Reports Flashcards

1
Q

Answer the following based on the RBI’s Annual Report on the “Integrated Ombudsman Scheme 2021, April 2022- 31 March 2023”-

A) 7,03,544 complaints were received at ORBIOs (Offices of RBI Ombudsman) and CRPC from April 1, 2022, to March 31, 2023, a ____ % increase over the previous year?

B) Out of All complaints received, 2,34,690 complaints handled by ____ ORBIOs (Offices of RBI Ombudsman) and CRPC (Centralized Receipt and Processing Centres) closed 4,68,270 complaints as non-complaints / non-maintainable complaints?

C) Around ____ % of complaints are received through digital modes including online CMS portal, email, and CPGRAMS?

D) Overall disposal rate at ORBIOs is _____ %?

E) The Average Turn Around Time (TAT) for disposal of complaints has improved continuously from ___days to ___days?

F) Majority of maintainable complaints (______%) disposed of by ORBIOs resolved through mutual settlement/conciliation/mediation?

G) ____ Appeals received against RBI Ombudsmen decisions during the year, ____Appeals received under RB-IOS, 2021 and ___ Appeals received under previous Ombudsman Schemes?

H) Which are the top 5 offices in terms of the number of complaints received and which office received the least volume of complaints?

I) Which are the top 5 states/UTs in terms of the most number of complaints received?

J) Which are the top 5 states/UTs in terms of the least number of complaints received?

A

Ans-
A) 68.24% increase

   B) 22

   C) 85.64%

   D) 97.99%. There was a significant decline in number of complaints pending beyond 30 days. From 0.26% as on March 31, 2022, to 0.04% as on March 31, 2023.

Number of Complaints brought forward from previous year – 6447

E) From 95 days in 2019-20 to 33 days in 2022-23

   F) 57.48%

   G) 122, 119 and 3

   H)  1. Mumbai (II) – 12313 Complaints – 5.25% share in total complaints 
  1. Mumbai (I) – 5.05%
  2. Chennai – 4.95%
  3. Ahmedabad – 4.89%
  4. Kolkata – 4.88%

The office which received the least volume of complaints was New Delhi (III) – 8474 Complaints – 3.61%

I) 1. Chandigarh
2. NCT of Delhi
3. Haryana
4. Rajasthan
5. Gujarat

J) 1. Mizoram
2. Nagaland
3. Meghalaya
4. Manipur
5. Arunachal Pradesh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A) The ___edition of the WTO Ministerial Conference, aimed to address critical issues affecting global trade and food security was held in _____place?

B) According to the G-33 Ministerial Statement on Agriculture Trade Negotiations, almost ______people will be chronically undernourished in 2030?

C) Despite previous oppositions by South Africa and India, the WTO members agreed to further extend the moratorium on imposing import duties on ______type of trade for two more years?

D) Which two new members were added in the WTO?

E) What is the 3-Tier action plan proposed by India to revive WTO’s Dispute Resolution Body?

F) India’s proposal on reducing the cost of cross-border remittances garnered a significant support. The proposal highlighted the disparity between current global average remittance costs of ____% and the UN Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) target of less than ___%?

A

Ans-
A) The 13th edition of the WTO Ministerial Conference was held in Abu Dhabi, UAE

B) 600 million people

C) e-Commerce trade

D) Comoros and Timor-Leste. This brings the total number of WTO member countries to 166

E) 1. To transition the discussions on dispute settlement reforms to formal WTO bodies, preferably under the guidance of the Dispute Settlement Body (DSB) chair;

  1. To ensure that the transition is not just a mere formality but results in an effective multilateralisation of the process, which is member-driven, open, transparent and inclusive, taking into account the myriad capacity and technical challenges facing developing country members and LDCs;
  2. To prioritise the restoration of the Appellate Body.

F) 6.18%, 3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

a) A report on “Green Hydrogen Standards and Approval Systems in India” was launched. Standards related to the Green hydrogen value chain are divided into which 4 categories and how many standards are adopted in India?

b) Setting up a Green Hydrogen project requires ____ approvals from the Central Government, State Governments, and local bodies?

c) According to the report “India’s Green Hydrogen Revolution: An Ambitious Approach”, what is India’s rank globally in total renewable power capacity additions?

d) According to the report “India’s Green Hydrogen Revolution: An Ambitious Approach”, what is India’s progress in Renewable Energy?

A

a) Standards related to the Green Hydrogen value chain are broadly split into four categories:

  • Production
  • Storage and transportation
  • End-use applications
  • General safety.

Across these categories, 87 standards are already adopted or developed in India, and 59 are under development. Further, there are 52 standards that exist globally, which could be considered for adoption in India. For the three components, there are no Indian or international standards available for reference.

b) 73 approvals are required for Green Hydrogen projects:

  • State Government entities hold jurisdiction for 43.
  • Central Government entities hold jurisdiction for 23 approvals.
  • Seven approvals fall under local government bodies

c) India’s Progress in RE:
- 4th globally for total Renewable Power capacity additions.

  • 4th in Wind Power Capacity and
  • 5th in Solar Power Capacity globally.
  • India assumed the presidency of the 13th Assembly of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA)

d) - India saw the highest year-on-year growth in Renewable Energy additions of 9.83% in 2022.

  • The installed Renewable Energy capacity (including large hydro) has increased by around 128% since 2014.

Solar:
- The installed solar energy capacity has increased by more than 30 times in the last 9 years and stands at 88 GW as of 31 March 2024.

  • India’s solar energy potential is estimated to be 748 GWp as estimated by the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE).

Wind:

  • The potential now assessed for onshore projects is 1,163 GW. However, the potential sites having a high-capacity Utilization Factor (CUF) of 36% and above (which is necessary for the financial viability of the project) is 163 GW.
  • India has already utilized sites with a total capacity of 42 GW and now a balance of 120 GW would be available for new development
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Answer the following based on the first exclusive all-India survey on ‘Ayush’ conducted by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) from July 2022 to June 2023-

A) The survey was conducted as a part of the ____ round of the National Sample Survey (NSS)?

B) The survey was conducted on a member of a household aged ___years or more?

C) Approximately ___% of rural and ___% of urban respondents are aware of the Ayush system of medicine?

D) Around ___% of rural and ___% of urban individuals used Ayush for the prevention or treatment of ailments in the past 365 days?

E) At least one member in about ___% of rural and ___% of urban households is aware of medicinal plants, home remedies, and local health traditions related to Ayush?

F) In around ___ households in rural India and around ___ households in urban India, at least one member of the household is found to practise yoga regularly?

A

A) - It was conducted as a part of the 79th round of the NSSO

  • This survey covered the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Information was collected from 1,81,298 households, including 1,04,195 in rural areas and 77,103 in urban areas.

B) 15 years or more

C) Approximately 95% of rural and 96% of urban respondents are aware of Ayush.

D) Around 46% of rural and 53% of urban individuals used Ayush for the prevention or treatment of ailments in the past 365 days

E) 85% of the Rural Households and 86% of the Urban Households

F) Rural India- 1.1 crore households, Urban India- 1.4 crore households

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

. A) What is the full form of the ASUSE survey, released in June and it covers which sectors?

B) The Total no. of establishments grew by ___% annually?

C) The number of establishments in the other services sector grew annually by ___%

D) The number of manufacturing establishments increased by ___%

E) The unincorporated non-agricultural sector employed about ___workers?

F) What was the growth of employment observed in different sectors?

A

. A) - The Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUS) provides the economic and operational characteristics of the “Unincorporated Non-Agricultural Establishments” in the Trade, Manufacturing and Other Services sectors, excluding the Construction sector.

  • The ASUSE survey of this year covered the reference periods of April 2021 to March 2022 (ASUSE 2021-22) and October 2022 to September 2023 (ASUSE 2022-23).

B) 5.88%

C) 15.12 %

D) 2.22%

E) The unincorporated non-agricultural sector employed about 11 crore workers (10.96 crore) from October 2022 to September 2023, up from 9.8 crore in 2021-22, showing a healthy labour market growth

F) The highest growth of employment was observed at 13.42% in the Other Services sector, followed by 6.34% in the Manufacturing sector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Answer the following based on the provisional figures of the Direct Tax Collections for FY2024-25, released in June 2024-

A) The Net tax collections increased by what per cent?

B) Gross Tax collection increased by what per cent?

C) Total Advance tax collection showed a growth of __%?

D) What was the total refund amount issued in FY2024-25?

A

A) It increased by 20.99% to ₹4,62,664 crore in FY2024, from ₹ 3,82,414 crore in the corresponding period of the preceding year

B) Gross Tax collection grew by 22.19% to ₹5,15,986

C) Total Advance Tax Collections were at ₹1,48,823 crore showing a growth of 27.34%

D) Refunds amounting to ₹53,322 crore have also been issued in the FY 2024-25 till 17.06.2024, which are 33.70% higher than refunds issued during the same period in the preceding year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Answer the following based on the Household Consumption Expenditure Survey (HCES) from August 2022 to July 2023, released by the NSSO, Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation-

A) What is All India’s Average Monthly Per Capita Expenditure (MPCE) for Rural and Urban India respectively and what is the MPCE on Food and Non-Food items for the same?

B) Adjusted to 2011-12 prices, the MPCE growth is ___% in rural and ___% in urban areas respectively?

C) The Share of Food items in the total MPCE declined to what per cent from 2011-12 to 2022-23, in Rural and Urban India respectively?

D) What is the decline in the Urban-Rural gap in average MPCE from 2011-12 to 2022-23?

E) The Rural-Urban difference in average MPCE, among the states is the highest in which states?

F) Which States and UTs have the highest and lowest Monthly Per Capita Expenditure (MPCE) accordingly?

G) The Gini Coefficient reduced to what value from 2011-12 to 2022-23 in Rural and Urban India respectively?

A

A) * Rural areas- ₹3773 which includes Food Items- ₹1750, Non-Food items- ₹2023

  • Urban areas- ₹6459 which includes Food items- ₹2530, Non-Food items- ₹3929

B) Adjusted to 2011-12 prices, the growth is 40% in rural and 33% in urban areas.

C) In rural India, food expenditure dropped from 53% to 46%, and in urban India, it decreased from 43% to 39%.

D) The urban-rural difference in average MPCE has decreased from 84% in 2011-12 to 71% in 2022-23 at current prices. This shrinking gap suggests economic improvements in rural areas and more balanced growth, likely due to effective rural development and better infrastructure.

E) The rural-urban difference in average MPCE, among the states is the highest in Meghalaya (83%) followed by Chhattisgarh (82%).

F) States:
- MPCE is the highest in Sikkim for both rural and urban areas. It is the lowest in Chhattisgarh for both rural and urban areas.

UTs:
MPCE is the highest in Chandigarh for both rural and urban areas. It is the lowest in Ladakh and Lakshadweep for rural and urban areas respectively.

Among the major 18 states, The highest MPCE is in Kerala in rural areas and Telangana in urban areas. Chhattisgarh has the lowest MPCE for rural and urban sectors.

G) - The Gini coefficient decreased in rural sectors from 0.283 to 0.266 and in urban sectors from 0.363 to 0.314

  • The Gini coefficient, also known as the Gini index or Gini ratio, measures income inequality, wealth inequality, or consumption inequality within a nation or a social group. It was developed by Italian statistician Corrado Gini. The coefficient ranges from 0 (perfect equality) to 1 (maximal inequality), where a single individual holds all the income or wealth while others have none
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Answer the following based on the provisional figures of the Direct Tax Collections for FY2024-25, released in June 2024-

A) The Net tax collections increased by what per cent?

B) Gross Tax collection increased by what per cent?

C) Total Advance tax collection showed a growth of __%?

D) What was the total refund amount issued in FY2024-25?

A

A) It increased by 20.99% to ₹4,62,664 crore in FY2024, from ₹ 3,82,414 crore in the corresponding period of the preceding year

B) Gross Tax collection grew by 22.19% to ₹5,15,986

C) Total Advance Tax Collections were at ₹1,48,823 crore showing a growth of 27.34%

D) Refunds amounting to ₹53,322 crore have also been issued in the FY 2024-25 till 17.06.2024, which are 33.70% higher than refunds issued during the same period in the preceding year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Answer the following based on the recommendations of the 53rd GST Council Meeting-

A) What were the monetary limits set for filing appeals under the GST for the GST Appellate Tribunal, High Court and Supreme Court respectively?

B) The maximum amount for filing an appeal with the appellate authority is reduced to?

C) The Pre-deposit amount limit for the Appellate Tribunal is reduced to?

D) Recent amendment introduces a common time limit for issuing demand notices and orders, whether the case involves fraud, suppression, or willful misstatement. The recommended time limit for availing of this benefit has been increased from __days to ___ days by paying the tax demanded along with interest?

E) The TCS rate for TCS collection by the Electronic Commerce Operators (ECOs) was reduced from __% to __%?

A

A) – GST Appellate Tribunal: ₹20 lakh
- High Court: ₹1 crore
- Supreme Court: ₹2 crore

B) CGST- from ₹25 crore to ₹20 crore
IGST- from ₹25 crore to ₹20 crore

C) It was decreased from 20% up to ₹50 crore CGST and ₹50 crore SGST to 10% of up to ₹20 crore CGST and ₹20 crore SGST

D) From 30 days to 60 days. So, now you have 60 days to pay the tax and interest after receiving a demand notice

E) From 1% to 0.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Answer the following based on the ‘Statistical Report on Value of Output from Agriculture and Allied Sectors from Fiscal years 2011-12 to 2022-23, released by the NSO (National Statistical Office), MoSPI-

A) Which are the 4 sub-sectors and what are their respective shares in the Total Gross Value Output at constant prices in 2022-23?

B) ‘cereals’ and ‘fruits and vegetables’ together accounted for more than ___% in total output of the crop sub-sector in 2022-23?

C) Which state exhibited the highest value of the output of “cereals” and “Fruits & Vegetables” respectively?

D) The output of the ‘livestock’ sub-sector increased steadily from ₹____ in 2011-12 to ₹_____ in 2022-23, and which two states accounted for about a quarter of the output of the livestock sub-sector at constant prices in 2022-23?

E) Which were the top 3 states for output of Forestry and Logging from 2011-12 to 2022-23?

F) The output of the fishing and aquaculture sub-sector increased steadily from about ₹___in 2011-12 to about ₹____in 2022-23, which state was the largest producer of in Fishing & Aquaculture?

A

A) – Crops: 54.3%
- Livestock: 30.9%
- Forestry: 7.9%
- Fishing: 6.9%

B) ‘Cereals’ (27.3%) and ‘fruits and vegetables’ (28.3%) together accounted for more than 55% of the 2022-23 total output of the crop sub-sector.

C) UP exhibited the highest value of output for cereals, whereas for Fruits & Vegetables West Bengal exhibited the highest value of output in 2022-23

D) It increased from ₹487.8 thousand crore in 2011-12 to ₹878.5 thousand crore in 2022-23. Rajasthan (12.5%) and Uttar Pradesh (12.3%) together accounted for about a quarter of the output of the livestock sub-sector at constant prices in 2022- 23.

E) Rank 1- Maharashtra (16.4%), Rank 2- Rajasthan (10.6%), Rank 3- UP (8.7%)

F) - It increased steadily from about ₹80 thousand crore in 2011-12 to about ₹195 thousand crore in 2022-23.

  • Andhra Pradesh remained the largest producer of fishing and aquaculture during the period 2015-16 to 2022-23 and, its share in all India output increased from 17.7% in 2011-12 to almost 40.9% in 2022-23.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Answer the following based on the SDG publications released by the MoSPI on the occasion of 18th Statistics Day on 29 June 2024-

A) ____ States/UTs have developed their State/UT level monitoring framework for SDGs to track the progress of SDGs at the sub-national level?

B) How many indicators are identified at a National level to measure and monitor the progress of targets under “SDG-1: No Poverty”?

There was a reduction in the proportion of people living in poverty in India from ___ % in 2015-16 to ____% in the period 2019-21?

C) There was an Increase in the number of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) providing bank credit linkage to ______?

D) Coverage of New Pension Scheme (NPS) is ________ in 2023- 24?

E) How many indicators are identified at a National level to measure and monitor the progress of targets under “SDG-2: Zero Hunger”?

What was the reduction in the percentage of children under the age of 5 who are stunted, from 2015-16 to 2019-21?

There was an increase in the percentage of net area under organic farming to ____ hectares?

Gross Value Added in agriculture per worker has increased to ₹______ in 2023-24?

F) How many indicators are identified at a National level to measure and monitor the progress of targets under “SDG-3: Good Health and Well Being”?

Budgetary allocation for the Department of Health Research is ₹______ in 2024-25?

Tuberculosis incidence per 1,00,000 population has reduced to ____ in 2022?

Neonatal mortality rate per 1000 live births has reduced to ____ in 2020?

The percentage of children aged 12-23 months who were fully vaccinated with BCG, measles, and three doses each of polio and DPT or Penta vaccine increased to ____% in 2019-21?

G) How many indicators are identified at a National level to measure and monitor the progress of targets under “SDG-4: Quality Education”?

The Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher secondary education has increased to ____% in 2021-22?

The proportion of schools with access to electricity is ____% in 2023- 24?

The proportion of schools with access to computers for pedagogical purposes is ___% in 2023-24?

Gross enrolment ratio for tertiary education is ___% in 2021- 22?

H) How many indicators are identified at a National level to measure and monitor the progress of targets under “SDG-5: Gender Equality”?

What were the wages of Women casual labourers and Men casual labourers during Oct-Dec 2022-23 respectively?

In the FY2023-24, ___% of the Self-Help Groups that were linked with banks were composed exclusively of women?

I) Answer the following based on “SDG-6: Clean Water and Sanitation”-
Percentage of population using an improved drinking water source in rural India has improved to ____% in 2023-24?

The percentage of Districts achieving open defecation-free has increased to ___% during 2019-20 to 2023-24?

Degree of integrated water resources management is __ in 2023?

J) Answer the following based on “SDG-7: Affordable and Clean Energy”-

___% of households are electrified in 2021-22?

Renewable energy share is ____% in the total installed electricity generation in 2022-23?

The total installed renewable energy generating capacity in the country is _____ watts per capita in 2023-24?

K) Answer the following based on ”SDG-8 Decent Work and Economic Growth”-

Total number of patents issued is ______ in 2023-24?

Outstanding credit to MSME is ₹_____ in 2022-23?

L) Answer the following based on “SDG-9 Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure”-
Total CO2 emissions of the power sector per unit of GDP (in Tonne/Rupees crore) have reduced to ___ in 2022-23?

Researchers per million population have increased to ____ in 2020- 21.?

The proportion of the population covered by a mobile network is ____% in the Mobile-cellular network category in 2022?

M) Answer the following based on “SDG-10 Reduced Inequality”-

Labour share is ___ % of the total GDP?

____% of the total budget was allocated for the welfare of SCs and STs in 2023-24?

N) Answer the following based on “SDG-11 Sustainable Cities and Communities”-
___% of the wards have 100% door-to-door waste collection in 2024?

____% of the total waste is processed in 2024?

O) Answer the following based on “SDG-12 Responsible Consumption and Production”-
Per capita, food availability has increased to ____ kg per year per person?

Total installed renewable energy generating capacity has increased to ____ watts per capita in 2023-24?

P) How many indicators are identified at a National level to measure and monitor the progress of targets under “SDG-13: Climate Action”?

There was a ____% of the reduction in emission intensity of GDP over the 2005 level?

Q) As per the key data facts on “SDG-14: Life Below Water”, _____ million Tonnes/Year is the maximum sustainable yield in fishing?

R) Answer the following based on “SDG 15: Life on Land”-
____% of the total geographical area is covered by forest (Forest Cover) in 2021?

____% of the total geographical area is protected area in 2023?

____% of government spending is on environmental protection in 2022-23?

____ % of the total wetland area is covered by Ramsar Sites in 2023?

S) Answer the following based on “SDG 16: Peace, Justice and Strong Institutions”
____ government services were being provided online to citizens in 2021-22?

There are only ___judges per lakh population in 2023?

T) According to key data facts on SDG 17: Partnerships for the Goals, Indian merchandise export contributes ___ % in Global Exports and Indian commercial services export contributes ____% in Global exports?

A

A) 28

B) ** At the global level, SDG-1 has 7 targets to measure the progress of a nation in eradicating poverty in all its forms everywhere. A total of 18 indicators have been identified at the national level to measure and monitor the progress of these targets.

** From 24.85% in 2015-16 to 14.96% in 2019-21

C) 44.15 lakhs

D) 1,80,43,920

E) ** Under SDG-2 “Zero Hunger”, there are 8 targets identified at a global level to measure the availability of food, improvement in nutrition and promotion of sustainable agriculture, and 19 indicators are identified at the National Level in India to measure and monitor the progress of these targets.

** From 38.4% in 2015-16 to 35.5% in 2019-21

** To 4.4293 million hectares.

** Rs.87,609

F) ** There are a total of 13 targets to measure healthy lives and promote well-being for all and 38 indicators have been identified at the national level to measure and monitor the progress of these targets.

** ₹3001 crore

** 199

** 20

** 76.6% in 2019-21

G) ** This goal encompasses 10 targets aimed at measuring inclusive and equitable quality education and promoting lifelong learning opportunities. To monitor the progress of these targets, 19 indicators have been identified at the national level

** 57.6%

** 89.3%

** 47.5%

** 28.4%

H) ** This goal includes 9 targets to monitor gender equality and ensure the empowerment of women and girls. At the national level, 31 indicators have been identified to track the progress of these targets.

** Women Casual Labourers: ₹276 per day, Male Casual Labourers: ₹428 per day

** 97.53%

I) ** 99.29%

** 100%

** 75

J) ** 100%

** 22.51%

** 136.56 Watts per capita

K) ** 1,03,057

** ₹22.60 lakh crore

L) ** 44.52

** 262

** 99.2%

M) ** 33.14%

** 6.19% of the total budget

N) ** 97%

** 78.46%

O) ** 207.6 kg per capita per year

** 136.56 watts per capita

P) ** Goal 13 has 5 targets to measure the changing impacts of climate-related hazards. A total of 7 indicators have been identified at the national level to measure and monitor the progress of these targets.

** 24%

Q) 5.311 million tonnes/Year

R) ** 21.71%

** 5.43%

** 0.08%

** 8.73%

S) ** 4671

** 1.53 Judges per lakh population

T) Indian merchandise export contributes 1.8% to Global Exports and Indian commercial services export contributes 4.4% to Global exports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Answer the following based on the report of India’s “G20 Task Force on Digital Public Infrastructure”, showcasing the transformative impact of DPI during India’s G20 Presidency, led by G20 Sherpa Amitabh Kant and Infosys Co-founder Nandan Nilekani-

a) India has the highest percentage of digital transactions globally, accounting for nearly ___% share?

UPI facilitates ____transactions monthly?

b) India during COVID19 transferred _____USD into the bank accounts of _____ beneficiaries?

c) India facilitated the distribution of ____vaccinations in two years with digital vaccine certificates on mobiles?

d) Around ____Indians possess the Aadhar ID system and on average ____eKYC per day is being facilitated through Aadhar?

e) DPI enabled direct transfer saved Government ____across Central Government Schemes?

f) When was the task force formed?

A

a) ** 46% shares

** UPI facilitates 13 billion transactions monthly, serving about 350 million individuals and 50 million merchants.

b) India during COVID-19 transferred $4.5 billion into the bank accounts of 160 million beneficiaries.

c) India facilitated the distribution of 2.5 million vaccinations in two years with digital vaccine certificates on mobiles.

d) Around 1.3 billion Indians possess the Aadhar ID system and on average 10 million eKYC per day is being facilitated through Aadhar?

e) 41 billion USD

f) It was established in 2023 to oversee and facilitate achieving India’s G20 Presidency agenda and priorities on Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI) and Financial Inclusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly