Repro USMLE step 1 9-3 (6) Flashcards

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1
Q

This infant presents with a scrotal mass that is painless on palpation Illumination of the scrotum when a light is shined at its base is a positive transillumination test. This suggests that the patient has a cystic mass; a testicular hydrocele is one of the most common causes of painless scrotal enlargement in newborns. It is composed of a collection of serous fluid between the parietal and visceral layers of ?

A

the tunica vaginalis. Most cases are idiopathic. Testicular hydrocele in infants usually resolves on its own.

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2
Q

A defect in the pampiniform plexus would be described as having a “bag of worms” texture and would be characteristic of a varicocele. Problems with the inguinal lymphatics would usually result in?

A

elephantiasis and causes severe swelling. Direct problems with the body of the testis or epididymis that causes fluid accumulation would generally produce pain, and would be due to inflammation.

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3
Q

Testicular hydrocele is a fluid collection in the space between the parietal and visceral layers of the tunica vaginalis. A diagnosis can be made with?

A

a transillumination test. If the scrotum “lights up” when a light is shined at its base, the test is positive.

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4
Q

This patient presents with classic symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH), which include difficulty starting and maintaining a urine stream, feeling as though the bladder is never emptied, having the urge to urinate again soon after voiding, and pain on urination (dysuria). Finasteride can be used to treat this condition. Finasteride acts by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone (a steroid molecule) to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) by?

A

inhibiting the enzyme 5α-reductase. Normally DHT binds to the nuclear androgen receptors and stimulates mitogenic growth factors that cause stromal and epithelial hyperplasia along and promote development of secondary sexual characteristics (in men and women). DHT, not testosterone, is the culprit behind prostatic hyperplasia because of its slow dissociation from the prostatic nuclear androgen receptor. Inhibiting 5α-reductase, and thus DHT formation, leads to a reduction in the size of the prostate, providing relief of symptoms.

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5
Q

Muscarinic antagonists, such as oxybutynin are used to treat overflow incontinence. Flutamide, which acts by inhibiting the negative feedback of testosterone on gonadotropin secretion, is used primarily in conjunction with?

A

a gonadotropin-releasing hormone analog, such as leuprolide, in the treatment of metastatic prostate cancer. Ketoconazole is an antifungal agent that inhibits cytochrome P-450 enzymes and can be used to treat polycystic ovary syndrome.

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6
Q

First-line treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is with α1-antagonists, which cause smooth muscle relaxation and offer symptomatic relief. Finasteride is another common treatment for?

A

BPH that inhibits 5α-reductase to decrease the synthesis of dihydrotestosterone (DHT). DHT is the stimulus for the prostate stromal hyperplasia seen in BPH.

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7
Q

The patient has a history of rheumatoid arthritis, and her use of NSAIDs has caused gastric ulcers. The medication prescribed for her gastric ulcers is most likely the cause of her symptoms, since her symptoms occurred after she started taking it. The findings of firmness and tenderness in her lower abdomen, vaginal bleeding, and amenorrhea suggest that the patient is pregnant. Misoprostol is?

A

a prostaglandin E1 analog prescribed to treat NSAID-induced gastric ulcers. In the gastrointestinal tract, misoprostol increases the secretion of mucus to protect the mucosal lining. Misoprostol is also used as an abortifacient because it induces uterine contractions and cervical ripening in pregnant women. Just remember, you don’t want to “Mis that the Ms. is pregnant!”

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8
Q

All patients with NSAID-induced ulcers should receive 8 weeks of proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. Older PPIs, such as omeprazole, are pregnancy class C (risk cannot be ruled out) and are often used to treat NSAID-induced ulcers in pregnant women. For this patient, the physician wanted to avoid the interaction between phenytoin and PPIs. (PPIs are associated with ?

A

inhibition of cytochrome P and have been shown to decrease biological clearance of phenytoin). However, a pregnancy test in this patient would have been warranted before prescription of misoprostol. This would have informed further management of this patient’s medications.

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9
Q

Cimetidine can cause galactorrhea in women and gynecomastia in men. However, it is not an abortifacient. Mifepristone is an abortifacient, but it is not prescribed for?

A

NSAID-induced gastric ulcers. Although omeprazole can cause abdominal pain, it is not an abortifacient. Sucralfate can cause constipation, which may lead to abdominal pain and tenderness. However, it does not cause vaginal bleeding.

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10
Q

Misoprostol is?

A

a prostaglandin E1 analog that increases secretion of mucus and decreases acid production in the gastrointestinal tract. It also induces uterine contractions and cervical ripening in pregnant women.

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11
Q

This patient presents with endometrial cancer that is staged and treated with total abdominal hysterectomy. While the cancer seems localized to the myometrium, the surgical team sends the tumor specimen as well as tissue inferior to the broad ligament for pathologic study. The histology described in the connective tissue is transitional epithelium, which is found in the urinary tract and ureters.

In women, the ureter courses just inferior to the uterine arteries at about 2 cm above the ischial spine. This puts the ureter at high risk for inadvertent injury when the uterine arteries are ligated during surgery, potentially leading to acute postoperative renal failure. The cardinal ligament is located inferior to the broad ligament and contains the blood vessels. Blind dissection of the inferior aspect of the cardinal ligament, which contains the uterine arteries, can result in damage to?

A

the ureter. This can be remembered with the mnemonic “water under the bridge” (water is the ureter, which runs under the uterine vessels, or the bridge). In this case, the inferior portion of the ureter was excised with the connective tissue, which explains the histopathologic findings, since the ureter and bladder are lined with transitional epithelium.

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12
Q

Concomitant adenocarcinoma of the sigmoid colon would appear as glandular structures, simple and tubular in appearance and lined with columnar epithelium. Metastatic endometrial carcinoma would have penetrated the myometrium and spread to the surrounding adventitia. Ovarian teratomas contain mature, normal tissue originating from?

A

all three types of embryonic tissue (ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm). Ureteral transitional cells arise only from mesoderm. Transitional cell carcinoma of the urethra is unlikely because the urethra is not near the broad ligament.

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13
Q

The ureter in women is at risk of?

A

accidental injury during hysterectomy or Caesarean section, potentially leading to acute postoperative renal failure.

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14
Q

This patient’s clinical presentation of a purulent vaginal discharge, fever, diffuse severe abdominal tenderness and extreme discomfort on bimanual examination of the cervix (cervical motion tenderness) and right adnexa is most consistent with a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is caused most commonly by Chlamydia trachomatis and/or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. PID, defined as a polymicrobial infection of the female reproductive organs, is a serious condition meriting prompt treatment. If left untreated, it can result in a number of chronic complications, such as chronic pelvic pain and infertility. PID may include salpingitis, endometritis, hydrosalpinx, and tubo-ovarian abscess formation. Classic physical exam findings are cervical motion tenderness (ie, the “chandelier sign” which is an informal term describing the raising of the arms towards the ceiling in response to intense pain) and purulent cervical discharge.

Acceptable first-line antibiotic regimens for the treatment of uncomplicated PID include:? .

A

ceftriaxone plus doxycycline; cefoxitin plus probenecid and doxycycline; or cefotaxime plus doxycycline.

These regimens are designed to provide coverage for a wide variety of pathogens, including C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae. The combination of ceftriaxone plus doxycycline, for example, is often effective in treating PID because ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin, has good N. gonorrhoeae coverage, while doxycycline, a tetracycline antibiotic, has good C. trachomatis coverage. Note that it is particularly important for any PID antibiotic regimen to have both C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae coverage since both organisms are often implicated in the pathogenesis of PID.

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15
Q

The combination of ceftriaxone and doxycycline alone would thus be an acceptable answer if this patient’s PID were uncomplicated. However, the right adnexal tenderness found on physical examination is strongly suggestive of a tubo-ovarian abscess, in which case the addition of either metronidazole or clindamycin is indicated. Either of these agents is indicated because anaerobic bacteria are often found in bacterial abscesses, and both agents have good anaerobe coverage.

The correct answer is therefore?

A

ceftriaxone, doxycycline, and metronidazole. Antimicrobial regimens consisting of either ciprofloxacin alone, clarithromycin alone, vancomycin and metronidazole, piperacillin and tazobactam, or trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole provide inadequate coverage of C. trachomatis, N. gonorrhoeae and anaerobes, and so are not adequate treatment of complicated PID.

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16
Q

PID is an infection of the female reproductive organs caused most commonly by C. trachomatis and/or N. gonorrhoeae. Treatment with both ceftriaxone and doxycycline is often initiated in patients with PID because both organisms are often?

A

implicated in the pathogenesis of PID. Metronidazole is added to this treatment regimen for anaerobic coverage if a tubo-ovarian abscess is suspected.

17
Q

The muscles that elevate the palate and the pharynx are derived from?

A

branchial arch 1 (tensor veli palatini), branchial arch 3 (the stylopharyngeus), and branchial arch 4 (levator veli palatini). These are innervated by cranial nerves V3, IX, and X, respectively.

18
Q

Branchial pouch 3 gives rise to the thymus (ventral wings) and inferior parathyroid glands (dorsal glands), and the fourth branchial pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroids. These are not involved in palatal elevation. Remember that pouches give rise to endoderm-derived tissue, and arches give rise to ?

A

mesoderm-derived tissue such as muscle. Use the mnemonic “CAP” to remember that Clefts, Arches, and Pouches give rise to ecto-, meso-, and endoderm, respectively.

19
Q

The first branchial arch generates “M” muscles: muscles of Mastication (teMporalis, Masseter, Medial and lateral pterygoids) and the Mylohyoid, as well as the tensor veli palatini and tensor tympani. The second arch gives rise to “S” muscles: Stapedius, Stylohyoid, and facial expression muscles.

Although branchial arch 4 does give rise to the levator veli palatini, branchial arch 2 gives rise to?

A

the stylohyoid, stapedius, and the muscles of the face, while branchial arch 6 gives rise to the intrinsic muscles of the larynx (except the cricothyroid, which is a fourth arch derivative). The muscles derived from branchial arches 2 and 6 are not involved in elevating the palate.

The first branchial cleft gives rise to the external auditory meatus, and the second, third, and fourth clefts are obliterated during development. The clefts are formed from ectoderm and could not give rise to muscles, which are derived from mesoderm.

20
Q

The stylopharyngeus and the levator veli palatini, the muscles that elevate the palate, are derived from?

A

branchial arches 3 and 4, respectively.

21
Q

The patient is a 7-year-old girl who has recently undergone a 4-cm (1.6 inch) growth spurt and has reached Tanner stage 3—sexual development. In females, Tanner stage 3 usually occurs at around 10–14 years of age.

During Tanner stage 3 the breasts will begin?

A

to widen, but there is no sign of contour separation. In addition, the areola will further enlarge and become darker. Pubic hair will become darker, thicker, and cover the mons pubis.
Also important to Tanner stage 3 is the growth spurt. Most girls will experience their most rapid growth spurt during Tanner stage 3, which can coincide with idiopathic adolescent scoliosis (the condition hinted at in the patient’s presentation). Axillary hair may also begin to develop during this stage.

22
Q

In Tanner stage 1, the prepubertal stage, there is glandular tissue in the breasts, the areolae follow the skin contours of the chest, and there are no secondary sexual characteristics, such as pubic hair.
Tanner stage 2 is generally the onset of puberty and typically occurs in?

A

girls 8–12 years of age. The breast buds will develop and subareolar tissue will begin to elevate. Pubic hair is fine and down-like and restricted to the labia majora. Pubertal onset may be earlier in children of African descent.
Tanner stage 3 can be differentiated from earlier stages by the coarsening of pubic hair. Stage 4 can be differentiated from stage 3 by raised areola (“mound on mound”), and stage 5 by spread of pubic hair to the medial thigh.

23
Q

Growth spurt in girls usually corresponds to? .

A

Tanner stage 3. During this stage, the breast contour elevates, the areola enlarges, axillary hair develops. Dark, coarse, curly hair over the mons pubis will be present

24
Q

A man who has been sexually active with male partners reports to the clinic with a report of itchy perianal lesions. His condom use is not 100% consistent, and at this visit, he tests positive for HIV. The lesions described and shown in the image provided are most likely condylomata acuminata—multiple white, hyperkeratotic, pedunculated verrucae clustered in the perianal region. This patient presents with pruritus and a lack of other systemic symptoms, making some kind of systemic disease (eg, syphilis) less likely as a cause. It is therefore more likely that these genital warts are caused by?

A

the human papillomavirus (HPV), which is usually transmitted by sexual contact.

HPV types 6 and 11 are common subtypes associated with warts in the anogenital area. This patient has multiple risk factors for HPV, including unprotected sexual contact and immunocompromised status. The other major risk factor is smoking, which increases the risk of cancer. It is important to note that the extent of condylomata observed in this patient suggests that he is immunocompromised, which is also indicated by his positive HIV test result. He should begin treatment for HIV at this time.

25
Q

The other pathogens would not cause this type of lesion. Depending on the type, Chlamydia trachomatis can present with urethritis, conjunctivitis, or lymphadenitis. Haemophilus ducreyi presents with a painful chancroid. Treponema pallidum infection presents with either a chancre (primary syphilis) or a rash involving the palms and soles (secondary syphilis). HPV 16 is often associated with?

A

malignancy and presents with flat genital warts rather than the pedunculated verrucae seen in this patient. Herpes simplex type 2 initially presents with vesicles, not verrucae; and herpes simplex type 1 usually presents with other systemic symptoms including gingivostomatitis or keratoconjunctivitis.

26
Q

HPV types 6 and 11 are the most common causes of ?

A

condylomata acuminata. These two types rarely transform into malignancy. Risk factors include unprotected sexual contact, immunocompromised status, and a history of smoking. HPV types 16 and 18 are more commonly associated with cervical dysplasia.

27
Q

This sexually active woman presents with increasing, thick vaginal discharge and pain on intercourse. A Gram stain reveals gram-negative cocci in pairs, supporting a diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae. For bacterial infections, polymorphonuclear cells (see image below) are the most common cell type in an acute response to bacterial infection. They have a characteristic segmented nucleus with?

A

three to five connected lobes with large, spherical, azurophilic granules and hydrolytic enzymes.

28
Q

Bilobed nuclei with bright pink granules on hematoxylin and eosin stain are characteristic of eosinophils, which respond to parasitic infections and allergic reactions/asthma. Cells with a bilobed nucleus and numerous blue to purple granules on hematoxylin and eosin stain are?

A

basophils, which are elevated in the blood in the setting of some parasitic infections. Plasma cells have one large, slightly off-center “clockface” nucleus with perinuclear clearing called a Hoff; they are part of the secondary, not the immediate, immune response. Lymphocytes also have one nucleus (and little surrounding cytoplasm), which takes up most of the cell on microscopic view. Lymphocytes are most common in the setting of chronic inflammation.

29
Q

Nesseiria gonorrheae is a gram-negative “coffee-bean”–shaped coccus that clusters in pairs and infects the genital tract. Neutrophils, cellular mediators of acute inflammation that have?

A

multilobular, azurophilic nuclei, constitute the initial response of the immune system against gonococcal infection, leading to purulent secretions.