Repro-Endo Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What hormones are secreted from the posterior pituitary?

A

ADH and oxytocin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary?

A

Prolactin, growth hormone, FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What hormones are secreted from the hypothalamus?

A

The hypothalamus secretes peptide hormones TRH, GnRH, somatostatin, GHRH, dopamine, and CRH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is somatropin?

A

Synthetic GH analogue

Treats GH deficiency, growth failure, Turner syndrome, hypopituitary dwarfism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is octreotide?

A

Synthetic analogue of somatostatin
Inhibits GH, TSH, insulin, glucagon, and gastrin
Treats acromegaly, carcinoid and bleeding esophageal varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is lanreotide?

A

Synthetic analogue of somatostatin
Inhibits GH, TSH, insulin, glucagon, and gastrin
Treats acromegaly, carcinoid, and bleeding esophageal varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is pegvisomat?

A

GH receptor antagonist

Treats refractive acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is leuprolide?

A

Synthetic GnRH agonist that can be used to downregulate GnRH receptors to decrease secretion of FSH and LH
Treats prostate cancer, precocious puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is bromocriptine?

A

D2 (dopamine) receptor agonist that inhibits release of prolactin
Treats hyperprolactinemia, pituitary microadenomas, acromegaly (somatotrophs may revert to progenitor-like cell with D2 receptor) and T2DM
May cause nausea, orthostatic hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is cabergoline?

A

D2 (dopamine) receptor agonist that inhibits release of prolactin
Treats hyperprolactinemia, pituitary microadenomas, and T2DM
May cause nausea, orthostatic hypotension, valvular heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is oxytocin?

A

Stimulates contraction of myoepithelium of uterine smooth muscle and mammary alveoli
Used to induce labor and eject milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is vasopressin?

A

Binds to V2 receptors in collecting tubules, increases traslocation of AQP2, and increases water resorption
Binds to V1 receptors in vascular smooth muscle causing constriction
Treats central diabetes insipidus, cardiac arrest, bleeding of esophageal varices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is desmopressin?

A

Binds to V2 receptors in collecting tubules, increases traslocation of AQP2, and increases water resorption
Minimal V1 receptor activity
Treats central diabetes insipidus, nocturnal enuresis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is levothyroxine?

A

Synthetic T4

Used to treat hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is propylthiouracil (PTU)?

A

Thioamide that inhibits oxidation, organifiation, and condensation/coupling of iodotyrosines (inhibits thyroid peroxidase) and blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3
Treats hyperthyroidism
Best choice for first trimester of pregnancy
Rare side effect of agraulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is methimazole?

A

Thioamide that inhibits oxidation and condensation/coupling of iodotyrosines (inhibits thyroid peroxidase)
Treats hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is insulin lispro?

A

Rapid-acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is insulin aspart?

A

Rapid-acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is insulin glulisine?

A

Rapid-acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is NPH insulin/insulin isophane?

A

Intermediate-acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is insulin glargine?

A

Long-acting insulin

Precipitates at injection site due to low pH –> extended release (no peak)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is insulin detemir?

A

Long-acting insulin

Fatty acid side chain enhances association to albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is pramlintide?

A

Amylin analog that delays gastric empyting, decreases postprandial glucagon secretion, and improves satiety
Treats T1DM and T2DM
Used with rapid-acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is exenatide?

A

GLP-1 analog that increases insulin secretion, decreases glucagon secretion, slows gastric emptying, and increases satiety
Treats T2DM
May cause weight loss, pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is liraglutide?

A

GLP-1 analog that increases insulin secretion, decreases glucagon secretion, slows gastric emptying, and increases satiety
Treats T2DM
May cause weight loss, pancreatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is glyburide?

A

Sulfonylureas block ATP-sensitive K+ channels –> cell depolarization and calcium influx –> insulin secretion
Treats T2DM
May cause hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is glipizide?

A

ATP-sensitive K+ channels –> cell depolarization and calcium influx –> insulin secretion
Treats T2DM
May cause hypoglycemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is glimepiride?

A

ATP-sensitive K+ channels –> cell depolarization and calcium influx –> insulin secretion
Treats T2DM
May cause hypoglycemia

29
Q

What is repaglinide?

A

Drugs that works similar to sulfonylureas

30
Q

What is metformin?

A

A biguanide that reduces hepatic glucoeogenesis and improves peripheral glucose uptake and utilization
Treats T2DM and polycystic ovarian syndrome
May cause lactic acidosis

31
Q

What is pioglitazone?

A

Thiazolidinedione that activates the PPARγ receptor which increases insulin sensitivity
Treats T2DM and polycystic ovarian syndrome
May cause weight gain via fluid retention and heart failure

32
Q

What is rosiglitazone?

A

Thiazolidinedione that activates the PPARγ receptor which increases insulin sensitivity
Treats T2DM and polycystic ovarian syndrome
May cause weight gain via fluid retention and heart failure

33
Q

What is acarbose?

A

An α-glucosidase inhibitors which prevents breakdown of carbs and absorption of glucose
Treats T2DM

34
Q

What is miglitol?

A

An α-glucosidase inhibitors which prevents breakdown of carbs and absorption of glucose
Treats T2DM

35
Q

What is alogliptin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor which prolongs activity of GLP-1 thus increasing insulin secretion and decreasing glucagon secretion
Treats T2DM
May cause pancreatitis, urinary or respiratory infections

36
Q

What is linagliptin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor which prolongs activity of GLP-1 thus increasing insulin secretion and decreasing glucagon secretion
Treats T2DM
May cause pancreatitis, urinary or respiratory infections

37
Q

What is saxagliptin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor which prolongs activity of GLP-1 thus increasing insulin secretion and decreasing glucagon secretion
Treats T2DM
May cause pancreatitis, urinary or respiratory infections

38
Q

What is sitagliptin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor which prolongs activity of GLP-1 thus increasing insulin secretion and decreasing glucagon secretion
Treats T2DM
May cause pancreatitis, urinary or respiratory infections

39
Q

What is canagliflozin?

A

SGLT2 inhibitor decreases resorption of glucose and sodium in the kidney
May cause hypotension, UTIs, genital mycotic infections

40
Q

What is dapagliflozin?

A

SGLT2 inhibitor decreases resorption of glucose and sodium in the kidney
May cause hypotension, UTIs, genital mycotic infections

41
Q

What is fluoxymesterone?

A

17α-aklylated androgen can be taken orally

Treats hypogondaism

42
Q

What is dutasteride?

A

5α-reductase inhibitor decreases formation of DHT

Treats BPH

43
Q

What is flutamide?

A

Competitive inhibitor of androgens

Treats prostate cancer

44
Q

What is bicalutamide?

A

Competitive inhibitor of androgens

Treats prostate cancer

45
Q

What is enzalutamide?

A

Competitive inhibitor of androgens
Prevents translocation of receptor to nucleus
Treats prostate cancer

46
Q

What is nilutamide?

A

Competitive inhibitor of androgens

Treats prostate cancer

47
Q

What is propranolol?

A

β-blocker inhibits β-adrenergic receptors and inhibits conversion of T4 to T3
Treats thyroid storm

48
Q

What is perchlorate?

A

Inhibitor of Na/I symporter in the thyroid

49
Q

What is testosterone enanthate?

A

Testosterone derivative

Treats hypogonadism, chronic wasting, anemia

50
Q

What is danazol?

A

17α-aklylated androgen can be taken orally

Can treat hereditary angioedema

51
Q

What is finasteride?

A

Type II 5α-reductase inhibitors decreases conversion of T to DHT
Treats BPH and male pattern baldness

52
Q

What is flutamide?

A

Androgen receptor antagonist

Used on combination with GnRH agonist to treat prostate cancer

53
Q

What is bicalutamide?

A

Androgen receptor antagonist

Used on combination with GnRH agonist to treat prostate cancer

54
Q

What is enzalutamide?

A

Androgen receptor antagonist; prevents translocation of receptor to nucleus
Used on combination with GnRH agonist to treat prostate cancer

55
Q

What is hydrocortisone?

A

Cortisol analog
Used to treat adrenal insufficiency, congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Side effects include glaucoma, osteoporosis, infection

56
Q

What is fludrocortisone?

A

Corticosteroid with mineralcorticoid activity

57
Q

What is ketoconazole?

A

P450 inhibitor prevents gonadal and adrenal steroid hormone synthesis
Treats Cushing syndrome and prostate cancer

58
Q

What is spironolactone?

A

Mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist

Treats HTN, hyperaldosteronism, heart failure, hirsuitism in women

59
Q

What is tamulosin?

A

α1A-adrenergic receptor antagonist blocks constriction of smooth muscle
Treats BPH
Side effects include floppy iris syndrome

60
Q

What is sildenafil?

A

Phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor prevents breakdown of cGMP allowing sustained smooth muscle relaxation
Used to treat ED, BPH, and pulmonary HTN

61
Q

What is alprostadil?

A

PGE1 analog increases cAMP allowing relaxation of smooth muscle
Treats ED

62
Q

What is papaverine?

A

Non-selective phosphodiesterase inhibitor increases cGMP and cAMP
Treats ED

63
Q

What is phentolamine?

A

α1A-adrenergic receptor antagonist –> relaxation of smooth muscle and dilation of arteries
Treats ED

64
Q

What is alendronate?

A

Bisphosphonate
Treats osteoporosis, Paget disease
Associated with esophageal irritation

65
Q

What is teriparatide?

A

PTH fragment that stimulates bone growth

Treats osteoporosis

66
Q

What is denosumab?

A

Anti-RANKL monoclonal antibody downregulates osteoclasts

Treats osteoporosis

67
Q

Which cell in spermatogenesis is the first to become haploid?

A

Secondary spermatocytes

68
Q

Where does sperm mature and become motile?

A

Epididymis

Sperm don’t become activated until they reach the vagina

69
Q

During which phase of meiosis does cross-over occur?

A

Prophase I