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repro Flashcards

1
Q

PID can increase the risk of?

A

ectopic pregnancy

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2
Q

what cancers does COC prevent

A

Ovarian endometrial

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3
Q

what cancers does COC cause

A

cerical and boob

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4
Q

first line treatment for urge incontinence

A

bladder re-training

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5
Q

1st line treatment for stress incontinence

A

pelvic floor muscle re-training

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6
Q

whirpool sign

A

ovarian torsion

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7
Q

snowstorm appearance

A

trophoblastic disease

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8
Q

investigation for endometriosis

A

transvaginal us

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9
Q

high AFP

A

neural tube defects (meningocele, myelomeningocele and anencephaly)
Abdominal wall defects (omphalocele and gastroschisis)
Multiple pregnancy

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10
Q

low AFP

A

Down’s syndrome
Trisomy 18
Maternal diabetes mellitus

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11
Q

what test is done to confirm menopause

A

rise in FSH

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12
Q

what age is classified as early menopause

A

under 40

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13
Q

what treatment can shrink uterine fibroids

A

GnHR agonist

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14
Q

what SSRI is recommended in breastfeeding

A

paroxetine or srtraline

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15
Q

investigation for breast lump < 35

A

ultrasound

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16
Q

investigation for breast lump > 35

A

Mammogram

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17
Q

This aromatase inhibitor is used in post-menopausal patents with breast cancer that oestrogen receptor positive

A

anastrozole

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18
Q

is used in patients who have oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer who are pre or peri-menopausal

A

tamoxifen

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19
Q

Patients are typically aged between 20 and 40, and present with a firm, very mobile and non-tender breast lump, most commonly in the upper outer quadrant.

A

fibro adenoma

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20
Q

It typically occurs after trauma and usually presents as a non-tender and irregularly shaped breast lump.

A

fat necrosis

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21
Q

treatment for HER2-receptor-positive breast cancer.

A

trustazumab

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22
Q

Patients are typically perimenopausal and present with thick, sticky green or yellow nipple discharge with nipple inversion.

A

mammary-duct ectasia

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23
Q

what can make mastitis worse

A

smoking

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24
Q

risk factor for fat necrosis

A

high BMI

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25
Q

Highly mobile, encapsulated breast masses.

A

fibroadenoma

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26
Q

Bloody discharge from the nipple which can present with/without a palpable mass. Breast tenderness may also be present.

A

intraductal papilloma

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27
Q

Presents on mammogram as a stellate pattern of central scarring surrounded by proliferating glandular tissue.

A

radial scar

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28
Q

star or rosette-shaped lesion with a translucent centre.

A

radial scar

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29
Q

patients above 50 years old presenting with unilateral nipple discharge

A

2 week referral

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30
Q

This is the most common type, accounting for about 80% of all breast cancers. It starts in a milk duct, breaks through the wall of the duct, and invades the fatty tissue of the breast.

A

invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC):

31
Q

This type begins in the milk-producing glands (lobules) and can spread to other parts of the body.

A

invasive lobular carcinoma (ILC):

32
Q

This is a non-invasive or pre-invasive cancer where the cells are confined to the ducts in the breast and have not spread into the surrounding breast tissue.

A

Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

33
Q

This is not a cancer but an area of abnormal cell growth that increases a person’s risk of developing invasive breast cancer later.

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS):

34
Q

This is a rare but aggressive type of breast cancer that causes the lymph vessels in the skin of the breast to become blocked.

A

Inflammatory breast cancer (IBC):

35
Q

This type lacks oestrogen receptors, progesterone receptors, and does not have an excess of the HER2 protein on the cancer cell surfaces. It tends to be more aggressive and has fewer targeted treatments available.

A

Triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC):

36
Q

micro-calcification on mammography

A

ductal carcinoma in-situ

37
Q

patient over 30 with unexplained breast lump

A

urgent referral

38
Q

smooth, hard, mobile breast mass which can grow rapidly in size over a period of weeks or months in a woman 40-50 years old

A

phyllodes tumour

39
Q

what cancers are associated with BRCA2 mutation

A

prostate
breast
ovarian
pancreatic
gastric

40
Q

_________ can occur after puerperal mastitis is treated with antibiotics. It presents with painful and itchy nipples, with flaky and cracked skin around the areola.

A

Candida of the nipple

41
Q

irregularly enlarged uterus

A

uterine fibroids

42
Q

when should downs test be done and what does it include

A

nuchal translucency measurement + serum B-HCG + pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

43
Q

↑ HCG, ↓ PAPP-A, thickened nuchal translucency

A

downs

44
Q

what does the quadruple test measure and when would it be used

A

alfa-fetoprotein (AFP), unconjugated oestriol, beta-hCG and inhibin A

If the window for the combined test was missed, at 14-20 gestation

45
Q

what should be carried out in shoulder dystocia

A

McRoberts manouvre

46
Q

describe mcroberts manouvre

A

this manoeuvre entails flexion and abduction of the maternal hips, bringing the mother’s thighs towards her abdomen

47
Q

After giving birth, women require contraception after

A

day 21

48
Q

‘postpartum women (breastfeeding and non-breastfeeding) can start the POP at?

A

any time postpartum.’

49
Q

absolutely contraindicated - UKMEC 4 - if breastfeeding < 6 weeks post-partum

A

COCP

50
Q

when can COCP be started after birth and why

A

21 days due to increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum

51
Q

The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within

A

48 hours of childbirth or after 4 weeks.

52
Q

when does the POP become effective

A

if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle it provides immediate protection, otherwise additional contraceptive methods (e.g. condoms) should be used for the first 2 days

53
Q

investigations for ovarian cancer

A

Blood test for CA-125
Pelvic and abdominal ultrasound scan

54
Q

most common type of uterine fibroid

A

intramural -contained to the myometrial layer

55
Q

young woman ovarian cancer

A

germ cell

56
Q

post menopausal ovarian cancer

A

epithelial

57
Q

painful periods

A

mefenamic

58
Q

heavy periods

A

tranexamic

59
Q

Strawberry cervix

A

thricomonas vaginalis

60
Q

VDRL positive

A

syphilis

61
Q

 increased fundal height, tense cystic uterus, pool depth >18

A

polyhydramnios

62
Q

Purulent cervical discharge

A

gonnorhoea

63
Q

Bacterial vaginosis treatment

A

 metronidazole 7 days

64
Q

Chocolate cyst

A

endometrioma

65
Q

ovarian cyst containing hair/teeth

A

teratoma

66
Q

avoid alcohol and stay out of the sun

A

metronidazole

67
Q

Primary amenorrhoea and low FSH

A

hypothalamic pituitary insufficiency

68
Q

FSH is high as no ovaries so no negative feedback

A

turners

69
Q

No.1 cause of septic arthritis in sexually active young adults

A

 Neisseria gonorrhoea

70
Q

Amenorrhoea following postpartum haemorrhage

A

sheehan syndrome

71
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

metronidazole 7 days oral

72
Q

gonorrhoea tx

A

ceftriaxone IM and azithromycin

73
Q

Elderly with inflammation that treatment doesn’t resolve

A

 inflammatory breast cancer

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