Repro USMLE step 1 9-6 (12) Flashcards

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1
Q

This patient underwent a radiographic examination that demonstrated a leak from the dorsal vein to the saphenous vein. Cavernosography is the radiographic technique used to identify the location of?

A

venous leakage in the penis.

In cavernosography, vasodilators and contrast medium are injected into the penile tissue, causing an erection. Images are taken to evaluate for leakage. In a normal patient, there is little or no contrast seen outside the veins. In patients with erectile dysfunction, leakage may be visualized at one or multiple sites

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2
Q

A leak into the dorsal (shown in the image) and saphenous (not shown in the image) veins, which demonstrates a venous outflow abnormality, is typically due to?

A

nsufficient relaxation of the smooth muscle, resulting from excessive adrenergic tone or damaged parasympathetic innervation. In a normal erection, blood flow accelerates, increasing the pressure within the intracavernous spaces and blocking penile venous outflow. Contraction of the bulbocavernosus and ischiocavernosus muscles also helps with this process. Abnormalities in venous outflow, such as the leak from the dorsal vein to the external pudendal veins, a tributary of the great saphenous vein, in this patient can result in failure to acquire or maintain a firm erection.

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3
Q

Penile cancer, urinary incontinence, and urinary retention are not associated with abnormal penile blood flow. Priapism is associated with an inability to return to flaccid state rather than an inability to acquire or maintain an erection and would not be caused by?

A

a leak from the dorsal vein to the saphenous vein.

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4
Q

A penile venous outflow abnormality (such as a leak from the dorsal to the saphenous vein) can result in ?

A

erectile dysfunction, with a failure to acquire or maintain a firm erection. Cavernosography can be used to detect leaks in the veins in a patient with erectile dysfunction.

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5
Q

This patient presents with a bulge in his groin and undergoes an inguinal hernia repair. During the procedure, the surgeon cuts through a structure that lies on the superior surface of the spermatic cord. The spermatic cord itself is a thick cord containing structures that run to and from the testes. It is covered by three layers: external spermatic fascia derived from the external oblique muscle, cremasteric muscle and fascia derived from?

A

the internal oblique muscle, and internal spermatic fascia derived from the transversalis fascia. The surgeon has likely cut through the ilioinguinal nerve, which passes through the inguinal ligament on top of the spermatic cord.

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6
Q

The ilioinguinal nerve arises from L1 and supplies cutaneous sensation to the scrotum (labia in females) and medial aspect of the thigh. Thus, this patient would be expected to have loss of sensation or numbness of ?

A

The scrotum and medial thigh. The ilioinguinal nerve is not a part of the spermatic cord and must be isolated separately from the cord during hernia surgeries.

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7
Q

The damage sustained during this patient’s surgery would not cause any of the following symptoms or conditions:
Dissection of the ductus deferens could lead to infertility.
Dissection of the genitofemoral nerve within the spermatic cord would result in ?

A

loss of the cremasteric reflex.

Damage to the pampiniform plexus (found within the spermatic cord), would cause testicular edema
Damage to the testicular artery would cause testicular ischemia.
Twisting of the spermatic cord would result in testicular pain.

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8
Q

The ilioinguinal nerve arises from L1, passes through the inguinal ligament, and lies on top of the spermatic cord. It supplies cutaneous sensation to?

A

the scrotum/labia and medial aspect of the thigh.

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9
Q

A young couple is trying to conceive their first child. A friend tells the woman that she should take her temperature daily to determine when she ovulates. The woman asks her physician if this is true, and her physician explains that changes in the concentration of a particular hormone during ovulation lead to temperature changes.

The action of which of the following hormones is responsible for this change in body temperature?

A

It is possible to assess when ovulation has occurred by checking one’s basal body temperature on a daily basis. Progesterone is produced by the corpus luteum shortly after ovulation. One of its locations of action is the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center, leading to a slightly elevated basal body temperature (up to 1°F).

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10
Q

Normally estrogens lower core body temperature. In hypoestrogenic states such as menopause, core body temperature increases, but this effect would not be seen in a young woman. Follicular stimulating hormone promotes the growth of developing follicles but does not affect body temperature. Luteinizing hormone promotes ?

A

ovulation and progesterone secretion but does not affect thermoregulation. Human chorionic gonadotropin likewise does not affect body temperature, and is measurable once the woman is pregnant.

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11
Q

A woman’s basal body temperature changes throughout the menstrual cycle and is notably higher during the luteal phase. This is due to the action of ?

A

progesterone on the hypothalamic thermoregulatory center.

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12
Q

A Giemsa stain showing intracytoplasmic inclusions in the context of a urethral discharge, potentially due to a sexually transmitted infection, is indicative of Chlamydia trachomatis. Cytoplasmic inclusions can be seen on Giemsa- or fluorescent antibody–stained urethral or cervical smear, but diagnosis of Chlamydia can also be made from a urine sample using nucleic acid amplification techniques. Although it is frequently asymptomatic, C. trachomatis infection can cause urethritis, cervicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women, as well as conjunctivitis and reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome). Treatment of Chlamydia infection requires a course of either doxycycline or azithromycin. Chlamydia is infectious when it reaches the developmental stage described as an ?

A

extracellular elementary body, as this form can attach and enter host cells.

The cytoplasmic inclusions (arrows in image above) are non-infectious as are the intracellular elementary bodies. Similarly, independent reticulate bodies and reticulate bodies that are in the process of multiplying are both intracellular, and therefore are not infectious. The stages of Chlamydia development and relationship to infectivity are explained by the figure and table below.

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13
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis, which can cause urethritis, cervicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease in women, is infectious when it is as an elementary body that can enter host cells from the extracellular domain. While all of the intracellular forms of C. trachomatis are necessary for the reproduction of ?

A

the organism, only the extracellular form is considered infectious.

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14
Q

This male infant is found to have a urethral opening on the ventral shaft of his penis. This is consistent with hypospadias, which results from improper fusion of the urogenital folds during fetal development. The urogenital folds form the ventral shaft of the penis and penile urethra in the male. Hypospadias is characterized by?

A

a urethral opening located abnormally on the ventral shaft of the penis, anywhere from the glans to the perineum. Hypospadias is one of the most common fetal anomalies and is believed (though not confirmed) to result from disruption of in utero androgenic stimulation.

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15
Q

The genital tubercle develops into the glans penis and corpus spongiosum in the male. The mesonephric duct gives rise to the seminal vesicles, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, and vas deferens in males. The paramesonephric duct leads to?

A

the development of the Müllerian system, whose derivatives are not typically present in male infants. The urogenital sinus produces the bladder, prostate, and prostatic urethra. This infant has a problem with the development of the shaft of the penis, which is not derived from any of these.

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16
Q

The urogenital folds form the penile urethra and ventral shaft of the penis in the male, and the labia minora in females. Failure of fusion of the urogenital folds during fetal development can result in?

A

hypospadias.

17
Q

Antepartum hemorrhage refers to significant vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks’ gestation that is unrelated to labor and delivery. The two major causes of third-trimester bleeding are placenta previa and abruptio placentae; uterine rupture and vasa previa are rarer causes. Placenta previa occurs ?

A

when the placenta overlies the internal cervical os and can be further described as complete placenta previa, partial placenta previa, marginal placenta previa, or low-lying placenta, depending on the exact relationship to the os. Placenta previa generally presents with painless bleeding, making this the most likely diagnosis. Because this is the first episode of bleeding, this patient can be treated conservatively, with the goal of delaying delivery and maximizing fetal maturity. She will likely be observed during prescribed bed rest unless another bleeding episode occurs, at which time delivery may be necessary.

18
Q

Abruptio placentae refers to the premature separation of the placenta from the uterus, despite its implantation in a normal location. It is also associated with ?

A

painful antepartum bleeding. The distinction between abruptio placentae and placenta previa is classically made based on the presence (abruptio placentae) or absence (placenta previa) of pain. The fetus may also show signs of distress when abruptio placentae has occurred; no signs of fetal distress have been detected in this patient.

19
Q

Uterine rupture and vasa previa are rarer causes of vaginal bleeding in pregnancy. A patient with uterine rupture will normally present during delivery and have a history of cesarean delivery. On physical examination, fetal parts will commonly be palpated. In a patient with vasa previa, vessels transverse the membrane over the the internal opening of the uterus. Vasa previa can lead to?

A

exsanguination and fetal death. In this patient, the fetus has a normal heart rate.

In a patient with placenta accreta, the placental villi attach directly to the myometrium due to a defect in the decidua basalis layer, which leads to incomplete separation of the placenta after delivery. It can cause severe postpartum hemorrhage, rather than antepartum hemorrhage as seen in this patient.

20
Q

Placenta previa occurs when the placenta overlies the internal cervical os. It can be described as complete placenta previa, partial placenta previa, marginal placenta previa, or low-lying placenta, depending on the exact relationship to the os. Placenta previa typically presents with?

A

painless bleeding in the third trimester, which distinguishes it from abruptio placentae, which presents with painful third-trimester bleeding.

21
Q

This patient’s presentation with a growing painless mass, combined with biopsy findings of tubules and solid sheets of malignant epithelium infiltrating into a desmoplastic stroma (shown above), reveals that he has invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast. Although breast cancer is much less common in men than in women, males with?

A

Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY genotype) are at 19-fold increased risk for developing breast cancer than the general population. The reason for increased risk is the excessive estrogen stimulation in these patients.

22
Q

Other key features of Klinefelter syndrome include gynecomastia, atrophic testes, cryptorchidism in childhood, elevated luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone, and low serum testosterone. Furthermore, patients with?

A

Klinefelter syndrome are at increased risk of developing mediastinal germ-cell tumors.

23
Q

None of the other answer choices are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. 21-hydroxylase deficiency causes congenital adrenal hyperplasia. CGG trinucleotide repeat causes fragile X syndrome and is associated with?

A

specific physical manifestations and intellectual disability. Trisomy 21 patients have an increased risk of hematologic malignancies. Men with XYY are often phenotypically normal, although specific physical and intellectual characteristics may be associated with this abnormality. The XYY genotype is not associated with an increased risk of invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast.

24
Q

Breast cancer is rarely found in men. However, in males with increased levels of estrogen, such as in those with ?

A

Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY genotype), the risk of developing breast cancer is much higher.

25
Q

The neonate in the vignette had gross hepatosplenomegaly, ascites, and peripheral edema, along with purpura. These characteristics, in addition to a pale, thick, and enlarged placenta, support the diagnosis of hydrops fetalis. This is a potential consequence of severe hemolytic disease of the newborn. Hydrops fetalis occurs when the mother of the child is Rh negative, but is sensitized by a previously carried Rh-positive child. If her next child is Rh positive, and she is not treated with immunoglobulin against the Rh antigen, her second pregnancy is at risk for hydrops fetalis due to?

A

Rh incompatibility. The first pregnancy is usually uncomplicated.

26
Q

In hydrops fetalis, maternal IgG against Rh crosses the placental barrier and attacks fetal RBCs with the Rh marker, leading to the symptoms seen in this child. The consequential fetal anemia and edema from hemolytic disease of the newborn results in a pale, thickened, and enlarged placenta. These infants undergo extramedullary hematopoiesis in an attempt to keep up with the loss of blood cells. Hydrops fetalis has a ?

A

poor prognosis, with death usually occurring shortly after or before delivery. Neonates who are ill at birth or delivered prematurely have an even higher risk of death.

27
Q

Failure of neural tube to close can cause anencephaly, but the symptoms presented by the neonate in this case lead more toward hydrops fetalis. Maternal convulsions with hypertension are associated with eclampsia. Eclampsia can cause fetal death. However, the mother appears to be healthy with a normal blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg and does not have any significant medical concerns. Increased amniotic fluid is characteristic of polyhydramnios, which is not an implication in hydrops fetalis. Premature contractions can cause?

A

premature delivery, but the vast number of symptoms presented does not lead to premature contractions. Umbilical cord strangulation can result in fetal death, but again, the symptoms of the neonate point more to a hydrops fetalis diagnosis.

28
Q

When an Rh-negative mother who was previously sensitized to Rh antigen carries another Rh-positive child, hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs as a result of destruction of fetal RBCs by the mother’s antibodies. This causes the presentation of?

A

hydrops fetalis.