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Equine (fourth year) > Reproduction > Flashcards

Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

what is a stallion?

A

entire male older than 4 years

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2
Q

what is a colt?

A

entire male younger than 4 years

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3
Q

when should testicles descend into the scrotum of horses?

A

at or shortly after birth (can take up to 24 months)

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4
Q

when does puberty occur in male horses?

A

12-24 months old

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5
Q

when do male horses reach sexual maturity?

A

4-5 years old

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6
Q

how long does spermatogenesis roughly take in horses?

A

60 days

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7
Q

what are some possible influences on semen quality?

A

testicular size/efficiency
age
season
frequency of ejaculation
general health/injury

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8
Q

what is often the limiting factor to how many mares a stallion can cover?

A

libido (not sperm)

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9
Q

what should be examined for breeding soundness of stallions?

A

exam of external genitalia
exam of internal genitalia
libido and mating ability
semen evaluation
testicular biopsy
ultrasound testicle
urethral endoscopy

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10
Q

what diseases should stallions be tested for?

A

contagious equine metritis (Taylorella equigenitalis)
equine viral arteritis

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11
Q

what sexually transmitted disease is notifiable in stallions?

A

equine viral arteritis

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12
Q

how can stallions be protected from equine viral arteritis?

A

vaccination

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13
Q

what is the issue with the vaccine for equine viral arteritis?

A

isn’t a marker vaccine - must tested before giving the vaccine then keep on top of vaccine boosters

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14
Q

what clinical sign of systemic illness can effect sperm production of stallions?

A

pyrexia

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15
Q

what is a paraphimosis?

A

inability of penis to be retracted into sheath

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16
Q

how can paraphimosis be treated?

A

support penis to stop dangling
possible GA and replace then place purse string suture across preputial orifice

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17
Q

what is priapism?

A

persistant erection

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18
Q

how is a priapism treated?

A

surgically by flushing corpus cavernous with heparinised saline under GA

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19
Q

why should extra care be taken when rectalling a stallions?

A

higher risk of tears

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20
Q

what are the advantages of AI?

A

can be transported (spread genetics)
can be stored (even after death)
get more matings per ejaculate
reduced venereal disease and post mating endometritis

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21
Q

what are the disadvantages of AI?

A

specialist skills needed to collect, process and inseminate
may have poorer conception rates
expensive
labour intensive
not accepted in thoroughbreds

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22
Q

how long dose fresh semen last?

A

use within a few hours (can be treated with extenders)

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23
Q

how long does chilled semen last?

A

48 hours

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24
Q

what is done to create chilled semen after collection?

A

mixed with extenders and then slowly cooled to 5 degrees

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25
Q

what is frozen semen mixed with before freezing?

A

extenders and cryoprotectants

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26
Q

how long can frozen semen last?

A

forever (if liquid nitrogen is topped up)

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27
Q

where is semen inserted into for AI?

A

just through the cervix

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28
Q

how is frozen semen inseminated?

A

warm to 37 degree in water bath then insert just through the cervix or into the uterine horn

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29
Q

when does fresh/chilled semen need to be inseminated? (relating to ovulation)

A

same as natural service (48 hours before ovulation)

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30
Q

when does frozen semen need to be inseminated? (relating to ovulation)

A

as close as possible to ovulations (6 hours either side)

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31
Q

what is a common pre-parturient problem in pregnant mares?

A

colic

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32
Q

what colics can pre-parturient mares get?

A

all the normal ones plus pregnancy specific ones including foal movement, foaling/aborting and ischaemia of caecum/colon

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33
Q

how severe is foal movement colic?

A

mild/moderate medical colic

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34
Q

how is foal movement colic treated?

A

should respond to mild/moderate analgesia such as phenylbutazone or buscopan

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35
Q

what causes ischaemia/necrosis of the caecum and colon colic in pre-parturient mares?

A

foals weight putting pressure on viscera and stretching the blood vessels (can lead to rupture of vessels)

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36
Q

what are some colics specific to the pre-parturient mare?

A

uterine torsion
foal movement
foaling/aborting
ischaemia/necrosis of caecum/colon

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37
Q

how severe is uterine torsion colic?

A

low grade chronic/intermittent colic (can be very severe)

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38
Q

when do uterine torsions usually occur?

A

last third of pregnancy

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39
Q

how can uterine torsion be diagnosed?

A

rectal (can palpate one tight broad ligament)

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40
Q

why can uterine torsion be diagnosed by vaginal exam in mares?

A

twists cranial to cervix

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41
Q

how can uterine torsion be treated in mares?

A

standing flank laparotomy or midline laparotomy with caesarian (if close enough)
(rolling not recommended)

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42
Q

what is the supposed cause of ventral oedema in pregnant mares?

A

foal compressing lymphatic drainage

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43
Q

what can cause an over-large mare in pre-parturient mares?

A

ventral oedema
pre-pubic tendon rupture
hydrops
obesity

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44
Q

what are the clinical signs of pre-pubic tendon rupture in the pregnant mare?

A

large painful oedema continuous with udder (dropped udder)
bloody discharge in milk
colic

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45
Q

how is pre-pubic tendon rupture in the pre-parturient mare?

A

analgesia - phenylbutazone
needs assistance for foaling (caesarian??) - can’t contract stomach
often results in euthanasia

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46
Q

what is hydrops?

A

excessive fluid in the allantoic/amniotic space that eventually results in colic, dyspnoea and circulatory collapse

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47
Q

how is hydrops treated?

A

induce foaling/abortion
dilate cervix and drain fluid
IV fluid to maintain blood pressure

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48
Q

what are the clinical signs of placentitis?

A

premature udder development and lactation with vaginal discharge

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49
Q

what is done to treat placentitis?

A

potentiated sulphonamides
bute

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50
Q

what is the most common cause of vaginal bleeding in horses?

A

varicose veins

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51
Q

what horses is varicose veins most common in?

A

pregnant older mares

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52
Q

what is done to treat varicose vein vaginal bleeding?

A

nothing - rarely cause an issue (just reassure owner)

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53
Q

if not progress has been made when foaling a dystocia what can be done?

A

reassess
(caesarian, GA and controlled vaginal delivery, GA, cut out foal and euthanise mare)

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54
Q

what can happen in complete uterine ruptures of pregnant mares?

A

foal can fall into abdomen (not palpable in birth canal) leading to fatal haemorrhage or peritonitis

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55
Q

how are perineal lacerations from foaling treated?

A

many heal on their own but some need surgical repair if they will lateral the perineal confirmation
antibiotics and NSAIDs

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56
Q

what is a third degree perineal laceration?

A

penetrating laceration through rectum and anus so the vagina and anus now communicate

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57
Q

how are third degree perineal lacerations treated?

A

not immediately (will breakdown) - delay for 4-6 weeks to allow granulation then can attempt surgery
give antibiotics and NSAIDs

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58
Q

what are some possible post-partum colics?

A

uterine cramps
GI colics
ischaemia/necrosis of caecum/colon
inversion of uterine horn

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59
Q

what causes uterine cramp colic?

A

contraction of the uterus post foaling (this is a mild/moderate colic)

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60
Q

how are uterine cramps treated?

A

buscopan and phenylbutazone

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61
Q

what causes inversion of the uterine horns (colic)?

A

forceful foaling or removal of the retained membranes

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62
Q

what is done to treat inversion of the uterine horn (colic)?

A

analgesia, buscopan, manual replacement and uterine lavage

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63
Q

what happens inverted uterine horns aren’t treated?

A

can progresses to a uterine prolapse

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64
Q

what GI colics are postpartum mares more predisposed to?

A

colonic torsion (more space in abdomen) - rapidly fatal

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65
Q

where does rupture of the uterine artery haemorrhage into?

A

broad ligament or abdomen

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66
Q

how serious is a colic caused by rupture of the uterine artery?

A

mild/moderate but can progress to signs of haemorrhage

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67
Q

how are ruptures of the uterine artery treated?

A

sedate (keep animal quiet)
analgesia and NSAIDs
blood transfusion
clotting agents

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68
Q

how are uterine prolapses treated?

A

clean uterus and replace under epidural
give oxytocin once replaced
broad spectrum antibiotics and NSAIDs

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69
Q

how long does it take for most mares to pass foetal membranes?

A

2 hours

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70
Q

how long after foaling do retained foetal membranes become a concern?

A

4-6 hours

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71
Q

what happens in retained foetal membranes are left too long?

A

decompose rapidly to produce and metritis that induces endotoxaemia possibly leading to laments and death

72
Q

how is retained foetal membranes treated?

A

oxytocin, antibiotics and flunixin (might be enough)
manual removal if they come easily
check entire membrane has been removed

73
Q

what should be done if fragments of the foetal membrane are still inside of the mare after removal?

A

try and locate them but if not lavage until water runs clear and then administer oxytocin and turn mare out to exercise

74
Q

how is metritis treated in mares?

A

antibiotics, NSAIDs, oxytocin, lavage (same as retained foetal membranes)

75
Q

what is endoscopy of the bladder called?

A

cystoscopy

76
Q

when performing cystoscopy what needs to be examined?

A

no blockages or masses
urine outflow from both ureters

77
Q

how often should urine flow from both ureters when performing cystoscopy?

A

every 20-45 seconds under xylazine sedation

78
Q

how common are surgical disorders of the kidney and ureters?

A

fairly rare

79
Q

what is the only way of treating surgical disorders of the kidneys and ureters?

A

nephrectomy

80
Q

what are some indications for nephrectomy?

A

ectopic ureter
renal neoplasia
pyelonephritis non-responsive to medical management

81
Q

what must be done before removing a horses kidney?

A

check renal function (needs to be good)

82
Q

when do ruptured bladders most commonly occur?

A

young foals (1-5 days old) - occurs during parturition but takes some time to show clinical signs

83
Q

what are the clinical signs of a ruptured bladder?

A

depression or off suck
progressive abdominal distention
mild/moderate colic
small volume increased frequency urination or no urination

84
Q

what are the signs on biochemistry/haematology that a horse has a ruptured bladder?

A

hyperkalaemia
hyponatraemia
(dehydration and metabolic acidosis)

85
Q

what sign on peritoneal fluid analysis indicates a ruptured bladder?

A

peritoneal creatinine more than double serum creatinine

86
Q

what are the two main diagnostic signs a horse has a ruptured bladder?

A

hyperkalaemia and peritoneal creatinine more than double serum creatinine

87
Q

why is stabilisation of a foal with a bladder rupture critical to do before anaesthetising them?

A

hyperkalaemia can cause fatal arrhythmias and anaesthesia will increase this risk

88
Q

what number must blood potassium be below before anaesthetising a horse with a bladder rupture?

A

<5.5 meg/L

89
Q

how can the potassium of a foal with bladder rupture be decreased?

A

IV saline with calcium borogluconate
slow drainage of urine from abdomen

90
Q

are uroliths more common in male or females?

A

males

91
Q

what is the main issue with uroliths in male horses?

A

causes blockage of the urethra

92
Q

what is the most common presenting signs of uroliths in mares?

A

blood in urine after exercise

93
Q

what are the two sequelae to uroliths?

A

cystitis
urinary tract obstruction

94
Q

what are the possible treatments of urolithiasis?

A

surgical removal - laparotomy/laparoscopy
electro hydraulic/laser lithotripsy

95
Q

what is sabulous cystitis?

A

secondary problem caused by incomplete bladder emptying (neurological…) causing a sediment build up

96
Q

where does the umbilical vein run to?

A

cranially to liver

97
Q

where do the umbilical arteries run to?

A

caudally to bladder

98
Q

where does the urachus run to?

A

bladder

99
Q

what can cause a patent urachus?

A

failure of closure or reopening due to sepsis

100
Q

what is the main issue with a patent urachus?

A

ascending infection (septicaemia, septic arthritis, pneumonia…)

101
Q

how is a patent urachus treated?

A

antibiotics
often self resolve
surgical (if required)

102
Q

what are the clinical signs of umbilical sepsis?

A

first 1-2 weeks if life
depressed and off suck
swollen/painful umbilicus

103
Q

how is umbilical sepsis treated?

A

assess IgG treatment and assess for systemic illness
antibiotics
surgical resect if no response to antibiotics

104
Q

what is the most important thing to determine when presented with an umbilical hernia?

A

can the mass be reduced

105
Q

when is surgical repair of an umbilical hernia indicated?

A

large defects (>5cm)
persists for >6 months
defect gets bigger
if associated with colic

106
Q

what is hysteroscopy?

A

putting a camera in the uterus to visualise it

107
Q

what is the part of the female reproductive tract visible on the outside?

A

vulva

108
Q

what are the anatomical barriers of the female reproductive tract?

A

vulva
vestibulovaginal fold
cervix

109
Q

what is the role of the anatomical barriers in the female reproductive tract?

A

prevent infection entering the uterus

110
Q

how should the confirmation of the vulva/anus be in female horses?

A

anus shouldn’t be more cranial to vestibular opening
upwards orientation of the vestibular opening

111
Q

what factors can effect the external reproductive confirmation of the female horse?

A

injury, age, parity, BCS…

112
Q

what are some issues that can arise due to poor reproductive confirmation of the external female reproductive tract?

A

pneumovagina
urovagina
cervical incompetency
delayed uterine clearance
oviduct blockage

113
Q

what is a cassocks procedure used for?

A

improved vulvar competence (reduced pneumovagina)

114
Q

how is the casslicks procedure carried out?

A

excise thin band of mucosa each side of vulva (include dorsal commissure and be level with the ischiadic tuber)
suture the two bands together (but don’t oversuture)
remove before foaling

115
Q

what are perineal body reconstructions used for?

A

to treat severe cases of pneumovagina and second degree perineal lacerations

116
Q

what mares is urovagina usually seen in?

A

old mares that have had multiple offspring and a pneumovagina

117
Q

how is urovagina diagnosed?

A

using cytology

118
Q

what can be done to treat urovagina?

A

improve BCS if thin
urethral extension

119
Q

when is the best time to treat cervical lacerations?

A

in dioestrus at least 3 weeks post partum

120
Q

what can delayed uterine clearance cause?

A

endometritis
post mating persistent endometritis

121
Q

what is the treatment for delayed uterine clearance?

A

uterine suspension (uteropexy)

122
Q

what does uterine suspension (uteropexy) aim to do?

A

restore the horizontal orientation of the uterine horns meaning improves uterine clearance and perineal conformation

123
Q

what may make us suspicious of an oviduct blockage?

A

if ovulation occurs but there is no embryo/oocyte in the uterus

124
Q

what is the treatment for an oviduct blockage?

A

laparoscopic injection of prostaglandin to relax the smooth muscle of the oviduct

125
Q

what is a first degree perineal laceration?

A

just mucosal damage (not a big deal)

126
Q

what is the treatment for a first degree perineal laceration?

A

no surgery or caslick

127
Q

what is a second degree perineal laceration?

A

mucosa, submucosa and perineal muscle damage

128
Q

what is done to treat second degree perineal lacerations?

A

cassocks procedure and reconstructive perineal surgery

129
Q

what are third degree perineal lacerations?

A

complete disruption of rectovestibular shelf, perineal body and anus

130
Q

what is done to treat third degree perineal lacerations?

A

delay repair for 4-6 weeks then surgery

131
Q

why does the surgical treatment of third degree perineal lacerations need to be delayed 4-6 weeks?

A

allow swelling to go down and get mare on laxative diet (solid faeces will tear things further)

132
Q

what causes a rectovestibular fistula?

A

penetration of foals foot into the rectum without progression to 3rd degree perineal laceration or unsuccessful 3rd degree laceration repair

133
Q

what mares are most predisposed to vulva and clitoris squamous cell carcinomas?

A

ones with non-pigmented skin

134
Q

what is the outcome for squamous cell carcinomas in mares?

A

poor - even with large resection

135
Q

what can be done to treat uterine bleeding?

A

ligation, cautery, laser photocoagulation (doesn’t always need treatment)

136
Q

what is the most common issue seen with the ovaries of mares?

A

granulosa cell tumour

137
Q

what are the behavioural signs of a mare with a granulosa cell tumour?

A

anaestus or continuous oestrus
stallion like behaviour
aggression

138
Q

how are granulosa cell tumours treated? and what is the prognosis?

A

removal
good prognosis as they rarely metastasise

139
Q

how are granulosa cell tumours diagnosed?

A

rectal exam - large ovary (usually unilateral)
transrectal ultrasound (honeycomb appearance)
endocrinology

140
Q

what is the best endocrine test for a granulosa cell tumour?

A

anti-mullerian hormone (increase)

141
Q

how is controlled vaginal delivery of a foal carried out?

A

anaesthetise mare and elevate by the hindlimbs

142
Q

how are pyometras treated?

A

drain content then ovariohysterectomy

143
Q

what is the function of the cremaster muscle?

A

pull testes into abdomen

144
Q

when do testes pass into the inguinal canal?

A

270-300 days gestation

145
Q

when should the testicles be present in the scrotum?

A

birth

146
Q

what is the role of the gubernaculum?

A

get testes from kidney to the scrotum

147
Q

what does the cranial gubernaculum become?

A

proper ligament of the testis

148
Q

what does the middle gubernaculum become?

A

ligament of the tail of the epididymis

149
Q

what does the caudal gubernaculum become?

A

scrotal ligament

150
Q

what is a key piece of information to find out before castrating a horse?

A

if they have had a scrotal/inguinal hernia previously (consider doing operation in hospital setting)

151
Q

if both testicles can’t be palpated before castrating a horse what should be done?

A

sedate to see if relaxing them gets the other to drop
if not then don’t castrate

152
Q

what is the best sedative for standing castration?

A

alpha 2 agonists (detomidine) and opioid (butorphanol)

153
Q

what should be done if performing field anaesthesia, to ensure you can rapidly top up the horse if needed?

A

place an IV catheter

154
Q

when castrating a horse in lateral recumbency, which testicle should be done first?

A

lower - don’t want blood to obscure field of view

155
Q

what does whether a castrate is open or closed depend on?

A

whether the vaginal tunic is incised or not

156
Q

why are donkeys problematic to castrate?

A

they have a large inguinal ring (more likely for gut to come through)
tend to bleed more than horses

157
Q

if the horse has had previous scrotal/inguinal hernias what needs to be done when castrating them?

A

ligate the vaginal tunic and suture the superficial inguinal ring closed

158
Q

how should the horse be managed after castration?

A

box rest for 24 hours
check tetanus status
NSAIDs
antibiotics
keep away from mares (for a month or so)

159
Q

what advice is given to the owner after castrating a horse about when to contact the vet?

A

dripping persists for longer than 4 hours or there is a steady stream
evidence of tissue hanging down
marked swelling/stiffness for more than 3 days
depression or colic

160
Q

what are some castration complications?

A

swelling
haemorrhage
evisceration
omental prolapse

161
Q

what is cryptorchidism?

A

when one/both testis are retained along the normal path of descent

162
Q

how can cryptorchidism be diagnosed?

A

hormone analysis - anti-mullerian hormone
ultrasound

163
Q

when doing surgery on a rig horse, which testicle should be removed first?

A

the cryptorchid testicle

164
Q

what is a direct hernia?

A

when there is a trauma to body wall leading to a hernia

165
Q

what is an indirect hernia?

A

when there is a hernia through a naturally occurring hole

166
Q

when is surgery indicated for inguinal herniation of foals?

A

if there is an increasing size
if they are strangulating (non-reducible)
if they have ruptured

167
Q

what is the most common penile/preputial neoplasia?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

168
Q

what are some chemical treatments for squamous cell carcinomas?

A

cryotherapy
typical chemotherapy agents

169
Q

how can squamous cell carcinomas of the penis be treated with surgery?

A

local excision
reefing (take out a ring of tissue the suture closed)
partial/en bloc phallectomy

170
Q

what is the prognosis for penile squamous cell carcinomas?

A

good (if caught early)

171
Q

what is priapism?

A

persistent erection without sexual excitment

172
Q

how is a priapism treated?

A

IV clenbuterol
intra corpus cavernous phenylephrine
lavage corpus cavernosum

173
Q

what drug can cause priapism?

A

acepromazine

174
Q

what is paraphimosis?

A

inability to retract penis into prepuce

175
Q

what is phimosis?

A

inability to protrude penis from sheath

176
Q

what is the issue with phimosis?

A

horse urinates into the sheath making it even more swollen

Equine (fourth year) (11 decks)

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