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Repro-Endo > Repro-Endo Final > Flashcards

Repro-Endo Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is leuprolide?

A

Synthetic GnRH agonist that can be used to downregulate GnRH receptors to decrease secretion of FSH and LH if used continuously Treats prostate cancer, precocious puberty, endometriosis, metastatic breast cancer (premenopausal)

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2
Q

What is oxytocin?

A

Stimulates contraction of myoepithelium of uterine smooth muscle and mammary alveoli Used to induce labor and eject milk

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3
Q

What is vasopressin?

A

Binds to V2 receptors in collecting tubules, increases traslocation of AQP2, and increases water resorption Binds to V1 receptors in vascular smooth muscle causing constriction Treats central diabetes insipidus, cardiac arrest, bleeding of esophageal varices

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4
Q

What is insulin lispro?

A

Rapid-acting insulin Post-prandial glucose control for T1DM, T2DM, GDM

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5
Q

What is insulin aspart?

A

Rapid-acting insulin Post-prandial glucose control for T1DM, T2DM, GDM

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6
Q

What is insulin glulisine?

A

Rapid-acting insulin Post-prandial glucose control for T1DM, T2DM, GDM

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7
Q

What is NPH insulin/insulin isophane?

A

Intermediate-acting insulin Glucose control for T1DM, T2DM, GDM

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8
Q

What is insulin glargine?

A

Long-acting insulin Precipitates at injection site due to low pH –> extended release (no peak) Basal glucose control for T1DM, T2DM, GDM

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9
Q

What is insulin detemir?

A

Long-acting insulin Fatty acid side chain enhances association to albumin Basal glucose control for T1DM, T2DM, GDM

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10
Q

What is pramlintide?

A

Amylin analog that delays gastric empyting, decreases postprandial glucagon secretion, and improves satiety Treats T1DM and T2DM Used with rapid-acting insulin

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11
Q

What is exenatide?

A

GLP-1 analog that increases insulin secretion, decreases glucagon secretion, slows gastric emptying, and increases satiety Treats T2DM May cause weight loss, pancreatitis

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12
Q

What is liraglutide?

A

GLP-1 analog that increases insulin secretion, decreases glucagon secretion, slows gastric emptying, and increases satiety Treats T2DM May cause weight loss, pancreatitis

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13
Q

What is glyburide?

A

Sulfonylureas block ATP-sensitive K+ channels –> cell depolarization and calcium influx –> insulin secretion Treats T2DM May cause hypoglycemia

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14
Q

What is glipizide?

A

ATP-sensitive K+ channels –> cell depolarization and calcium influx –> insulin secretion Treats T2DM May cause hypoglycemia

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15
Q

What is glimepiride?

A

ATP-sensitive K+ channels –> cell depolarization and calcium influx –> insulin secretion Treats T2DM May cause hypoglycemia

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16
Q

What is repaglinide?

A

Drugs that works similar to sulfonylureas

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17
Q

What is metformin?

A

A biguanide that reduces hepatic glucoeogenesis and improves peripheral glucose uptake and utilization Treats T2DM and polycystic ovarian syndrome May cause lactic acidosis (contraindicated in renal failure)

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18
Q

What is pioglitazone?

A

Thiazolidinedione that activates the PPARγ receptor which increases insulin sensitivity Treats T2DM and polycystic ovarian syndrome May cause weight gain via fluid retention and heart failure

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19
Q

What is rosiglitazone?

A

Thiazolidinedione that activates the PPARγ receptor which increases insulin sensitivity Treats T2DM and polycystic ovarian syndrome May cause weight gain via fluid retention and heart failure

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20
Q

What is acarbose?

A

An α-glucosidase inhibitors which prevents breakdown of carbs and absorption of glucose Treats T2DM

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21
Q

What is miglitol?

A

An α-glucosidase inhibitors which prevents breakdown of carbs and absorption of glucose Treats T2DM

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22
Q

What is alogliptin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor which prolongs activity of GLP-1 thus increasing insulin secretion and decreasing glucagon secretion Treats T2DM May cause pancreatitis, urinary or respiratory infections

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23
Q

What is linagliptin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor which prolongs activity of GLP-1 thus increasing insulin secretion and decreasing glucagon secretion Treats T2DM May cause pancreatitis, urinary or respiratory infections

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24
Q

What is saxagliptin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor which prolongs activity of GLP-1 thus increasing insulin secretion and decreasing glucagon secretion Treats T2DM May cause pancreatitis, urinary or respiratory infections

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25
Q

What is sitagliptin?

A

DPP-4 inhibitor which prolongs activity of GLP-1 thus increasing insulin secretion and decreasing glucagon secretion Treats T2DM May cause pancreatitis, urinary or respiratory infections

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26
Q

What is canagliflozin?

A

SGLT2 inhibitor decreases resorption of glucose and sodium in the kidney May cause hypotension, UTIs, genital mycotic infections

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27
Q

What is dapagliflozin?

A

SGLT2 inhibitor decreases resorption of glucose and sodium in the kidney May cause hypotension, UTIs, genital mycotic infections

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28
Q

What is hydrocortisone?

A

Cortisol analog Used to treat adrenal insufficiency, congenital adrenal hyperplasia Side effects include glaucoma, osteoporosis, infection

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29
Q

What is fludrocortisone?

A

Corticosteroid with mineralcorticoid activity

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30
Q

What is ketoconazole?

A

P450 inhibitor prevents gonadal and adrenal steroid hormone synthesis Treats Cushing syndrome and prostate cancer

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31
Q

What is spironolactone?

A

Mineralcorticoid receptor antagonist Treats HTN, hyperaldosteronism, heart failure, hirsuitism in women

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32
Q

What is alendronate?

A

Bisphosphonate Treats osteoporosis, Paget disease Associated with esophageal irritation

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33
Q

What is teriparatide?

A

PTH fragment that stimulates bone growth Treats osteoporosis

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34
Q

What is denosumab?

A

Anti-RANKL monoclonal antibody downregulates osteoclasts Treats osteoporosis

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35
Q

Which cell in spermatogenesis is the first to become haploid?

A

Secondary spermatocytes

36
Q

Where does sperm mature and become motile?

A

Epididymis Sperm don’t become activated until they reach the vagina

37
Q

During which phase of meiosis does cross-over occur?

A

Prophase I

38
Q

Which bacteria cause meningitis in newborns?

A

Group B streptoccoci Escherichia coli Listeria monocytogenes

39
Q

Which bacteria cause meningitis in infants?

A

Neisseria meningitidis Haemophilus influenzae Streptococcus pneumoniae

40
Q

What CSF findings are consistent with bacterial meningitis?

A

Gram stain findings Antigen findings High PMN cell count High protein Low glucose

41
Q

Group B Streptococci

A

Gram + cocci Catalase - Beta-hemolytic CAMP test + Bacitracin resistant Common cause of meningitis, bacteremia in newborns

42
Q

Listeria monocytogenes

A

Gram + rod Catalase + CAMP test + Beta-hemolytic Listerolysin O, ActA Cause of meningitis, bacteremia in newborns Can grow in the cold

43
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis

A

Gram - coccus or rod Obligate intracellular pathogen (elementary bodies [infective part] and reticulate bodies) Serovars D-K cause STIs: cervicitis, urethritis with a clear discharge, neonatal conjunctivitis (unilateral) Serovars L1-L3 cause lymphogranuloma venereum –> tender regional lymphadenopathy Diagnose with nucleic acid amplification test Treat with azithromycin, doxycycline, tetracycline

44
Q

Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)

A

Enveloped, dsDNA virus Infects mucosa epithelial cells Causes vesicles or ulcers on mouth, genitals Can cause congenital herpes Treat with acyclovir, ganciclovir

45
Q

Candida (C. albicans)

A

Dimorphic fungus Can cause yeast infections in women –> thick white discharge Treat with OTC azole-based ointments or oral fluconazole

46
Q

Neisseria gonorrheae

A

Gram - diplococci Oxidase + No capsule Causes urethritis, vulvovaginitis (girls, postmenopause), cervicitis (premenopause) with mucupurulent discharge, disseminated disease, neonatal conjunctivitis (bilateral) Diagnose with gram stain or culture (chocolate agar + CO2) Treat with ceftriazone + azithromycin No vaccine due to antigenic variation of the pili

47
Q

Mycoplasma genitalium

A

No cell wall Causes urethritis

48
Q

Mycoplasma hominis

A

No cell wall Causes endometritis, salpingitis, PID

49
Q

Ureaplasma urealyticum

A

No cell wall Causes urethritis

50
Q

Haemophilus ducreyi

A

Gram - coccobacillus Caused painful ulcers (chancroid) and possibly inguinal lymphadenopathy Culture with enriched agar (factors X and V + CO2)

51
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

Spirochete Causes syphilis (painless ulcers, patches, rashes, disseminated), congenital syphilis (including tooth deformities) Diagnose with darkfield microscopy, nontreponemal and treponemal serology tests Treat with penicillin G

52
Q

Gardnerella vaginalis

A

Gram variable rod β-hemolytic Elevated in bacterial vaginosis –> thin, grayish/white discharge, erythematous vaginal tissue, and fishy odor Diagnose with elevated pH (>4.5), Whiff test, clue cells Treat with metronidazole

53
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Flagellated protozoan Causes trichomoniasis –> copious yellow/green, frothy discharge, odor Treat with metronidazole

54
Q

Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)

A

Non-enveloped, dsDNA virus HPV 6, 11 cause condylomata acuminata HPV 16, 18, 31 cause cancer of the cervix, penis, anus; virus expresses E6 and E7 which inactivates p53 and Rb, respectively, stimulating cell growth

55
Q

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

A

Retrovirus, +ssRNA Viral gp120 targets CD4 and CCR5 receptors on CD4+ T cells Diagnose with Western blot

56
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Obligate intracellular protozoan parasite May cause TORCH congenital infection: hydrocephalus, scattered intracranial calcifications, chorioretinitis Diagnose by culture, serology Treat with pyrimethamine/sulfadiazine

57
Q

Rubella

A

Enveloped, ssRNA virus May cause TORCH congenital infection: cataracts, bone lesions, congenital heart disease, sensorineural hearing loss Diagnose with nasal culture

58
Q

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

A

Enveloped, dsDNA virus May cause TORCH congenital infection: periventricular calcifications, sensorineural hearing loss Diagnose with nasal culture Treat with ganciclovir

59
Q

Escherichia coli K1

A

Gram - rod Lactose fermenter Sialic acid capsule Can cause meningitis, bacterimia in newborns

60
Q

17α-ethinyl estradiol

A

Orally active estrogen Used for contraception, hypogonadism Increased risk of thrombosis, endometrial cancer, breast cancer Contraindicated in patients with a hx of DVT, ER+ breast cancer

61
Q

Mestranol

A

Orally active estrogen Used for contraception, hypogonadism Increased risk of thrombosis, endometrial cancer, breast cancer Contraindicated in patients with a hx of DVT, ER+ breast cancer

62
Q

Equilenin

A

Equine estrogen conjugated with SO4 to prevent first pass metabolism Used for contraception, hypogonadism Increased risk of thrombosis, endometrial cancer, breast cancer

63
Q

Equilin

A

Equine estrogen conjugated with SO4 to prevent first pass metabolism Used for contraception, hypogonadism Increased risk of thrombosis, endometrial cancer, breast cancer

64
Q

Tamoxifen

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) Antagonist in breast, hypothalamus Agonist in endometrium, bone, liver Used to prevent, treat, and prevent recurrence in breast cancer Increased risk of endometrial cancer, thromboembolism Must by hydrozylated by CYP2D6 in liver –> can’t use with SSRIs May stop working after 5 years

65
Q

Raloxifene

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) Antagonist in breast, endometrium, hypothalamus Agonist in bone, liver Treats postmenopausal osteoporosis, prevents breast cancer Increased risk of thromboembolism, nausea, vomiting

66
Q

Ospemifene

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) Antagonist in breast, hypothalamus Agonist on vaginal epithelium, bone, endometrium

67
Q

Clomiphene citrate

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) Antagonist in hypothalamus and pituitary –> blockage of estrogen negative feedback induces FSH and LH release –> ovulation Treats infertility due to anovulation

68
Q

Fulvestrant

A

Pure estrogen receptor antagonist Prevent dimerization of ER, promotes ER degradation, prevents transcription of estrogen-sensitive genes Treats ER+ metastatic breast cancer

69
Q

Aminoglutethimide

A

Inhibits P450 enzyme that converts cholesterol to pregnenolone and aromatase Reduced production of all steroids Treats metastatic breast cancer (postmenopause) and Cushing syndrome

70
Q

Letrozole

A

Selective aromatase inhibitor Treats breast cancer (postmenopause)

71
Q

Anastrozole

A

Selective aromatase inhibitor Treats breast cancer (postmenopause)

72
Q

Exemestane

A

Selective aromatase inhibitor Treats breast cancer (postmenopause)

73
Q

Megestrol

A

Progesterone analog decreases adrenal steroid synthesis and estrogen receptor levels Treats advanced breast cancer Increases appetite

74
Q

Medroxyprogesterone

A

Progesterone analog decreases adrenal steroid synthesis and estrogen receptor levels Treats advanced breast cancer Increases appetite

75
Q

Mifepristone (RU-486)

A

Progesterone and glucocorticoid antagonist Treats BRCA1 breast cancer

76
Q

Goserelin

A

Synthetic GnRH agonist that can be used to downregulate GnRH receptors to decrease secretion of FSH and LH if used continuously Treats prostate cancer, precocious puberty, endometriosis, metastatic breast cancer (premenopausal)

77
Q

Trastuzumab

A

Monoclonal antibody against HER2 HER2+ breast cancer May cause cardiomyopathy, especially if given with anthracylines (daunorubicin, doxorubicin)

78
Q

Pertuzumab

A

Monoclonal antibody that prevents HER2 dimerization HER2+ metastatic breast cancer

79
Q

Lapatinib

A

Monoclonal antibody against HER2 and EGFR HER2+ breast cancer that has progressed with trastuzumab

80
Q

What are Jean Piaget’s stages of cognitive development?

A
  1. Sensorimotor (birth - 2 yrs) 2. Preoperational (2-7 yrs) 3. Concrete operational (7-12 yrs) 4. Formal operational (12+ yrs)
81
Q

What are Sigmund Freud’s stages of development?

A
  1. Oral (birth-1.5 yrs) 2. Anal (1.5-3 yrs) 3. Phallic (3-6 yrs) 4. Latency (6-12 yrs) 5. Genital (12+ yrs)
82
Q

What are Margaret Mahler’s stages of development?

A
  1. Normal autistic (birth-1 month) 2. Normal symbiotic (1-3 months) 3. Differentiation (4-10 months) 4. Early practicing (10-12 months) 5. Practicing (12-18 months) 6. Rapprochement (18-24 months)
83
Q

What are Erik Eriksons’ Eight Stages of Man?

A
  1. Trust v Mistrust 2. Autonomy v Shame and Doubt 3. Initiative v Guilt 4. Industry v Inferiority 5. Identity v Role Confusion 6. Intimacy v Isolation 7. Generativity v Stagnation 8. Integrity v Despair
84
Q

What are Kohlberg’s 6 stages of moral development?

A
  1. Punishment-Obedience 2. Personal reward 3. Good boy/Nice girl 4. Law and Order 5. Social contract 6. Universal ethical principle
85
Q

Name two physical teratogens?

A

Hyperthermia –> NTDs, facial, cardiac, limb defects X-rays –> microcephaly, spina bifida, cleft palate limb defects

86
Q

Name some pharmacologic teratogens?

A

Thalidomide –> limb defects Amphetamines –> cleft lip and palate, heart defects Cocaine Lead Alcohol Retinoic acid –> brain, heart, ear, thymus abnormalities Statins

Repro-Endo (2 decks)

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