April to June Flashcards

Question

India and Myanmar’s rupee kyat settlement mechanism has been operationalised from 25th January 2024 to simplify trade transactions and to make them more efficient. The Rupee/Kyat direct payment system will be utilized using a Special Rupee Vostro Account of which bank?

Answer 1

Punjab National Bank

Answer 2

295 million workers

Answer 3

A) 125, which also represents a 31% increase compared to the 95 APAs signed during the preceding financial year. B) - 125 APAs include 86 Unilateral APAs and 39 Bilateral APAs - During FY 2023-24, CBDT also signed the maximum number of BAPAs in any financial year to date. The BAPAs were signed as a consequence of entering into Mutual Agreements with India’s treaty partners namely Australia, Canada, Denmark, Japan, Singapore, the UK and the US C) Since the inception of the APA Programme, a total of 641 APAs have been signed, comprising 506 UAPAs and 135 BAPAs. D) - The term of APA can be a maximum of 5 years. Further, the taxpayer has the option to rollback the APA for four preceding years, as a result of which, tax certainty is provided for nine years. - There is no minimum period, However looking into the time, money and efforts that are expected to be spent before entering into APA, it is likely that the application for APA would normally be for a term which is not less than at least 3 years E) - Advance Pricing Agreement (APA) provisions were introduced in the Income-tax Act, 1961 (Act) w.e.f. 2012. It is an agreement between a taxpayer and one or more tax authorities (CBDT for India) regarding the transfer pricing methodology/Arm Length Price applied to transactions between related entities. - Transfer pricing/Arm-length price refers to the pricing of goods, services, and intellectual property transferred between related entities within multinational corporations. - The primary objective of APAs is to provide certainty and clarity to taxpayers regarding their transfer pricing practices, thereby reducing the risk of disputes and double taxation for multinational corporations engaged in cross-border transactions. APAs minimize ambiguity and reduce the likelihood of misunderstanding between taxpayers and tax authorities by establishing agreed-upon transfer pricing methodologies. - APAs help mitigate the risk of double taxation by providing assurance to tax authorities that transfer pricing practices comply with the arm's length principle. Thus, tax authorities are less likely to impose adjustments that could lead to double taxation of the same income in multiple jurisdictions. There are 3 types of APAs Unilateral APA- Involves an agreement between the taxpayer and the tax authority of a single jurisdiction. Bilateral APA- Involves agreements between the taxpayer, the tax authority of the taxpayer's country, and the tax authority of another country where related entities are located. This ensures consistency and mutual agreement on transfer pricing practices across jurisdictions. Multilateral APA- Involves agreements between the taxpayer, the tax authorities of multiple countries, and possibly other relevant parties. This is used when transactions involve entities in more than two jurisdictions.

Answer 4

** 0.53% ** The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is released by the DPIIT, Ministry of Commerce & Industry. Its components are - Primary Articles (22.62%) - Fuel & Power (13.15%) - Manufactured Products (64.23%) Its base year is 2011-12 with a base value of 100

Answer 5

It was organised in Bengaluru by the DRDO

Answer 6

The Submersible Platform for Acoustic Characterisation and Evaluation (SPACE) was inaugurated at the Underwater Acoustic Research Facility, Kulamavu in Idukki, Kerala. It will consist of two distinct assemblages: - A platform which floats on the water's surface - A submersible platform which can be lowered to any depth upto 100 m using winch systems.

Answer 7

** Abu Dhabi, UAE ** GIFT City, Gandhinagar. This will facilitate natural hedging and significantly reduce the financing costs for Green Hydrogen and Renewable Energy Manufacturing projects.

Answer 8

* - Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita 2023, Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023 and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 given their being brought into effect from 1st July 2024. - These new laws replaced the earlier criminal laws namely, the Indian Penal Code 1860, the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. ** - The BNSS stipulates that criminal trials must be completed in three years, and judgments must be pronounced within 45 days of being reserved. - Section 530 of the BNSS allows all trials, inquiries, and proceedings may be conducted in electronic mode, which is in keeping with the needs of the present time.

Answer 9

** 10 GWh ** It was launched in 2021 by the Ministry of Heavy Industries with an outlay of ₹18100 crore. It aims to achieve the manufacturing capacity of Fifty (50) giga-watt hours (GWh) of the ACC. ** The beneficiary firm has to ensure achieving a domestic value addition of at least 25% and raise it to 60% within 5 Years while also making the mandatory investment of Rupee 225 crore /GWh for committed capacity within 2 Years.

Answer 10

A) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) B) From 918.19 million at the end of Sep-23 to 936.16 million at the end of Dec23, registering a quarterly growth rate of 1.96% C) Urban Internet Subscribers: 548.12 million, Rural Internet Subscribers: 388.05 million D) It increased from 1,181.13 million at the end of Sep-23 to 1,190.33 million at the end of Dec 23, registering a rate of growth of 0.78% over the previous quarter. E) Private Operators: 91.36%, PSU Operators: 8.64%

Answer 11

It was signed with Cambodia for the next 5 years

Answer 12

Location: Rotterdam, Netherlands. Theme: ‘Redesigning Energy for People and Planet’

Answer 13

** – minimum net worth of ₹1000 crore - Gross NPA of 3% or less and Net NPA of 1% or less in the past 2 financial years - SFBs must have reported a net profit in the past 2 financial years and must have met the prescribed capital adequacy norms - Should have a scheduled status with a satisfactory track record of performance for a minimum period of five years - meeting the prescribed CRAR requirements for SFBs - shares of the bank should have been listed on a recognised stock exchange ** 1. There is no mandatory requirement for an eligible SFB to have an identified promoter. However, the existing promoters of the eligible SFB, if any, shall continue as the promoters on transition to Universal Bank. 2. Addition of new promoters or change in promoters shall not be permitted for an eligible SFB while transitioning to Universal Bank. 3. There shall be no new mandatory lock-in requirement of minimum shareholding for existing promoters in the transitioned Universal Bank. 4. There shall be no change to the promoter shareholding dilution plan already approved by the Reserve Bank. 5. The eligible SFBs having diversified loan portfolio will be preferred. -

Answer 14

** “Investing Today for a more resilient tomorrow” **- Established: 2019 during the United Nations Climate Action Summit in New York. - Members: 39 countries and 7 organizations. The 7 organizations are: - Asian Development Bank - World Bank Group - UNDP - United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR) - The Private Sector Alliance for Disaster Resilient Societies - European Union - European Investment Bank - Secretariat: New Delhi, India.

Answer 15

** Astana, Kazakhstan ** - It was Established in 2001, The SCO charter was signed in 2002 and entered into force in 2023. - Headquarter: Beijing, China - SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation. It’s a Eurasian political, economic and military organisation aiming to maintain peace, security and stability in the region. The SCO's official languages are Russian and Chinese. It has 8-members (India and Pakistan joined this group in 2017)

Answer 16

Council of Scientific and Industrial Research - National Geophysical Research Institute (CSIR-NGRI)

Answer 17

** “Institutionalization of SMART Government for Improving Service Delivery,” ** ₹128 crore About Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) - It is an online platform available to the citizens 24x7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any subject related to service delivery. - It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of Government of India and States. - It was launched by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DAPRG). - Every Ministry and States have role-based access to this system. - CPGRAMS is also accessible to the citizens through a standalone mobile application downloadable through the Google Play store and a mobile application integrated with UMANG.

Answer 18

It was inaugurated by the SJVN at the Nathpa Jhakri Hydro Power Station in Jhakri, Himachal Pradesh. It has a production capacity of 1500Mw.

Answer 19

** 60.536 billion Japanese Yen ** Italian Export Credit Agency, SACE. It is the first Yen-denominated loan transaction in India and the first Green Loan Transaction in India, for SACE.

Answer 20

FY 2003-04: USD billion 63.84 FY 2013-14: USD billion 314.40 FY 2023-24: USD billion 437

Answer 21

Ans- a) - The Chair of the board shall be an independent director and In the absence of the Chair of the board, the meetings of the board shall be chaired by an independent director. - At least half of the directors attending the meetings of the board shall be independent directors. b) The quorum for the board meetings shall be one-third of the total strength of the board or three directors, whichever is higher. c) - The ACB shall be constituted with only non-executive directors (NEDs) and at least two-thirds of the members attending the meeting of the ACB shall be independent directors. The meetings of the ACB shall be chaired by an independent director who shall not chair any other committee of the Board. - The Chair of the Board shall not be a member of the ACB. - The ACB shall meet at least once a quarter with a quorum of three members. - The Chair of the ACB shall not be a member of any committee of the board which has a mandate of sanctioning credit exposures. D) - The board shall constitute an RMCB with a majority of NEDs (Non-Executive Directors). - The RMCB shall meet with a quorum of three members. - At least half of the members attending the meeting of the RMCB shall be independent directors of which at least one member shall have professional expertise/ qualification in risk management. - Meetings of RMCB shall be chaired by an independent director who shall not be a Chair of the board or any other committee of the board. - The Chair of the board may be a member of the RMCB only if he/she has the requisite risk management expertise. - The RMCB shall meet at least once in each quarter. E) - The board shall constitute an NRC made up of only NEDs. - The NRC shall meet with a quorum of three members. - At least half of the members attending the meeting of the NRC shall be independent directors, of which one shall be a member of the RMCB (Risk Management Committee of the Board). - The meetings of the NRC shall be chaired by an independent director. - The Chair of the Board shall not chair the NRC. F) Age Limit- 75 years Tenure- 8 years. After completing eight years on the board of a bank the person may be considered for re-appointment only after a minimum gap of three years. G) Up to ₹30 lakh per annum will be provided to NEDs as their sitting fees and expenses H) 15 years. The individual will be eligible for reappointment for a minimum gap of 3 years. MD&CEO or WTD who is also a promoter/ major shareholder, cannot hold these posts for more than 12 years. However, in extraordinary circumstances, at the sole discretion of the Reserve Bank such MD&CEO or WTDs may be allowed to continue up to 15 years I) The overall age limit is 70 years and Within the overall limit of 70 years, as part of their internal policy, individual bank Boards are free to prescribe a lower retirement age for the WTDs, including the MD&CEO.

Answer 22

a) - Banks should, at all times, have at least two professional directors on the board - They should have suitable banking experience (at the middle/senior management level) or relevant professional qualifications in the fields of law, accountancy or finance. b) less than ₹100 crore c)- UCBs having asset size of ₹5000 crore or above (as of March 31 of the previous year) are advised to set up a Risk Management Committee (of the Board). - The Board shall decide the membership, scope of work and frequency of meetings of the Risk Management Committee. d) - Those contesting for directorship in urban banks should have been members for a minimum period of two years. - Similarly, members contesting for election to the Board should have had a minimum deposit of any type of Rs. 500 in the urban bank concerned for a minimum period of two years continuously. e) members of a primary (urban) cooperative bank should be permitted to participate in the election of its Board of Management only after being members for a minimum period of 12 months from the date of enrollment. f) The number of such representatives should not exceed one-third of the total number of directors or three, whichever is less.

Answer 23

Indian Air Force (IAF). Authorized IAF departments and divisions will now be able to seamlessly upload digital records, certificates, and vital documents to the national DigiLocker repository, ensuring secure storage and easy accessibility.

Answer 24

- The “Bhavishya” platform was launched by the Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare and made mandatory for all central government departments w.e.f from 1, Jan 2017 - The Department of Pension & Pensioners’ Welfare was awarded the 3rd Rank for BHAVISHYA as per the NeSDA Assessment 2021 among all the Central Government e-Governance Service Delivery Portals. - The task of integrating of Pension Portal of SBI, Bank of Baroda, Punjab National Bank and Canara Bank with the Bhavishya portal has been completed. - At present, it is being successfully implemented in 98 Ministries/ Departments including 870 Attached Offices and 8,174 DDOs on board

Answer 25

** Organizer: - Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MoPSW), Government of India - Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) - Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) It was organised in Kochi, Kerala ** Varanasi

Answer 26

- Shakti Sustainable Energy Foundation - Council on Energy, Environment and Water (CEEW) - TERI - Indian Institute of Sustainable Development (IISD)

Answer 27

NHPC collaborated with the Norweigan company “M/S Ocean Sun”

Answer 28

- It was developed by the Indian Cybercrime Coordination Centre (I4C), Ministry of Home Affairs as a part of the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP). - It has been developed for quick reporting of financial cyber frauds and monetary losses suffered due to the use of digital banking/credit/debit cards, payment intermediaries, UPI etc. - It has created a common integrated platform where all concerned stakeholders i.e., Law Enforcement Agencies, banks, RBI, financial intermediaries, payment wallets, NPCI, etc., work in tandem. - Complaints can be reported through helpline number 1930 or on the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal.

Answer 29

Admiral Dinesh K Tripathi

Answer 30

A) 1) Shortages of notes in soiled note remittances and shortages of notes and coins in currency chest balances: - For notes in denomination up to ₹50: ₹50/- per piece in addition to the loss. - For notes in denomination of ₹100 & above: Equal to the value of the denomination per piece in addition to the loss. - For coins in all denominations: Equal to the value of the denomination per piece in addition to the loss. The recovery of loss and imposition of penalty shall be done immediately on detection of shortage, irrespective of the number of pieces. 2) Counterfeit notes detected in soiled note remittances and currency chest balances: - Penalty at 100% of the notional value of Counterfeit Notes, in addition to the recovery of loss to the extent of the notional value of such notes, will be imposed 3) Mutilated notes (including deliberately cut notes and built-up notes) detected in soiled note remittances and currency chest balances: ₹50/- per piece irrespective of the denomination in addition to the loss. The recovery of loss and imposition of penalty shall be done immediately on detection, irrespective of the number of pieces. B) - Penalty of ₹5,000/- for each instance of irregularity. - Penalty shall be enhanced to ₹10,000/- in case of repetition/recurrence of irregularity in consecutive inspection cycles or earlier Penalties in this domain pertain to: 1) Non-functioning of CCTV, non-compliance with rules/guidelines pertaining to CCTV, recording preservation period and related issues 2) Branch cash/documents kept in the strong room (CC’s vault) 3) Non-utilisation of Note Sorting Machines (NSMs) for sorting of notes (NSMs not used for sorting of high denomination notes, i.e. notes of denomination ₹100 and above, received over the counter or not used for sorting notes remitted to chest / RBI) 4) Non-conduct of surprise verification of currency chest balances - at (i) bimonthly intervals by officials unconnected with the operations of currency chest, and (ii) six-monthly intervals by officials from the Controlling Office Penalty C) - ₹10,000/- for any violation of the agreement or deficiency of service. - ₹5 lakh in case there are more than 5 instances of violation of agreement/deficiency in service by the currency chest/branch in consecutive inspection cycles or earlier. The levy of such penalty shall be placed in the public domain. Penalties in this domain pertain to: 1) Non-issue of coins over the counter to any member of the public despite having stock. 2) Refusal by any bank branch to exchange soiled notes/refusal by any currency chest branch to adjudicate mutilated notes tendered by any member of the public. 3) Denial of facilities/services to linked branches / linked CCs of other banks. 4) Non-acceptance of lower denomination notes (i.e. denomination of ₹50 and below) tendered by members of the public and linked bank branches for exchange/deposit. 5) Detection by RBI of mutilated, built-up, counterfeit notes in reissuable packets prepared by the currency chest branches. D) ₹10000 per ATM

Answer 31

A) - Capital Cost reimbursement of 50% of capital expenditure (inclusive of all taxes) subject to a ceiling of ₹50 lakh per CC. In the North Eastern region, up to 100% of capital expenditure is eligible for reimbursement subject to the ceiling of ₹50 lakh (inclusive of all taxes). - Revenue cost Reimbursement of 50% of revenue expenditure (inclusive of all taxes) for the first 3 years. In the North Eastern region, 50% of revenue expenditure (inclusive of all taxes) is eligible for reimbursement for the first 5 years. B) - Exchange of soiled notes – ₹2/- per packet for exchange of soiled notes in denominations up to ₹50/- and below. - Adjudication of mutilated notes – ₹2/- per piece. C) - ₹65/- per bag for distribution of coins. - An additional incentive of ₹10/- per bag shall be paid for coin distribution in rural and semi-urban areas on the submission of a Concurrent Auditor (CA) certificate to this effect D) Service charge to be levied by the CC on the non-chest branches - Large modern CCs – ₹8/- per 100 pieces. - Other CCs – ₹5/- per 100 pieces. E) - Chest Balance Limit of at least ₹10 billion - Area of the strong room/ vault of at least 1500 sq ft and the Area of the strong room/vault should be at least 600 sq ft for those situated in hilly/inaccessible places states. - Processing capacity of 6,60,000 pieces of banknotes per day. For those situated in the hilly/ inaccessible places, capacity of 2,10,000 pieces of banknotes per day. - Amenability to the adoption of automation and adaptability to implement IT solutions.

Answer 32

** ₹1 lakh and thereafter, in the multiples of ₹50000 ** Penalty- ₹50000 Penal interest- 2% over the prevailing bank rate ** The currency chests shall invariably report all transactions through the CyM-CC portal on the same day by 7 pm

Answer 33

A) Prabhakar Rao Committee B) Pension-paying banks should compensate the pensioner for delay in crediting pension/ arrears thereof at a fixed interest rate of 8% per annum for the delay after the due date of payment and the compensation shall be credited to the pensioner's account automatically without any claim from the pensioner on the same day

Answer 34

A) Section 45 of the RBI Act, 1934 B) Receipts- Physical Mode: ₹40 per transaction Receipts- e-Mode: ₹9 per transaction Pension payments: ₹75 per transaction Payments other than Pension: 6.5 paise per ₹100 turnover - The number of transactions eligible for payment of agency commission should not exceed 14 per pensioner per year. - Agency banks are advised to furnish their claim on agency commission to the Reserve Bank within 60 calendar days from the end of the quarter in which the transactions have been conducted - Agency banks will be liable to pay penal interest at the Bank Rate as notified by the Reserve Bank of India plus 2% for any wrong claims of agency commission settled

Answer 35

Against the price risk of Gold.

Answer 36

- Validity period of at least 3 working days for loans having a tenor of 7 days or more - Validity period of 1 working day for loans having a tenor of less than 7 days The validity period refers to the period available to the borrower, after being provided the KFS by the RE, to agree to the terms of the loan.

Answer 37

** - Banks provide finance up to ₹15,000/- at a concessional rate of interest of 4% per annum to the weaker sections of the community for engaging in productive and gainful activities. - Banks are advised to grant at least 2/5th of the total advances under the DRI scheme to SC/STs - Members of SCs/STs satisfying the income criteria of the scheme can also avail of housing loans up to ₹20,000/- per beneficiary over and above the individual loan of ₹15,000/- available under the scheme. ** The size of land holding should not exceed 1 acre of irrigated land and 2.5 acres of unirrigated land, these do not apply to SCs/STs The Differential Rate of Interest (DRI) scheme is a social banking initiative aimed at providing financial assistance to the economically weaker sections of society at a concessional rate of interest. Launched in 1972, the scheme's primary objective is to ensure access to credit for marginalized individuals who might otherwise be excluded from the formal financial system. The scheme primarily focuses on economically disadvantaged groups, including Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes (ST), and other backward classes (OBC)

Answer 38

A) – Loans up to ₹10 lakh to individual SHG members. Eligibility: SHGs which are more than 2 years old and have accessed 1 dose of a bank loan with timely repayment. - One woman in every SHG under DAY-NRLM may be provided a loan up to ₹1 lakh under the MUDRA Scheme if she is otherwise eligible. - minimum Overdraft Facility of ₹5000 to every woman SHG member having a PMJDY account in accordance with the guidelines issued by the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) B) For loans outstanding up to ₹5 lakh, for a maximum period of 5 years. In case of a loan amount exceeding ₹5 lakh, reimbursement of credit guarantee fees will be done in proportion to the loan amount. c) - Women entrepreneurs making prompt repayment of credit to financial institutions will be provided 2% interest subvention up to ₹1.5 lakh for a maximum duration of 3 years. - All banks extending credit for enterprises fully or partially owned by women Self Help Group members under DAY-NRLM at an interest rate equivalent to (1-year MCLR + max 3% spread) or a maximum of 14% per annum will be eligible to claim interest subvention under this scheme d) Indian Bank

Answer 39

** The Gross Goods and Services Tax (GST) collections hit a record high in April 2024 at ₹2.10 lakh crore. This represents a significant 12.4% year-on-year growth, driven by a strong increase in domestic transactions (up 13.4%) and imports (up 8.3%). ** After accounting for refunds, the net GST revenue for April 2024 stands at ₹1.92 lakh crore, reflecting an impressive 15.5% growth compared to the same period last year.

Answer 40

- The Permanent Mission of India to the United Nations and the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA), is organizing the side event during the 57th Session of the Commission on Population and Development (CPD57) - It aimed to shed light on the key role of Indian women in grassroots political leadership, emphasizing their significant contributions to sustainable development at the grassroots level.

Answer 41

** InTRanSE program. The ITS technology includes innovations in Traffic control, Public Transit, Road Safety, and Sensors for traffic applications, aimed at enhancing the efficiency and safety of transportation systems across the country, ** M/S Aditya Infotech

Answer 42

** Increase by 4.9% to USD 341 billion. However, net services exports grew at a robust pace of 13.6% to USD 162.8 billion ** Decreased by 2% to USD 178.3 billion USD

Answer 43

Australia. The JCM also adopted the Rules of Procedure for the Joint Committee and established an institutional mechanism, the first of its kind for FTAs, for the regular exchange of preferential import data on a monthly basis.

Answer 44

** - Secretary, Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Shri K. Sanjay Murthy virtually launched the program. - It is designed to equip identified Higher Education Institutions (HEIs) and faculty members to focus on Design and Entrepreneurship development in their institution with the support of mentors from industry. ** - IIITDM, Kancheepuram, a Malaviya Mission Teacher Training Center (MMTTC) in Tamil Nadu will be the nodal centre for the program - At this stage, 30 HEIs have been selected through a process anchored by the IIITDM, Kancheepuram.

Answer 45

“Cool Summers of India” campaign This digital campaign challenges the notion of India being too hot for summer travel, emphasizing its offerings in hill resorts, including the Himalayas. The campaign seeks to promote India as a holistic destination throughout the year.

Answer 46

- “Sanjay Kumar Mishra”, former chief justice of the Jharkhand High Court - GSTAT: The GSTAT is the Appellate Authority established under the Central Goods and Services Tax Act, 2017. It was established to hear various appeals under the said Act and the respective State/Union Territories GST Acts against the orders of the first appellate authority. Benefits: To ensure swift, fair, judicious and effective resolution to GST disputes, besides significantly reducing the burden on higher courts. It will enhance the effectiveness of the GST system in India and foster a more transparent and efficient tax environment in the country. Principal bench: New Delhi State Benches: 31 state benches at various locations across the country.

Answer 47

India and Ghana agreed to operationalise UPI on Ghana Interbank Payment and Settlement Systems (GHIPSS) in six months.

Answer 48

With 21 countries. These agreements aim to guarantee the uninterrupted social security coverage of employees during international employment

Answer 49

Jindal Steel & Power (JSP)

Answer 50

** increased by 40% from 408 mt in 2019 to 612 mt in March end 2024 ** From 7.37% to 8.15% **USD 641 billion

Answer 51

from 10 million USD to 100 million USD

Answer 52

a) Total UCBs- 1502 Total Branches- 10117 Total Deposits- ₹5.3 trillion Total Advances- ₹3.3 trillion b) Maharashtra has the highest number of UCBs with a total of 475 c) increased by more than 25% from ₹1.73 trillion in FY2022 to ₹2.2 trillion in FY2023 d) - The target is 65% for FY2024-25 and 75% for FY2025-26. However, UCBs had already achieved 66.88% in FY23.

Answer 53

** - Non-banks providing Physical-PA services as of the date of this circular, shall have a minimum net worth of ₹15 crores at the time of submitting the application to the RBI for authorisation and a minimum net worth of ₹25 crores by March 31, 2028. The net worth of ₹25 crore shall be maintained at all times thereafter. - New non-bank Physical-PA (i.e. entities which have not commenced operations before the date of this circular) shall have a minimum net worth of ₹15 crores at the time of submitting the application to the RBI for authorisation and shall attain a minimum net worth of ₹25 crores by end of the third financial year of grant of authorisation ** “Entities which onboard merchants and facilitate aggregation of payments made by customers to such merchants, for purchase of goods and services, using one or more payment channels, in online or physical Point of Sale payment modes through a merchant’s interface (physical or virtual), and subsequently settle the collected funds to such merchants.” Simple Definition: Payment Aggregators (PAs) are third-party platforms that facilitate transactions between merchants and customers by providing a unified interface to process payments through various mechanisms such as card payments, UPI, Bank transfer and digital wallets in a physical Point-of-Sale (PoS) or online in an e-commerce platform. a. Online PAs (PA – O): PAs which facilitate e-commerce transactions in non-delivery versus Payment mode. b. PA – physical Point-of-Sale (PA – P): PAs which facilitate face-to-face/proximity payment for Delivery vs Payment transactions. ** Merchant: Entities which sell/provide goods and services purchased by the customer. They include a marketplace also. a. Small merchants: Physical merchants (those undertaking only proximity/face-to-face transactions) with business turnover less than the threshold limit of Rs. 5 lacks per annum and not registered under Goods and Services Tax. b. Medium merchants: Merchants (physical / online), excluding small merchants, with business turnover less than the threshold limit of Rs. 40 lahks per annum or from ₹5 lakhs to less than ₹40 lakh per annum. Such merchants are not registered under Goods and Services Tax.

Answer 54

G-Sec- 6% of the total outstanding securities in 2024-25 State Government Securities- 2% of the total outstanding securities in 2024-25 Corporate Bonds- 15% of the total outstanding securities in 2024-25 Credit Default Swap- 5% of the outstanding securities in corporate bonds.

Answer 55

** The three pillars are: a) Prepare and Protect b) Build Resilience c) Learn and Adapt These three pillars include 17 indicators ** 1st line of defence- Business Unit Management 2nd Line of defence- Organisational Operational Risk Management function including compliance function 3rd Line of defence- Audit function A RE should set at least one impact tolerance metric for each of its critical operations. At a minimum, there should be a (a) time-based metric (e.g., maximum acceptable duration a critical operation can withstand a disruption), (b) quantity-based metric (e.g., maximum extent of data loss that an RE would accept as a result of disruption) and (c) service level metric (e.g., minimum level of service that an RE would maintain while operating under alternative arrangements.)

Answer 56

a) Standards related to the Green Hydrogen value chain are broadly split into four categories: - Production - Storage and transportation - End-use applications - General safety. Across these categories, 87 standards are already adopted or developed in India, and 59 are under development. Further, there are 52 standards that exist globally, which could be considered for adoption in India. For the three components, there are no Indian or international standards available for reference. b) 73 approvals are required for Green Hydrogen projects: - State Government entities hold jurisdiction for 43. - Central Government entities hold jurisdiction for 23 approvals. - Seven approvals fall under local government bodies c) India’s Progress in RE: - 4th globally for total Renewable Power capacity additions. - 4th in Wind Power Capacity and - 5th in Solar Power Capacity globally. - India assumed the presidency of the 13th Assembly of the International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA) d) - India saw the highest year-on-year growth in Renewable Energy additions of 9.83% in 2022. - The installed Renewable Energy capacity (including large hydro) has increased by around 128% since 2014. Solar: - The installed solar energy capacity has increased by more than 30 times in the last 9 years and stands at 88 GW as of 31 March 2024. - India’s solar energy potential is estimated to be 748 GWp as estimated by the National Institute of Solar Energy (NISE). Wind: - The potential now assessed for onshore projects is 1,163 GW. However, the potential sites having a high-capacity Utilization Factor (CUF) of 36% and above (which is necessary for the financial viability of the project) is 163 GW. - India has already utilized sites with a total capacity of 42 GW and now a balance of 120 GW would be available for new development

Answer 57

It was incorporated at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) located in GIFT City, Gujarat. It was named "IREDA Global Green Energy Finance IFSC Limited”

Answer 58

Growth slowed to 4.9% and stand at 159.2

Answer 59

* ** - Under the initiative, rural women are trained to become drone pilots for agricultural purposes. * - The initiative aims to enhance economic empowerment and financial autonomy among women, especially in rural areas. * - The initiative aims to equip 15,000 women-led Self-Help Groups (SHGs) with agricultural drones to assist in tasks such as crop monitoring, spraying fertilisers and sowing seeds. This will also provide additional income opportunities for many women.

Answer 60

It stood at ₹ 86,000 crore, over 25 times higher than the extraordinarily difficult previous fiscal year

Answer 61

** 19th session ** 3rd

Answer 62

* 4.83% (Provisional) **Annual CPI Inflation rate for the month of April in : Rural India: 5.43% Urban India: 4.11% ** 2012 is the base year for CPI Inflation About CPI (Combined): - Base Year: 2012 - Released by: NSO, Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. - All-India General Group for CPI (Combined): 1) Food and Beverages (45.86% weightage) 2) Miscellaneous (28.32% weightage) 3) Housing (10.07% weightage) 4) Fuel and Light (6.84% weightage) 5) Clothing and Footwear (6.53% weightage) 6) Pan, Tobacco and intoxicants (2.38% weightage)

Answer 63

- India and Iran are set to sign the long-term agreement for the operation and management of Chabahar Port. - The contract was signed between India Port Global Limited (IPGL) and the Ports and Maritime Organization (PMO) of Iran. India currently operates the Chabahar Port on a short-term agreement (Periodically renewed). - The Chabahar Port is a vital link connecting Mumbai to Eurasia via different corridors of the “International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC)”. INSTC route takes 15 days less than the Suez Canal route for shipments to be transported. CHABAHAR PORT Chabahar Port- Chabahar is a deep-water port, located on the Makran Coast of Iran’s Sistan-Baluchistan province. It is next to the Gulf of Oman and at the mouth of the Strait of Hormuz. It is the only Iranian port with direct access to the Indian Ocean and consists of two separate ports named Shahid Kalantari and Shahid Beheshti.

Answer 64

** - It was introduced claiming advances in Health, Marriage and Housing, earlier the auto-mode claim was available for only advances for illness - The limit for loan claims is increased from ₹50000 to ₹1 lakh - Claims are settled within 3-4 days instead of the usual 10 days. ** Auto mode of claim settlement was introduced in April 2020

Answer 65

- Ramcharitmanas authored by Goswami Tulsidas. - Panchatantra authored by Pt. Vishnu Sharma. - Sahrdayaloka-Locana authored by Acharya Anandvardhan.

Answer 66

Rotterdam, Netherlands

Answer 67

It is 1.26% and the index is 153 for the month of April 2024 About WPI - Base Year: 2011-12 - Released by: Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) - Components: 1. Manufactured Products (64.23%) 2. Primary Articles (22.62%) 3. Fuel and Power (13.15%)

Answer 68

Power Finance Corporation (PFC)

Answer 69

A) Banks: All commercial banks with a deposit size of ₹50 Crore and above, as on the date of the audited balance sheet of the previous financial year NBFCs: All Non-Banking Financial Companies (excluding Housing Finance Companies) which (a) are authorized to accept deposits; or (b) have customer interface, with an assets size of ₹100 crore and above as of the date of the audited balance sheet of the previous financial year are eligible under the scheme Note: Core Investment Companies, Infrastructure Debt Fund-Non-banking Financial Companies, Non-Banking Financial Companies-Infrastructure Finance Companies, companies in resolution or winding up / liquidation, or any other NBFC specified by RBI are excluded from the ambit of the RB-IOS, 2021. B) The appointment of the Ombudsman or the Deputy Ombudsman shall be made for a period not exceeding 3 years at a time. - An RBI Ombudsman is a senior official of RBI appointed by RBI to redress the complaints from customers of the REs against “deficiency in service” - “Deficiency in service” means a shortcoming or an inadequacy in any financial service or such other services related thereto, which the RE is required to provide statutorily or otherwise, which may or may not result in financial loss or damage to the customer. - A Deputy Ombudsman is a senior officer appointed by RBI to assist the RBI Ombudsman C) - Compensation up to ₹20 lakh will be provided to the complainant for the consequential losses (Secondary losses) Consequential loss refers to secondary damages that occur as a result of the primary issue or dispute. For example, if the primary dispute is about a financial transaction, consequential losses could include lost business opportunities or additional financial burdens that resulted from the original problem. - An additional compensation of up to ₹1 lakh will be provided to the complainant for the loss of the complainant’s time, expenses incurred and for harassment/mental anguish suffered by the complainant - There is no limit on the amount involved in the dispute that can be addressed by the ombudsman

Answer 70

** - ₹2.11 trillion. The dividend transfer is well above the budgeted figure of ₹1.02 trillion in the Interim Budget for 2024-25 (FY25), which includes dividends from both the RBI and financial institutions. - According to economists, the larger surplus was due to higher income in FY24, both from domestic and foreign assets, which increased its profit - The higher-than-budgeted RBI surplus transfer would help to boost the Government of India's resource envelope in FY25, allowing for enhanced expenditures or a sharper fiscal consolidation ** 6.5% of its balance sheet

Answer 71

** - The RBI’s Retail Direct Scheme was launched in Nov 2021 to enable individual investors to invest in various government securities such as T-Bills, Dated-G-Sec, State Development loans (SDL) and Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) schemes. It requires investors to open a Retail Direct Gilt (RDG) account with the RBI, enabling them access to the RBI’s NDS-OM retail portal which facilitates the trading of government securities. - An individual can open only one RDG account. The RDG account can be opened singly or jointly with another retail investor who meets the eligibility criteria. - The Gilt account is opened by an investor with a bank or a Primary Dealer (PD). Banks and Primary Dealers further open a Constituents' Subsidiary General Ledger (CSGL) account with the RBI. Thus banks and PDs act as custodians of investors or Gilt Account Holders and maintain holdings of their constituents in a CSGL account with the RBI ** Treasury Bills: Minimum- ₹10000, Maximum -5% of the aggregate nominal amount of the issue within the notified amount as specified by the Government of India, or any other percentage determined by RBI Government of India Dated Securities (G-Sec): Minimum- ₹10000 Maximum- ₹2 crore (face value) per security per auction State Development Loans (SDL): Minimum- ₹10000 Maximum- 1% of the notified amount (face value) per auction Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs): Minimum- 1 gram of gold Maximum- 4 grams of gold per fiscal year

Answer 72

** The Maharatna scheme was introduced in May 2010, The following are the eligibility criteria: i) Having Navratna status. (ii) Listed on the Indian stock exchange with a minimum prescribed public shareholding of 25% as prescribed under SEBI regulations. (iii) Average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crore, during the last 3 years. (iv) Average annual net worth of more than Rs. 15,000 crore, during the last 3 years. (v) Average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crore, during the last 3 years. (vi) Should have significant global presence/international operations. ** - Navratna scheme was launched in 1997. The government grants Navratna status to CPSEs that have obtained an “excellent” or “very good” memorandum of understanding (MoU) rating in three of the past five years. They --- - They should also have a composite score of 60 or above in six selected performance indicators which are: (i) net profit to net worth, (ii) manpower cost to total cost of production/services, (iii) profit before depreciation, interest and taxes to capital employed, (iv) profit before interest and taxes to turnover, (v) earning per share and (vi) inter-sectoral performance. ** The Miniratna scheme was launched in 1997. Miniratnas are divided into two categories. - Category I Miniratna status is considered for those CPSEs that have made a profit in the past three years continuously, with a pre-tax profit of ₹30 crore or more in at least one of the three years, and have a positive net worth. - Category II Miniratnas are those CPSEs that have made a profit for the past three years continuously and have a positive net worth. - Miniratna CPSEs should not have defaulted in the repayment of loans or interest payment on any loan due to the government, and they should not depend upon budgetary support or government guarantees - Maharatna- 13 Navratna- 20 Miniratna Category 1- 54, Miniratna Category 2- 11

Answer 73

** “All We Imagine as Light”, directed by Payal Kapadia won the “Grand Prix”, the second most prestigious award after “Palme d’Or” which was won by the American director Sean Baker for Anora. ** Anasuya Sen Gupta won the award for her performance in the “Shameless” ** “Sunflowers Were the First One to Know”, a short film based on Kannada folklore, directed by Chidananda S Naik won the award for the best short film from India

Answer 74

- It was organised by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of Commerce & Industry in New Delhi. - The event symbolized the celebration and collaboration of two of DPIIT’s flagship initiatives – the Startup India initiative and Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC). The ONDC was launched in 2021 and was incorporated as a Section 8 company with the Quality Council of India and Protean eGov Technologies Limited as Founding Members. It aims to create an inclusive ecosystem for e-commerce. More than 5 lakh sellers have been onboarded on the platform, of which more than 70% are small or medium-sized sellers.

Answer 75

The award was given to NHPC in recognition of its preparedness in the areas of upskilling employees, Environmental, Social and Governance (ESG) interventions, Diversity, Equity & Inclusion (DE&I) initiatives, constant technological upgradations, Employee Engagement processes, robust Corporate Governance strategies etc.

Answer 76

- Doordarshan Kisan is going to become the first government TV channel to launch two AI anchors that is AI Krish and AI Bhoomi. - The AI anchors can speak in fifty languages of the country and abroad - These AI anchors will provide every necessary information about agricultural research happening at the country and global level, trends in agriculture mandis, changes in the weather or any other information about government schemes

Answer 77

** Babulal Hemrom, a cadet at Jharkhand State Sports Promotion Society (JSSPS) won two bronze medals in the categories of 49 kg Clean & Jerk and Snatch. ** Lima, Peru

Answer 78

** Government Securities (G-Sec) are financial instruments issued by the government to raise funds to finance its operations and projects. They are considered low-risk investment options and therefore are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments. In India, the Central government issues both treasury bills and bonds (Dated-G Sec) and State governments issue only bonds (State Development Loans). The G-Secs are held in a dematerialized format in a Bond Ledger Account (BLA) with the RBI or Agency banks. The investor receives a certificate of holding from the RBI or Agency banks, as proof for the purchase of government securities. ** A Bond is a type of financial instrument issued by companies, states, municipalities or a country directly to the investors to finance projects or manage operations. The Bond investors can be an individual, company or government. The investor receives regular interest payments from the bond issuer and the principal value of the bond is repaid to the investor at the maturity date.

Answer 79

Ways and Means Advances (WMA) is a temporary loan facility introduced in 1997. It is provided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to the government to enable it to meet temporary mismatches between revenue and expenditure. The RBI extends temporary advances both to the central and state governments, and the limits are decided by the RBI for each state and UT, along with the Central Government. There are two types of WMA: Normal WMA: Based on a three-year average of actual state revenue and capital expenditure. Special WMA (SDF): Provided against collateral of government securities held by the state. SDF interest rate is lower than the repo rate. WMA is not a source of finance but is meant to provide support, for purely temporary difficulties that arise on account of mismatch/shortfall in revenue or other receipts for meeting the government liabilities. Features: - The government can avail immediate cash from the RBI if needed. - The borrowed amount must be repaid within 90 days. - Interest is charged at the existing repo rate. - If the WMA exceeds 90 days, it is treated as an overdraft (with an interest rate higher than the repo rate). A State Government account can be in overdraft for a maximum of 14 consecutive working days with a limit of 36 days in a quarter. - The central Government is required to maintain a minimum cash balance with the Reserve Bank. Currently, this amount is Rs.10 crore on a daily basis and Rs.100 crore on Fridays, as well at the annual account closing day of the Centre and the Reserve Bank.

Answer 80

An Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) is a specialized financial institution that purchases bad debts or non-performing assets (NPAs) from banks and other financial institutions, often at a discounted price. The primary objective of ARCs is to help these institutions clean up their balance sheets by taking over distressed loans. ARCs enable banks to focus on their core banking activities by procuring their bad debts. - The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest (SARFAESI) Act, 2002 provides the legal framework for setting up ARCs in India. - There are 27 ARCs registered in India as of May 2024 - ARCs should have a minimum capital of ₹200 crore by March 2024 and ₹300 crore by March 2026..

Answer 81

** - In terms of Section 20 of the RBI Act 1934, RBI has the obligation to undertake the receipts and payments of the Central Government and to carry out the exchange, remittance and other banking operations, including the management of the public debt of the Union - As per Section 21 of the said Act, RBI has the right to transact Government business of the Union in India. State Government transactions are carried out by RBI in terms of the agreement entered into with the State Governments in terms of section 21 A of the Act. As of now, such agreements exist between RBI and all the State Governments except the Government of Sikkim. - Section 20 applies to both the Central and State Governments, whereas Section 21 specifically pertains to the Central Government. While both sections address the RBI's role in managing government transactions and public debt, Section 21 emphasizes the exclusive authority of the RBI to transact banking business for the Central Government. ** Section 45 of the RBI Act, 1934

Answer 82

** - FY2024 GDP growth (Real GDP) – increased by 8.2%. Real GDP or GDP at Constant Prices is estimated to attain a level of ₹173.82 lakh crore in the year 2023-24, against Rs.160.71 lakh crore in 2022-23. Whereas Nominal GDP has witnessed a growth rate of 9.6% in FY 2023-24 - Q4, FY2024 GDP growth (Real GDP)- increased by 7.8%, estimated at ₹47.24 lakh crore. Whereas, the nominal GDP in Q4, FY2024 is estimated to grow by 9.9% at ₹78.28 lakh crore ** - Aided by higher-than-expected tax receipts, India’s fiscal deficit in the FY2024 stood at 5.6% of the GDP at ₹16.54 lakh crore - Net tax receipts for FY2024 was ₹23.27 lakh crore

Answer 83

** - It is the first WIPO Treaty to include provisions specifically for Indigenous Peoples as well as local communities. - Now, it will be mandatory for patent applicants to disclose the country of origin or source of genetic resources if the claimed invention is based on those materials or associated traditional knowledge. , thereby also recognizing and protecting the rights of Indigenous Peoples and local communities over their genetic resources and traditional knowledge. ** Once 15 countries agree to the Treaty, it will become an official part of international law. At present, only 35 countries have some form of disclosure obligations, most of which are not mandatory and do not have appropriate sanctions or remedies. ** WIPO was established in 1967, It is the global forum for intellectual property (IP) services, policy, information and cooperation. It is a self-funding agency of the United Nations, with 193 member states. Genetic resources (GRs) are present in things like medicinal plants, agricultural crops, and animal breeds. While genetic resources themselves cannot be directly protected as intellectual property, inventions developed using them can, most often through a patent. Some genetic resources are also associated with traditional knowledge (ATK) through their use and conservation by indigenous peoples as well as local communities, often over generations. This knowledge is sometimes used in scientific research and, as such, may contribute to the development of a protected invention.

Answer 84

** 77TH session ** “All for Health, Health for All”, with the core values and the ethos of India, that is “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam” which means “the world is one family” ** 86%

Answer 85

National Aerospace Limited, Bengaluru

Answer 86

International Labour Organisation (ILO)

Answer 87

‘Sustainability Champion – Editor’s Choice Award’: Rec Ltd won the award “CSR Champion Award”- Power Finance Corporation (PFC) won the award

Answer 88

A.P. Hota, former managing director (MD) and chief executive officer (CEO), of the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)

Answer 89

** It received over 10 lakh calls, averaging 3500 calls per day ** 51 - The Tele-Manas programme was launched in 2022 by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare to provide free mental health services through telephone. - The National Institute of Mental Health and Neuro Sciences (NIMHANS), Bangalore will work as its nodal centre and the International Institute of Information Technology- Bangalore (IIITB) will provide the necessary technological support. - It will include 23 tele-mental health centres of excellence

Answer 90

- Kochi, Kerala. It was hosted in support support from the Antarctic Treaty Secretariat headquartered in Argentina. - Theme of the ATCM-46 was “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam”

Answer 91

They were increased by 25% from ₹20 lakh to ₹25 lakh on reaching the Dearness Allowance rates of 50%

Answer 92

It was given to the National Institute of Mental Health & Neuro Sciences (NIMHANS), Bengaluru

Answer 93

Rashtriya e-Pushtakalya

Answer 94

** - It was organised by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research-Indian Institute of Petroleum (CSIR-IIP) in Dehradun. - Organizer: - CSIR-IIP - Indian Society of Analytical Scientists (ISAS-Delhi Chapter) ** "Role of Science and Technology in Green Transitions"

Answer 95

** It is processed on the Public Finance Management System (PFMS) platform, launched in 2009 ** Section 75 of the Customs Act, 1962. The term “duty drawback” refers to a process in which exporters receive a refund or rebate of customs duties paid on imported raw materials or components used in the production of exported goods.

Answer 96

– Bank of India - Central Bank of India - Canara Bank - Utkarsh Small Finance Bank SPARSH stands for System for Pension Administration (RAKSHA). It is being implemented by the Defence Accounts Department (DAD) of the Ministry of Defence to meet the pension sanction and disbursement requirements for the Armed Forces. It provides a single window for pensioners to access various pension-related services, such as viewing pension details, entitlements, profile information, and Income Tax forms.

Answer 97

- The Centre for Development of Telematics (C-DOT) was given the award for the project “Mobile-Enabled Disaster Resilience through Cell Broadcast Emergency Alerting” - The World Summit on the Information Society (WSIS)+20 Forum 2024 was conducted by the ITU in Geneva, Switzerland

Answer 98

“Ek Ped Ma Ke Nam” campaign

Answer 99

- The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme is a government initiative launched in 2020 aimed at boosting domestic manufacturing, attracting investments in specific sectors and reducing import dependence. The PLI scheme aims to position India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing (ESDM). * - It provides financial incentives to companies based on their incremental sales or production over the base year. - It covers 14 sectors such as Mobile manufacturing, pharmaceuticals, medical devices, Steel, automobile etc.

Answer 100

The 17th instalment of around Rs.20,000 crore is being released under PM Kisan Nidhi which will benefit around 9.3 crore farmers.

Answer 101

- The Ayushman Bharat Health Account (ABHA) Scan and Share was Launched in October 2022 under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission. It enables patients to conveniently register for OPD appointments by scanning a QR code displayed at the OPD registration counter, thereby instantaneously sharing their ABHA profile for registration. - It is presently operational across over 5435 healthcare facilities spanning 546 districts in 35 States and Union Territories of India. - An average of 1.3 Lakh individuals avail of the scan and share service daily. - Leading states in the adoption of this services are Uttar Pradesh (92.7 lakh tokens), Andhra Pradesh (53.7 lakhs), Karnataka (39.9 lakhs), Jammu and Kashmir (37.1 lakhs) - Among all the token generations, approximately 75% are first-time users, while 25% use scan and share for subsequent visits. - NHA offers financial incentives through the ABDM's Digital Health Incentive Scheme (DHIS) for 'Scan and Share' transactions and the generation of electronic health records. ** The policy of the Digital Health Incentive Scheme DHIS of ABDM has been revised, and now all health facilities registered with the Health Facility Registry and Digital Solution Companies can earn an Incentive of up to ₹4 Crore.

Answer 102

7. ** 500 PACS ** The government has launched this pilot project in 11 Primary Agriculture Credit Societies (PACS) in 11 states. ** The World’s Largest Grain Storage Plan has a financial outlay of around Rs 1 lakh crore (approximately $14 billion). The scheme includes: * - Constructing a 2,000-tonne capacity godown in every block. Farmers will receive modern grain storage facilities at their blocks through PACS, allowing them to get fair prices for their grains. * * - Raising India’s food grain storage capacity by 700 lakh tonnes over the next 5 years * - Transitioning all functional PACS onto a unified ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) based national software for better integration and connectivity. The ERP software will ensure seamless integration and connectivity by linking PACS with NABARD through State Cooperative Banks and District Central Cooperative Banks. ** NABARD is also extending financial support to PACS by refinancing them at highly subsidized rates of around 1%, after incorporating the benefits of 3% interest subvention under the AIF scheme for projects up to Rs. 2 Crore ** - The Plan entails the creation of various agri infrastructure at PACS through the convergence of various existing schemes, such as the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure Scheme (AMI), Sub Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) Pradhan Mantri Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises Scheme (PMFME), etc. Under these schemes, PACS can avail subsidies and interest subvention benefits for the construction of godowns/storage facilities and the setting up of other agri infrastructure.

Answer 103

A) Singapore B) - the IPEF partners identified over US $23B of priority infrastructure projects including roughly US $6B of investment-ready projects that proponents presented to investors. - The coalition estimates that its members, taken together, have over USD 25 billion in capital that can be deployed in Indo-Pacific emerging market infrastructure investments in the coming years. C) The 3 agreements that were signed at the meeting were: IPEF Clean Economy agreement: It focuses on - Accelerating efforts towards energy security and transition, climate resilience, and GHG emissions mitigation. - Promoting the reduction of dependence on fossil fuels. - Encourages technical cooperation, workforce development, capacity building, and research collaborations. - Facilitates development, access, and deployment of clean energy and climate-friendly technologies IPEF Fair Economy agreement: - Aims to create a transparent and predictable business environment to spur trade and investment. - Promotes a level playing field for businesses and workers. - Enhances efforts to prevent and combat corruption by strengthening anti-corruption frameworks. - Supports tax transparency, domestic resource mobilization, and tax administration improvements. - Provides technical assistance through sharing expertise and best practices Overarching agreement on IPEF: It aims to establish high-standard commitments in four key pillars Connected Economy: Addresses select trade issues. Resilient Economy: Focuses on supply chains. 1. Clean Economy: Covers clean energy, decarbonization, and infrastructure. 2. 3. Fair Economy: Deals with tax and anti-corruption issues D) The IPEF Supply Chain Agreement was Signed in November 2023, in San Francisco. It Came into force in February 2024. It aims to build resilient supply chains across the Indo-Pacific region. There will be in-person meetings of the Supply Chain Council and Crisis Response Network in the United States before the end of 2024. The 6 IPEF partners are parties: - Fiji - India - Japan - Korea - Singapore - The United States Two additional partners are Thailand and Malaysia E) - It aims to support the expansion of the pipeline of quality clean economy infrastructure projects in the IPEF emerging and upper-middle income economies under the IPEF Clean Economy Agreement. - The fund’s Founding Supporters are Australia, Japan, The Republic of Korea and the USA - Initial Granting of US $33 million to catalyze up to US $3.3 billion in private investment. - The fund is administered by the Private Infrastructure Development Group (PIDG) F) - A new CWP led by India on “e-waste urban mining” was announced - The CWPs focus on areas such as hydrogen supply chains, carbon markets, clean electricity, sustainable aviation fuel, and just transition. These cooperative efforts contribute to the overarching goals of the IPEF Clean Economy Agreement G) – The agreement was signed between Sembcorp Green Hydrogen India Private Limited, Kyushu Electric and Sojitz. - The agreement aims to increase the production and export of 200 KTPA green ammonia capacity in Phase-I (total 800 KTPA in 4 phases) at Tuticorin Port in India and export to Japan About IPEF: It was Launched in 2022 at Tokya by the USA and other partner countries. It has 14 regional partners – Australia, Brunei, Fiji, India, Indonesia, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Malaysia, New Zealand, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, the United States, and Vietnam. - It aims to enhance resilience, sustainability, inclusiveness, economic growth, fairness, and competitiveness in the Indo-Pacific region. It is not a Free Trade Agreement but allows members to negotiate on various matters. - The 14 IPEF partners represent 40% of global GDP and 28% of global goods and services trade. - The four main Pillars are a) Supply Chain Resilience b Clean Energy, Decarbonization and Infrastructure c) Taxation and Anti-Corruption d) Fair and Resilient Trade India agreed to three out of four pillars, which are Supply Chains, Tax & Anti-Corruption and Clean Energy. The Department of Commerce is the nodal agency for the IPEF engagements

Answer 104

** - Tenure of the SIGHT programme is from FY2025-26 to FY2029-30 - The SIGHT programme will be implemented by the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI). It is eligible to get 0.5% of the incentive amount disbursed as administrative charges on an annual basis. ** The outlay of the SIGHT programme is ₹17490 crore which includes: Component-1: ₹4,440 Crores for domestic manufacturing of electrolysers. Component-2: ₹13,050 Crores as an incentive scheme for green hydrogen production. Incentives will be provided for the domestic production of green hydrogen in the following manner: 1st year - ₹50/kg incentive for the production of green hydrogen 2nd year- ₹40/kg incentive for the production of green hydrogen 3rd year- ₹30/kg incentive for the production of green hydrogen

Answer 105

** 3 crore additional houses ** 4.21 crore houses

Answer 106

Kamal Kishore Soan

Answer 107

** - India scored 37.8 and surpassed the global average of 23.5 - 46 institutions were represented from India compared to 11 in 2015, a 318% increase in 10 years, the best amongst the G20. The Indian Higher Education system is the 7th most represented globally and the third in Asia, trailing only Japan (49 universities) and China (Mainland) (71 universities). ** - IIT Bombay (Climbed by 31 ranks (from 149 last year to 118th this time) - IIT Delhi (climbed by 47 ranks from 197 last year to 150th this time) - IISc, Bengaluru (climbed by 14 ranks from 225 to 211 rank) - The biggest improvement was made by the University of Delhi (DU) which jumped 79 ranks — from 407 last year to 328 this year ** Rank1 – MIT, Rank 2- Imperial College, London, Rank 3- Harvard University and the University of Oxford

Answer 108

** It was launched by AIM, and NITI Ayog in collaboration with Denmark. The primary goal of this challenge is to address and find innovative solutions for water-related issues in India, which include water scarcity, pollution, and inefficient water management systems. It aims to address these challenges by leveraging inventive solutions. ** - The challenge invites entries from students and young entrepreneurs (both under the age of 35). - Early-stage startups, researchers, and innovators committed to positive environmental change are encouraged to apply. - Selected Indian teams will participate in the global Next Generation Digital Action program, engaging with young talents from leading universities and innovation hubs across 9 countries (including India, Denmark, Ghana, Kenya, Korea, Tanzania, South Africa, Colombia, and Mexico). * * Water Challenge encompasses the 5 S’s which include Skills, Scale, Scope, Sustainability, and Speed in the Green Strategic Partnership (GSP) between India and Denmark.

Answer 109

** The 112th Session was launched in Geneva, Switzerland ** - The Fourth Decent Work Country Programme (DWCP), launched by the International Labour Organization (ILO), is a strategic framework at the country level. It identifies priorities for ILO constituents (national governments, employers, and workers) and outlines planned support to achieve results in those areas. - DWCPs align with national development priorities and contribute to the 2030 Agenda and Sustainable Development Goals - The tenure of the programme is 2023-27

Answer 110

** - Outlay for implementation of the scheme in the steel sector is ₹455 crore till FY2029-30 - The scheme will be implemented by Mecon Ltd in the steel sector. Three Thrust Areas under the Scheme for using Hydrogen in the Steel Sector are: Scheme-A: Pilot project to produce Direct Reduced Iron (DRI) using only hydrogen in a vertical shaft furnace. Scheme-B: Use of Hydrogen in Blast Furnace. Scheme-C: Injection of Hydrogen in DRI-making unit. ** Outlay for the implementation of the scheme in the Shipping sector is ₹115 crore till FY2025-26

Answer 111

- It was developed by the NMCG (National Mission for Clean Ganga) to monitor and maintain the ecological health of rivers by ensuring that a minimum flow of water is maintained to support aquatic life and ecosystem services. It allows real-time analysis of water quality in the Ganga, Yamuna, and their tributaries and It monitors the performance of Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs) under the Namami Gange program, ensuring they operate efficiently. - The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) laid down flow specifications to preserve the river’s ecological balance, safeguard aquatic life, and ensure sustainability amid diverse water usage demands. - In 2018, the Government of India mandated minimum E-flow (environmental flow) for various stretches of the Ganga River year-round. ** 11 projects

Answer 112

La Fondation Dassault Systems India

Answer 113

** - The GREAT scheme aims to foster innovation in the technical textile sector by leveraging startups for R&D and commercialization of new products and technologies in the technical textiles sector. - Under the GREAT scheme, the Ministry of Textiles provides grant-in-aid funding of up to ₹50 lakh per startup ** ₹6.4 lakhs

Answer 114

A) - It was conducted as a part of the 79th round of the NSSO - This survey covered the entire Indian Union, excluding a few inaccessible villages in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands. Information was collected from 1,81,298 households, including 1,04,195 in rural areas and 77,103 in urban areas. B) 15 years or more C) Approximately 95% of rural and 96% of urban respondents are aware of Ayush. D) Around 46% of rural and 53% of urban individuals used Ayush for the prevention or treatment of ailments in the past 365 days E) 85% of the Rural Households and 86% of the Urban Households F) Rural India- 1.1 crore households, Urban India- 1.4 crore households

Answer 115

A) - The Annual Survey of Unincorporated Sector Enterprises (ASUS) provides the economic and operational characteristics of the “Unincorporated Non-Agricultural Establishments” in the Trade, Manufacturing and Other Services sectors, excluding the Construction sector. - The ASUSE survey of this year covered the reference periods of April 2021 to March 2022 (ASUSE 2021-22) and October 2022 to September 2023 (ASUSE 2022-23). B) 5.88% C) 15.12 % D) 2.22% E) The unincorporated non-agricultural sector employed about 11 crore workers (10.96 crore) from October 2022 to September 2023, up from 9.8 crore in 2021-22, showing a healthy labour market growth F) The highest growth of employment was observed at 13.42% in the Other Services sector, followed by 6.34% in the Manufacturing sector.

Answer 116

- The National Institute of Indian Medical Heritage (NIIMH), Hyderabad became the first WHO Collaborating Centre for "Fundamental and Literary Research in Traditional Medicine”. - It will be led by Prof. Vaidya Rabinarayan Acharya, Director General, CCRAS. - It is tasked with assisting WHO in standardizing terminologies for Ayurveda, Unani, Siddha, and Sowa Rigpa, and updating the Traditional Medicine ModuleII for the Eleventh edition of the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-11) - This recognition is granted for a period of 4 years

Answer 117

Smritivan museum in Kutch was listed and it preserves the memories of the people we lost in the devastating earthquake in 2001

Answer 118

** - The Krishi Sakhi Convergence Program (KSCP) is a transformative initiative by the Government of India. It empowers rural women by transforming them into Para-extension Workers by imparting them with training and certification of Krishi Sakhis. - It provides training related to agro-ecological practices, soil health, livestock management, and integrated farming systems. After certification, they can engage in activities related to soil health, crop demonstrations, crop insurance, and horticulture awareness. - As of date 34,000 Krishi Sakhis out of 70,000 have been certified as Para Extension Workers ** The Krishi Sakhi Training Program has been rolled out in 12 states in Phase – 1 which include Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Odisha, Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, and Meghalaya ** Currently, 30 KSs are working as Local Resource Persons under the Mission Organic Value Chain Development for the North Eastern Region and getting INR 4500 per month. ** The program aims to create 3 crore ‘Lakhpati Didis’ by 2024

Answer 119

** 6th Country ** - The mission aims to explore the deep sea for mineral exploration, ocean sciences, exploration of flora and fauna, conservation of marine biodiversity, and commercial exploitation of rare earth metals and poly-metallic nodules in the Indian seabed. - The Matsya Yaan 6000 developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT) will be used for this mission. It can descend to a depth of 6,000 meters into the ocean. ** The mission was launched in 2021 for 5 years and outlay of ₹4077 crore

Answer 120

a) 5G Intelligent Village: - This initiative aims to harness the transformative power of 5G technology to uplift rural communities, driving digital inclusion and economic growth. - The proposal addresses critical pillars such as agriculture, education, healthcare, governance, and sustainability. b) Quantum Encryption Algorithm (QEA) - To develop an India-specific quantum encryption algorithm for securing digital communication channels. - The QEA leverages the principles of quantum mechanics to ensure unparalleled security, advanced encryption capabilities, and ultrafast and efficient encryption.

Answer 121

A) It increased by 20.99% to ₹4,62,664 crore in FY2024, from ₹ 3,82,414 crore in the corresponding period of the preceding year B) Gross Tax collection grew by 22.19% to ₹5,15,986 C) Total Advance Tax Collections were at ₹1,48,823 crore showing a growth of 27.34% D) Refunds amounting to ₹53,322 crore have also been issued in the FY 2024-25 till 17.06.2024, which are 33.70% higher than refunds issued during the same period in the preceding year.

Answer 122

A) * Rural areas- ₹3773 which includes Food Items- ₹1750, Non-Food items- ₹2023 * Urban areas- ₹6459 which includes Food items- ₹2530, Non-Food items- ₹3929 B) Adjusted to 2011-12 prices, the growth is 40% in rural and 33% in urban areas. C) In rural India, food expenditure dropped from 53% to 46%, and in urban India, it decreased from 43% to 39%. D) The urban-rural difference in average MPCE has decreased from 84% in 2011-12 to 71% in 2022-23 at current prices. This shrinking gap suggests economic improvements in rural areas and more balanced growth, likely due to effective rural development and better infrastructure. E) The rural-urban difference in average MPCE, among the states is the highest in Meghalaya (83%) followed by Chhattisgarh (82%). F) States: - MPCE is the highest in Sikkim for both rural and urban areas. It is the lowest in Chhattisgarh for both rural and urban areas. UTs: MPCE is the highest in Chandigarh for both rural and urban areas. It is the lowest in Ladakh and Lakshadweep for rural and urban areas respectively. Among the major 18 states, The highest MPCE is in Kerala in rural areas and Telangana in urban areas. Chhattisgarh has the lowest MPCE for rural and urban sectors. G) - The Gini coefficient decreased in rural sectors from 0.283 to 0.266 and in urban sectors from 0.363 to 0.314 - The Gini coefficient, also known as the Gini index or Gini ratio, measures income inequality, wealth inequality, or consumption inequality within a nation or a social group. It was developed by Italian statistician Corrado Gini. The coefficient ranges from 0 (perfect equality) to 1 (maximal inequality), where a single individual holds all the income or wealth while others have none

Answer 123

** The outlay of the scheme is ₹7453 crore, which includes: - ₹6853 crore for installation of 1 Gw of Osshore Wind energy, 500 Mw each off the coasts of Gujarat and Tamil Nadu - ₹600 crore for the upgradation of two ports to meet the logistics requirements for offshore wind energy projects **Power Grid Corporation of India Ltd (PGCIL) ** It aims to support the development of an initial 37 GW of offshore wind energy in India at an investment of about ₹450,000 crore.

Answer 124

** ₹3.85 lakh crore ** The tenure of the NMP is FY2022-FY2025, in the first two Financial years i.e 2021-22 to 2022-23 it achieved the target of ₹2.3 lakh crore out of ₹2.5 lakh crore ** In 2023-24, the Ministries of Road Transport and Highways and the Ministry of Coal were the top achievers, with a total achievement of Rs. 97,000 crore.

Answer 125

** Tenure- 2024-25 to 2028-29 Outlay- ₹2254 crore ** Objectives - To Strengthen the criminal forensic infrastructure to aid an efficient criminal justice system. - to address the shortage of trained forensic manpower, reduce caseload, and align with the goal of achieving a high conviction rate of more than 90% Components: - Establishment of Campuses of the National Forensic Sciences University (NFSU) in the country. - Establishment of Central Forensic Science Laboratories in the country. - Enhancement of existing infrastructure at the Delhi Campus of the NFSU.

Answer 126

** - 19 ports from India made it to the ranking list. - The rankings are provided by the World Bank and S&P Global Marketing Intelligence ** Visakhapatnam Port made it to the Top 20 ports of the World and was ranked 19 in 2023, recording a marked improvement from 115 in 2022.

Answer 127

Ria Money Transfer

Answer 128

A) – Crops: 54.3% - Livestock: 30.9% - Forestry: 7.9% - Fishing: 6.9% B) ‘Cereals’ (27.3%) and ‘fruits and vegetables’ (28.3%) together accounted for more than 55% of the 2022-23 total output of the crop sub-sector. C) UP exhibited the highest value of output for cereals, whereas for Fruits & Vegetables West Bengal exhibited the highest value of output in 2022-23 D) It increased from ₹487.8 thousand crore in 2011-12 to ₹878.5 thousand crore in 2022-23. Rajasthan (12.5%) and Uttar Pradesh (12.3%) together accounted for about a quarter of the output of the livestock sub-sector at constant prices in 2022- 23. E) Rank 1- Maharashtra (16.4%), Rank 2- Rajasthan (10.6%), Rank 3- UP (8.7%) F) - It increased steadily from about ₹80 thousand crore in 2011-12 to about ₹195 thousand crore in 2022-23. - Andhra Pradesh remained the largest producer of fishing and aquaculture during the period 2015-16 to 2022-23 and, its share in all India output increased from 17.7% in 2011-12 to almost 40.9% in 2022-23.

Answer 129

Indraprastha Institute of Information Technology Delhi (IIT Delhi)

Answer 130

Outlay- ₹1800 crore. The project will be implemented in 90 Blocks across 20 districts of J&K and will have the project outreach of 300,000 households covering 15 lakh beneficiaries.

Answer 131

(1) Working Group 1 on Strategic Technologies, Digital Governance and Digital Connectivity. (2) Working Group 2 on Green and Clean Energy Technologies - It is being co-chaired from the Indian side by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India and from the EU side by the Directorate-General for Research and Innovation of the European Commission. (3) Working Group 3 on Trade, Investment and Resilient Value Chains.

Answer 132

- SANKALP (Supportive Action for Nurturing and Knowledge-Based Advancement, Last-Mile Delivery and Potential Realisation of Women) campaign aims to bridge the information and knowledge gap regarding schemes and facilities available for women as well as guide them to avail the benefits and entitlements. - l also serves as a Project Monitoring Unit (PMU) for all components under Mission Shakti

Answer 133

“The Golden Thread”

Answer 134

A) – GST Appellate Tribunal: ₹20 lakh - High Court: ₹1 crore - Supreme Court: ₹2 crore B) CGST- from ₹25 crore to ₹20 crore IGST- from ₹25 crore to ₹20 crore C) It was decreased from 20% up to ₹50 crore CGST and ₹50 crore SGST to 10% of up to ₹20 crore CGST and ₹20 crore SGST D) From 30 days to 60 days. So, now you have 60 days to pay the tax and interest after receiving a demand notice E) From 1% to 0.5%

Answer 135

From 5.5 lakh tonne p.a to 7.5 lakh tonne per annum. The NGHM, targets a production capacity of 5 million tonnes per annum of Green Hydrogen by 2030, contributing to India’s clean energy goals

Answer 136

9 Gw, of renewable energy each in Rajasthan and Karnataka

Answer 137

Jamtara District, Jharkhand

Answer 138

It is headquartered in London and has about 85 countries as members covering almost 90% of sugar production in the World

Answer 139

- Ladakh. This achievement comes after Ladakh achieved more than 97% literacy - The ULLAS (Nav Bharat Saksharta Karyakram) initiative focuses on empowering non-literates aged 15 and above with essential skills.

Answer 140

₹10000 crore

Answer 141

“Safai Apnao, Bimari Bhagao” campaign was launched under the Swachh Bharat Mission Urban 2.0

Answer 142

Tulika Mann

Answer 143

Central Electronics Ltd

Answer 144

The 3rd phase focuses on evaluating the entire value chain of waste management at Bulk Waste Generators (BWGs). The BWG are entities with an average waste generation rate exceeding 100 kgs per day, including all streams of waste. The Swachh Survekshan Survey comprises the assessment in 4 quarters or phases which are: - The first two include telephonic feedback from citizens on various parameters of city cleanliness. - The third quarter focuses on the assessment of processing facilities. The 4th quarter highlights field assessment on all indicators.

Answer 145

- achieve 500 GW (gigawatts) of non-fossil energy capacity by 2030. - to meet 50% of its energy requirements from renewable energy sources. - aims to reduce its total projected carbon emissions by 1 billion tonnes by 2030. - commits to reducing the carbon intensity of the economy by 45% by 2030, compared to the 2005 levels. - aims to achieve net zero carbon emissions by 2070.

Answer 146

** ₹1.45 trillion ** Banks raised ₹2.6 trillion in Q1 2024-25, compared to ₹1.6 trillion in the same period previous year

Answer 147

The Purchasing Manager Index (PMI) is an economic indicator that measures the performance of the manufacturing and services sectors in an economy. It is conducted monthly by surveying the performance of purchasing managers in several industries. The survey is conducted on five major indicators which are - New Orders: Reflects the level of new orders from customers. - Production: Indicates the level of output or production. - Employment: Measures changes in employment levels. - Supplier Deliveries: Assesses the speed of supplier deliveries (a slower delivery time can indicate higher demand). - Inventories: Tracks the level of inventories held by companies. - Each indicator has a specific weight and the PMI is calculated as a weighted average of these indicators, compiled into a single index number. - An index value above 50% indicates a positive development in the industrial sector, while a value below 50% indicates a negative situatio

Answer 148

- According to draft norms, every exporter should furnish a declaration specifying the amount of the full export value of the goods or services. - The amount representing the full export value of goods and services shall be realised and repatriated to India within 9 months from the date of shipment for goods and date of invoice for services These changes aim to promote ease of doing business, especially for small exporters and importers, while empowering Authorized Dealer banks to provide quicker and more efficient services to foreign exchange customers.

Answer 149

Special Mention Accounts (SMA) is a classification of accounts used by banks to identify potential non-performing assets (NPAs) at an early stage and take corrective action to prevent them from becoming NPAs. The types of SMA accounts are: SMA-0: Principal or interest payment not overdue for more than 30 days. SMA-1: Principal or interest payment overdue between 31 and 60 days. SMA-2: Principal or interest payment overdue between 61 and 90 days. These classifications help lenders take timely corrective actions to prevent further deterioration.

Answer 150

It will be published on the ICEGATE website and exchange rates of 22 currencies will be published by the ERAM module

Answer 151

Bhuvan Panchayat 4.0 portal- It is a geospatial platform developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to support the planning and development activities at the Panchayat (village council) level. It provides high-resolution satellite imagery at a 1:10K scale for different locations across India. National Database for Emergency Management (NDEM Ver. 5.0): It provides a comprehensive geospatial database for disaster risk reduction, disaster management

Answer 152

- It was developed and launched by the Railway Protection Force (RPF) to provide in-depth information on three new Criminal Acts the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023, the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) 2023, and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023. - It aims to educate and empower RPF Personnel by providing comprehensive information to understand the provisions of both new and old criminal laws, while highlighting the relevance of these new acts in the context of RPF operations.

Answer 153

MSME Team initiative- It aims to facilitate 5 lakh micro and small enterprises for onboarding on to the ONDC platform by providing financial assistance for onboarding, cataloguing, account management, logistics, packaging material and design. Yashasvini Campaign- It is a series of mass awareness campaign to empower women-owned informal micro enterprises. It will provide capacity building, training, handholding and mentorship to the women owned enterprises.

Answer 154

** ₹860 crore ** by 2026

Answer 155

“Krishi Katha”

Answer 156

Under Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF)

Answer 157

Less than 6 months. Table D was amended and withdrawal benefits under the EPS will now depend on the number of completed months of service by the employee

Answer 158

** Russia ** Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE and Saudi Arabia

Answer 159

** India’s annual defence production hit a record high of almost ₹1.27 trillion in 2023-24 (FY24), up 16.7% over the previous year’s figure of ₹1.09 trillion ** ₹3 trillion by FY2029

Answer 160

** Custodian banks issuing IPCs will face a maximum intraday risk equivalent to 30% of the settlement amount, classified as capital market exposure (CME). This risk limit is based on the assumption of a 20% downward price movement of equities on T+1, with an additional 10% margin allocated for further potential downward price shifts. ** The issuance of IPCs by custodian banks is restricted to those with agreements granting them an inalienable right over securities for payout upon settlement. However, this clause is waived for pre-funded transactions, requiring clear rupee funds in the customer’s account or credit to the bank’s nostro account in foreign exchange deals before IPC issuance. Irrevocable Payment Commitments (IPCs) : IPCs are commitments made by custodian banks on behalf of their clients (typically institutional investors) to pay a specified amount of money for securities that their clients have agreed to purchase. These commitments are irrevocable, meaning that once issued, they cannot be withdrawn or cancelled by the custodian bank or the client. The primary purpose of IPCs is to guarantee payment for securities in capital market transactions, providing assurance to issuers and underwriters that funds will be available when the securities are delivered. This assurance facilitates the smooth execution of transactions and mitigates the risk of payment default

Answer 161

A) - Entities regulated by a financial sector regulator (including branches of foreign banks operating in India) and having an Average Aggregate Notional Amount (AANA) of outstanding NCCDs (Non-Centrally Cleared Derivatives) of ₹25,000 crore and above, on a consolidated group-wide basis. - Other resident entities having an AANA of outstanding NCCDs of ₹60,000 crore and above, on a consolidated group-wide basis. B) - Non-resident financial entities having an AANA of outstanding NCCDs of USD 3 billion and above, on a consolidated group-wide basis. - Other non-resident entities having an AANA of outstanding NCCDs of USD 8 billion and above, on a consolidated group-wide basis. Variation margin is a variable collateral payment made by clearing members, such as futures brokers, to their respective clearing houses. It is based on adverse price movements of the futures contracts these members hold. When trading futures or other derivatives, this margin helps maintain adequate risk management. It functions as a type of collateral in derivatives trading. Variation Margin shall be exchanged on an aggregate net basis. C) – Domestic entities- - Entities regulated by a financial sector regulator (including branches of foreign banks operating in India) and having an Average Aggregate Notional Amount (AANA) of outstanding NCCDs of ₹60,000 crore and above Initial Margin is a collateral which is collected when entering into a derivatives contract. Unlike the Variation margin which is adjusted daily, the Initial Margin remains constant throughout the derivatives contract. Initial Margin shall be exchanged on a gross basis without any netting of Initial Margin amounts owed by the two counterparties Foreign entities- Non-resident financial entities having an AANA of outstanding NCCDs of USD 8 billion and above The provisions of these Directions shall not be applicable to an NCCD transaction in which one of the counterparties is any of the following entities: - Government of India and State Governments; - A Foreign Sovereign - A Central Bank - Bank for International Settlements - Multilateral Development Banks (MDBs) D) 10 days E) ₹450 crore F) ₹450 crore

Answer 162

A) It provides the framework for financing projects in the Infrastructure, Non-Infrastructure and Commercial Real Estate (CRE) sectors, in three phases which are the Design phase, Construction phase and Operational phase. B) - Individual lender exposure should be less than 10% for aggregate lender exposure up to ₹1500 crore - Individual lender exposure should be 5% or ₹150 crores, whichever is higher for aggregate lender exposure above ₹1500 crore Consortium Arrangements refer to the collaboration of multiple lenders to finance large-scale projects. These arrangements help distribute the risk among several financial institutions and ensure adequate funding for significant and complex projects. C) 85% D) With pre-sanctioned standby credit facilities, lenders can fund cost overruns up to 10% of the original project cost. Additional funding without pre-sanctioned facilities will be priced at a premium, with a minimum additional risk premium of 1%. Funding Cost Overruns refer to the provision of additional financing to cover expenses that exceed the initially budgeted costs of a project during its construction phase. This ensures that projects can be completed despite unforeseen expenses. E) Within 180 days F) Lenders must maintain a general provision of 5% of the funded outstanding during the construction phase. This can be reduced to 2.5% once the project reaches the operational phase and further reduced to 1% if certain conditions are met. Provisioning for Standard Assets involves maintaining financial reserves to cover potential risks associated with project finance loans.

Answer 163

The Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA) is an umbrella scheme introduced by the Indian government to ensure a Minimum Support Price (MSP) for farmers. Here are the key components of PM-AASHA: Price Support Scheme (PSS): Under this component, central nodal agencies procure pulses, oilseeds, and copra, with active involvement from state governments. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) and the National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED) play a crucial role in implementing the scheme. The central government bears the procurement expenses and losses. Price Deficiency Payment Scheme (PDPS): In PDPS, the state compensates farmers for the difference between mandi prices and MSP. All oilseeds fall under this scheme. Unlike physical procurement, this approach focuses on direct payments to farmers. Private Procurement & Stockist Scheme (PPPS): In select pilot districts, private agencies collaborate with the government to procure oilseeds. When market prices fall below MSP, authorized private agencies purchase commodities from registered farmers. Issues Associated with the Scheme: The existing procurement infrastructure primarily supports wheat and rice, leaving other crops underserved. Awareness about MSP remains low among farmers, hindering effective implementation

Answer 164

** Fincare Small Finance Bank ** ₹5 lakh

Answer 165

A) 75% A Full Fledged Money Changer (FFMC) is a money changer authorised to purchase foreign exchange from non-residents visiting India and residents and to sell foreign exchange for private and business travel purposes only. B) Money-changing business can be undertaken by entities authorised by the Reserve Bank under Section 10 of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. No person shall carry on money-changing business without the possession of a valid money changer’s licence issued by the Reserve Bank. C) - The applicant has to be a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956/ Companies Act 2013/ Registration of Companies (Sikkim) Act, 1961. - Minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) requirements are: ₹25 lakh for Single Branch FFMC ₹50 lakh for Multiple Branch FFMC The FFMC/ non-bank AD Category II should commence operations of its additional branch within a period of six months from the date of issuance of the licence and inform the Regional Office concerned of the Reserve Bank. D) - Resident Indians and non-residents who are not citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh, and not travelling to these countries, are permitted to carry Indian notes up to Rs. 25,000 when leaving the country via an airport. - Citizens of Pakistan and Bangladesh departing by air can carry a maximum of Rs. 10,000 up to the boarding point in international airports, but no further. E) - A franchisee can be any entity which has a place of business and a minimum Net Owned Funds of ₹10 lakh. - The franchiser, i.e. AD Category–I Bank / AD Category–II / FFMC may appoint franchisees within a distance of 100 km from their controlling branches concerned. The distance criterion is exempted in the case of recognized groups/chains of hotels and in Hilly and North-eastern states. - Franchisees can undertake only restricted money-changing business. - The foreign currency purchased by the franchisee should be surrendered only to its franchiser within 7 working days from the date of purchase. F) When foreign exchange brought in the form of currency notes or travellers' cheques does not exceed USD 10,000 or its equivalent and/or the value of foreign currency notes does not exceed USD 5,000 or its equivalent, declaration thereof on CDF is not insisted upon. G) - Requests for payment in cash in Indian Rupees to resident customers towards the purchase of foreign currency notes and/ or Travellers’ Cheques from them may accede to the extent of only USD 1,000 or its equivalent per transaction. - Requests for payment in cash by foreign visitors / Non-Resident Indians may be acceded to the extent of only USD 3,000 or its equivalent per transaction. H) ₹50000. Wherever the sale of foreign exchange is for the amount equivalent to Rs.50,000/- and above whether it involves a single drawal or multiple drawals for a single journey, the payment must be received only by a crossed cheque drawn or electronic funds transfer through banking channel. I) - Non-residents can convert their unspent Indian currency back into foreign currency when leaving India, provided they have a valid Encashment Certificate. - Authorized Persons can convert up to ₹10,000 of unspent Indian currency if the non-resident cannot produce an Encashment Certificate due to genuine reasons. The departure must be scheduled within the next seven days. - Authorized Dealers (ADs) Category I, ADs Category II, and Full-Fledged Money Changers (FFMCs) can convert up to ₹50,000 for foreign tourists (not NRIs) against ATM receipts. Required documents include: * Valid Passport and VISA * Ticket confirmed for departure within seven days * Original ATM slip, verified with the original debit/credit card. J) Single Branch FFMCs: * Turnover > USD 100,000 per month: Must have a monthly audit system. * Turnover ≤ USD 100,000 per month: Can have a quarterly audit system. Multiple Branch FFMCs/Non-Bank ADs Category II: * Must audit 80% of the transactions by value monthly. * Must audit the remaining 20% of the transactions by value quarterly.

Answer 166

A) 28 B) ** At the global level, SDG-1 has 7 targets to measure the progress of a nation in eradicating poverty in all its forms everywhere. A total of 18 indicators have been identified at the national level to measure and monitor the progress of these targets. ** From 24.85% in 2015-16 to 14.96% in 2019-21 C) 44.15 lakhs D) 1,80,43,920 E) ** Under SDG-2 “Zero Hunger”, there are 8 targets identified at a global level to measure the availability of food, improvement in nutrition and promotion of sustainable agriculture, and 19 indicators are identified at the National Level in India to measure and monitor the progress of these targets. ** From 38.4% in 2015-16 to 35.5% in 2019-21 ** To 4.4293 million hectares. ** Rs.87,609 F) ** There are a total of 13 targets to measure healthy lives and promote well-being for all and 38 indicators have been identified at the national level to measure and monitor the progress of these targets. ** ₹3001 crore ** 199 ** 20 ** 76.6% in 2019-21 G) ** This goal encompasses 10 targets aimed at measuring inclusive and equitable quality education and promoting lifelong learning opportunities. To monitor the progress of these targets, 19 indicators have been identified at the national level ** 57.6% ** 89.3% ** 47.5% ** 28.4% H) ** This goal includes 9 targets to monitor gender equality and ensure the empowerment of women and girls. At the national level, 31 indicators have been identified to track the progress of these targets. ** Women Casual Labourers: ₹276 per day, Male Casual Labourers: ₹428 per day ** 97.53% I) ** 99.29% ** 100% ** 75 J) ** 100% ** 22.51% ** 136.56 Watts per capita K) ** 1,03,057 ** ₹22.60 lakh crore L) ** 44.52 ** 262 ** 99.2% M) ** 33.14% ** 6.19% of the total budget N) ** 97% ** 78.46% O) ** 207.6 kg per capita per year ** 136.56 watts per capita P) ** Goal 13 has 5 targets to measure the changing impacts of climate-related hazards. A total of 7 indicators have been identified at the national level to measure and monitor the progress of these targets. ** 24% Q) 5.311 million tonnes/Year R) ** 21.71% ** 5.43% ** 0.08% ** 8.73% S) ** 4671 ** 1.53 Judges per lakh population T) Indian merchandise export contributes 1.8% to Global Exports and Indian commercial services export contributes 4.4% to Global exports.

Answer 167

** ₹2 lakh crore ** Hardship allowance at the rate of 40% of their basic salary for 16000 NDRF personnel is provided. Additionally, forces like the National Security Guard (NSG) and the Special Protection Group (SPG) receive a 25% hardship allowance due to their specialized duties.

Answer 168

Health Scheme Achievements: In FY2023-24: A total of 18,02,000 workers and their dependents benefited with an expenditure of Rs 8.5 crore Education Scheme Achievements: In FY2023-24 Total of 96,501 wards of Beedi/Cine/Non-Coal Mineworkers benefited with an Expenditure of Rs 30.68 crore.

Answer 169

The eSankhyiki portal was launched on World Statistics Day 2024. It has two sections facilitating easy access and re-use of data, namely: Data Catalogue: - The catalogue lists the major data assets of the Ministry such as National Accounts Statistics, Consumer Price Index, Index of Industrial Production, Annual Survey of Industries, Periodic Labour Force Survey and Household Consumption Expenditure Survey in one place. Macro Indicators: - It offers time series data of key macro indicators with features for filtering and visualization. - It also allows users to download custom datasets, and visualizations and access them through APIs, thereby increasing the reusability of data. - At present, this section includes four major products of MoSPI: National Accounts Statistics, Consumer Price Index, Index of Industrial Production, and Annual Survey of Industries, encompassing the data of the last ten years.

Answer 170

General Upendra Dwivedi

Answer 171

A) It comprises 121 checklists of all known taxa covering 36 phyla. B) 1,04,561 species C) Eduardo Kohn D) “Animal Discoveries publication” comprises 641 new species and “Plant Discoveries Publication” comprises 339 new plant species E) ICAR-NBFGR, Lucknow and ZSI, Kolkata jointly published the publication F) Shiladitya Chaudhury & Ketan Sengupta G) 1916

Answer 172

A) ₹5,44,014 crore, which accounted for 56.9% of the total PUC of FDI companies that had reported in the 2022-23 round B) - Nearly half of the sample companies received direct investment from Singapore, Mauritius, and the US - Japan, the Netherlands and the United Kingdom were other major FDI source countries. - A major chunk of the sample companies belonged to the manufacturing, information and communication sectors. C) net sales of the sample companies rose by 21.1% on top of 28.6% growth in the previous year. D) ** Both raw material expenses and Operating expenses grew at the rate of 20.7% during 2022-23 ** The employee remuneration outlay increased in sync with rising business activities. The manpower-intensive services sector recorded a higher rise of 24.3% in employee remuneration compared to a 13.1% rise for the manufacturing sector E) ** Operating profits and post-tax profits rose by 17.5% and 45.2%, respectively. ** Net profit margin improved to 5.9% in 2022-23 from 4.9% the previous year F) Leverage (measured in terms of debt-to-equity ratio) of the sample FDI companies continued to decline and stood at 39.9% during 2022-23. It stood at 19.3% for manufacturing companies and 54.1% for services firms. G) External sources accounted for 52.7% of additional funding of the sample FDI companies during 2022-23 and 56% of the fresh funds were utilised in gross capital formation

Answer 173

** - The PRAVAAH (Platform for Regulatory Application, Validation and Authorization) portal is a secure and centralised web-based portal for any individual or entity to seek authorisation, license or regulatory approval on any reference made by it to the Reserve Bank. - At present, 60 application forms covering different regulatory and supervisory departments of RBI have been made available on the portal. This also includes a general-purpose form for applicants to submit their requests which are not included in any other application form. ** The retail direct portal was launched in November 2021 to facilitate retail investors to open their Retail Direct Gilt accounts with the Reserve Bank of India under the Retail Direct Scheme. The scheme allows retail investors to buy G-Secs in the primary auctions as well as buy and sell G-Secs in the secondary market.

Answer 174

- They are managed by the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH). The FinTech Repository encourages both licensed and unregulated fintechs to contribute data, providing aggregate sectoral information, trends, and analytics. Meanwhile, the EmTech Repository focuses exclusively on RBI-regulated entities. - The FinTech Repository provides aggregate sectoral data, trends, and analytics related to fintech companies whereas - The EmTech Repository focuses on the adoption of emerging technologies by RBI-regulated entities. It will provide Insights into the use of technologies like AI, ML, Cloud Computing, DLT, and Quantum Computing. It will provide aggregated data and trends related to technology adoption, helping policymakers and industry members make informed decisions.

Answer 175

1.- Be set up as a not-for-profit company registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013. - Have diversified shareholding (i.e. No entity should hold 10% or more of its paid-up share capital, either singly or acting in concert). - Explicitly state the operation as an SRO-FT as its primary objective in its Memorandum of Association (MoA). - Minimum Net worth ₹2 crores to be achieved within one year after recognition by RBI or before commencement of operations, whichever is earlier - At least one-third of members of the Board, including the chairperson, should be independent, and without any active association with a FinTech entity. Further, the majority of non-independent directors are to be representative of FinTechs that are currently not directly regulated

Answer 176

– Single rupee term deposit of ₹3 crore or more for Scheduled Commercial banks, excluding RRBs and Small finance banks - A single rupee term deposit of ₹1 crore and more is the definition of bulk deposit for local area banks as applicable in the case of Regional Rural Banks.

Answer 177

** The Line of Credit (LoC) was approved to Guyana for USD 23.37 million ** At least 75% of the contract price for goods, works, and services must be supplied by the seller from India. The remaining 25% of goods and services may be procured by the seller from outside India for the purpose of the eligible contract.

Answer 178

Nostro Account: A domestic bank's account in a foreign bank, holding foreign currency. It is used by the domestic bank to facilitate international transactions and manage foreign currency. Vostro Account: A foreign bank's account in the domestic bank, holding the domestic currency. It is used by foreign banks to facilitate transactions in the domestic currency and manage their operations in the domestic market.

Answer 179

- A weightage of 125% will be assigned to Districts with Per Capita PSL less than ₹9000. Thus it will cover the districts where the credit flow is relatively lower. - A Weightage of 90% will be assigned to districts with Per Capita PSL of more than ₹42000. Thus it will cover the districts where the credit flow is relatively higher. These new weights are applicable from FY2025 to FY2026

Answer 180

1) Microenterprise: Investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹1 crore and turnover up to ₹5 crore 2) Small enterprise: Investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹10 crore and turnover does up to ₹50 crore 3) Medium enterprise: investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹50 crore and turnover up to ₹250 crore

Answer 181

7. Theme 1: “Zero Financial Frauds” 1) Real-time prediction, detection and prevention of frauds in financial transactions using alternate sources of data including publicly available information. 2) Ensuring transaction anonymity in token-based (CBDC) transactions while maintaining financial system integrity. 3) Identifying mule bank accounts/ payment wallets. Theme 2: “Being Divyang Friendly” 4) Accurately identifying banknotes by the visually impaired. The winner across each problem statement will receive ₹40 lakh

Answer 182

‘Prevention and Mitigation of Financial Frauds’

Answer 183

** - On a balance of payments basis (i.e., excluding valuation effects), foreign exchange reserves increased by US$ 63.7 billion during 2023-24 as against a depletion of US$ 9.1 billion during 2022-23. Foreign exchange reserves in nominal terms (including valuation effects) increased by US$ 68.0 billion during 2023-24 as against a decrease of US$ 28.9 billion in the preceding year. - The valuation gain, primarily reflecting the rise in gold price, amounted to US$ 4.3 billion during 2023-24 as against a valuation loss of US$ 19.7 billion during 2022-23.

Answer 184

A)** It was US$ 663.8 billion, an increase of US$ 39.7 billion over its level at the end of March 2023. ** Long-term debt (with an original maturity of above one year) was placed at US$ 541.2 billion, recording an increase of US$ 45.6 billion over its level at the end of March 2023. ** It declined to 18.5% from 20.6% at March-end 2023. Similarly, the ratio of short-term debt to foreign exchange reserves declined to 19.0% at end-March 2024 ** It constituted 42.9% of the total external debt at March-end 2024 and 44.1% of foreign exchange reserves B) The external debt to GDP ratio declined to 18.7% at the end of March 2024 from 19.0% at the end of March 2023. C) It amounted to amounted to US$ 8.7 billion. Excluding the valuation effect, external debt would have increased by US$ 48.4 billion instead of US$ 39.7 billion at end-March 2024 D) USD: 53.8% Indian Rupee: 31.5% Yen: 5.8% SDR: 5.4% Euro: 2.8% E) Non-financial corporations: 37.4% Deposit-Taking corporations: 28.1% General Government: 22.4% Other financial corporations: 7.3% F) Loans: 33.4% Currency & Deposits: 23.3% Trade credit & Advances: 17.9% Debt securities: 17.3% G) It increased to 6.7% from 5.3%

Answer 185

A) The net claims of non-residents declined by USD 5.5 billion on the back of the higher rise in India’s external financial assets of USD 109.8 vis-a-vis external financial liabilities of USD 104.3 billion. Net Claims = External Financial Assets – External Financial Liabilities B) 62% C) over 3/4th of the rise in foreign liabilities D) It increased to 74% in March 2024 from 71.4% a year ago E) - The ratio of net claims of non-residents in India to GDP improved to (-)10.3% in March 2024 from (-)11.3% a year ago, and (-)11.6% two years ago. - A negative ratio means that non-residents hold more financial assets in India than India holds in financial liabilities. In other words, non-residents have a net investment in India.

Answer 186

** USD 250 billion ** 2 billion USD

Answer 187

** The WMA limit was increased to ₹60,118 crore from ₹47,010 crore ** Top 3 States/UTs WMA limits: UP (Rs 6519 cr) > MAH (Rs 6139 cr) > TN (Rs 4582 cr) Bottom 3 States/UTs WMA limits: Puducherry (Rs 175 cr) < Mizoram (Rs 216 cr) < Goa (Rs 258 cr) ** - The maximum SDF limit for States/UTs against CSF/GRF investments will be 50% of the lower of: a) The outstanding balance of the funds as of the last date of the second preceding quarter. b) The current balance held in CSF/GRF. - For ATB (Auction Treasury Bills) investments, the maximum SDF limit will be 50% of the lower of: a) The outstanding balance in ATBs (91/182/364 days) as of the last date of the second preceding quarter. b) The current ATB balance.

Answer 188

** 7.98% FRB 2031 carries a coupon, which has a base rate equivalent to the average of the Weighted Average Yield of the last three auctions (from the rate fixing day i.e. June 07, 2024) of 182 Day T-Bills, plus a fixed spread of One per cent