure
  • ACE inhibitors may be beneficial in preventing frailty
141
Q

What are the non-specific presentations of frailty?

A
  • falls
  • reduced mobility
  • recurrent infections
  • confusion
  • weight loss
  • “not coping” at home
  • iatrogenic harm
142
Q

How might elderly peoples symptoms change?

A

o older people are less likely to have “textbook” symptoms of disease:

- acute coronary syndrome: less likely to have chest pain - more likely to have SOB

- PE: less likely to have pleuritic chest pain, and haemoptysis - more likely to have syncope (fainting)

143
Q

What are the negative impacts of multimorbidity?

A
  • worse quality of life -> more likely to be depressed
  • increased functional impairment
  • burden of treatment
  • polypharmacy
144
Q

Why do older people take more drugs?

A
  • multimorbidity
  • guidelines/QOF/NICE
  • undetected non-adherence
  • infrequent review
  • poor communication
145
Q

What is a comprehensive geriatric assessment?

A
  • a multidisciplinary assessment that leads to an individual, goal based plan
  • assesses physical and mental health, functional ability, social situation and environment
146
Q

What physical changes occur to the brain as you get older?

A
  • sulciand ventricles become much more prominent in the older brain
  • as we age, we lose both grey and white matter -> numbers of connections between the neurones are reduced, and the neurones themselves begin to shrink in size slightly -> see an atrophic appearance -> is completely normal
147
Q

Name some normal cognitive changes in older people.

A
  • processing speed slows
  • working memory slightly reduced (e.g. digit spans)
  • simple attention ability preserved, but reduction in divided attention
  • executive functions generally reduced
  • no change in non-declarative memory (e.g. how to do things)
  • no change in visuo-spatial abilities
  • no overall change in language -> some reduction in verbal fluency
148
Q

What is dementia?

A
  • progressive, degenerative and irreversible decline in all cognitive functions -> not just memory but that is often how it presents
  • causes loss of memory, impairment of function, loss of executive function, behavioural and psychological changes and lack of insight
149
Q

Can dementia be prevented?

A
  • yes
  • exercise, low alcohol consumption, not smoking, healthy diet
150
Q

What are the types of dementia?

A
  • Alzheimer’s = MOST COMMON
  • vascular dementia = just under a 1/4 of dementia
151
Q

What is delirium?

A
  • an acute, global failure of higher brain function -> affects level and content of consciousness -> i.e. alertness and cognition
152
Q

What are the differences between dementia and delirium?

A
153
Q

What cognitive screening tests exist?

A
  • AMT, clock drawing test, 4AT, GP COG, 6CIT…
  • mini Mental State Examination (MMSE)
  • Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MOCA)
154
Q

What cognitive diagnostic tests exist?

A
  • Addenbrooke’s Cognitive Examination (ACE)
  • detailed neuropsychometric testing
155
Q

What are the general problems with cognitive assessments?

A
  • hearing and visual impairment may limit testing
  • physical problems may limit testing (e.g. holding a pencil to draw)
  • most assume numeracy and literacy
  • most assume some basic cultural knowledge
  • depression can masquerade as dementia
  • not valid in acute illness
  • normal cognitive changes (slower processing speed, slower reaction times) may affect administration