Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nephrology > Renal Review - Lessons > Flashcards

Renal Review - Lessons Flashcards

1
Q

What is an important causative antibody target in Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Type IV collagen, α3 subchain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is an important causative antibody target in membranous nephropathy?

A

Phospholipase A2 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is an important causative antibody target in Wegener polyangiitis?

A

Proteinase 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(T/F) Deposits can be identified in cases of Goodpasture’s syndrome by both immunofluorescence and electron microscopy.

A

False. Only IF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which nephrotic syndrome causing disesae can also cause hematuria?

A

MPGN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the clinical features of amyloidosis? Which syndrome does it cause?

A

Macroglossia, heart failure, 10 nm glomerular fibrils on EM; Nephrotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is another common name for the Shiga-like toxin that can cause classical hemolytic-uremic syndrome?

A

Verocytotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main mechanism of Ca reabsorption in the nephron and how can it be pharmacologically inhibited?

A

Ca follows Na reabsorption especially in the PCT and the thick ascending limb. Loop diuretics can inhibit this, and can thus result in hypercalciuria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the approach in a 5 yo child with foamy urine and facial edema?

A

The child almost certainly has MCD, so immediate steroid therapy is indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the clinical presentation of tumor lysis syndrome (describe BP and potassium, phosphate, nitrogen, and creatinine levels)?

A

Hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, acidosis, azotemia, hypertension, and high serum creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does 1/2 NS distribute upon IV administration?

A

Half goes to the ECF (3/4 IS and 1/4 plasma) and the other half distributes as free water (2/3 ICF and 1/3 ECF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Are recurrence rates in low grade urinary papillary carcinomas high or low?

A

High

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the blood supply to the medullary pyramid of the kidney lobe?

A

Vasa recta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where are the arcuate vessels located?

A

Between the cortex and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where does vasa recta empty into?

A

Arcuate veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What electrolyte abnormality can be caused by clay ingestion or amphotericin B toxicity?

A

Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a crucial histological finding in lupus nephritis?

A

Wire loop capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is “thyroidization” of the kidney?

A

Tubules are often dilated and filled with eosinophilic casts. Seen in chronic pyelonephritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some clinical features of nephrosclerosis?

A

Reduced size/mass (esp. cortex) and have increased peripelvic fat; very vulnerable to nephrotoxic drugs; usually don’t cause renal insufficiency but have low functional reserve so can fail in case of shock/trauma/etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the urine look like in a patient with prerenal azotemia?

A

Low urine Na concentration but high osmolarity because of ADH response from the low GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List 5 main treatments of hyperkalemia

A

Insulin and glucose (facilitates uptake), IV bicarb (alkalizes causes uptake), IV calcium chloride (prevents VT), beta-2 agonists (facilitates uptake), loop/thiazide diuretics (increases K excretion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What cell/virus combo causes post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder?

A

EBV-induced B cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the most common causative organisms of acute pyelonephritis?

A

E. coli (70-80%) and Enterococcus (10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is most likely to cause edema in a patient with CHF?

A

High venous pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the most common complication of CKD?

A

Cardiovascular disease (also causes hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the main purpose of the medullary osmotic gradient?

A

To excrete hypertonic urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the clinical picture of prerenal vs. intrarenal azotemia?

A

Prerenal has low urine Na (high ATII and aldosterone), low FENa, and negative urine cytology; intrarenal has high urine Na and high FENa (ATN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the four main compartments of the kidney?

A

(1) glomerular, (2) vascular, (3) tubular, and (4) interstitial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Name three mechanisms that link hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.

A

(1) K+ extravasation during hypokalemia results in absorption of extracellular H+, (2) aldosterone causes both K+ and H+ excretion in the distal tubule and collecting duct, and during hypokalemia, H+ secretion in the DCT/CCD increases, (3) most common causes of metabolic alkaloses (vomiting, diarrhea) cause the loss of both H+ and K+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which diuretics cause acidemia?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors and K+ sparing diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which diuretics cause alkalemia?

A

Loop and thiazide diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the effect of loop and thiazide diuretics on serum Ca?

A

Loop diuretics can cause hypocalcemia and thiazide diuretics can cause hypercalcemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the homeostatic response to increased serum osmolality with an unchanged effective arterial blood volume?

A

Increased ADH and thirst stimulus from the hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In the empty bladder, the fully differentiated cells at the top of the urothelium are _____

A

Dome-shaped (umbrella cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

On H&E, does the PCT or the DCT appear thicker?

A

PCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How is K reabsorbed in the PCT?

A

Passive transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which disease causes full-house IF staining?

A

DPGN

38
Q

Which disease is associated with IgA nephropathy?

A

Celiac disease

39
Q

Is ATN reversible?

A

Yes

40
Q

Where in the prostate does carcinoma generally develop?

A

Peripheral zone

41
Q

White blood cell casts are most likely to be seen in which renal disease?

A

Acute pyelonephritis

42
Q

Presbynephrosis has which main characteristic?

A

Shrunken kidneys with peripelvic fat

43
Q

Ca and Mg are mostly absorbed along which nephron segment?

A

Thick ascending loop of Henle

44
Q

What is the daily GFR in a normal 70 kg person?

A

150 L per day

45
Q

In patients who already have renal insufficiency, what are the most serious side effects of ACE-inhibitors or angiotensin-receptor blockers?

A

Lower GFR, hyperkalemia (can also cause metabolic acidosis)

46
Q

What are some causes of high anion gap metabolic acidosis?

A

Glycols (ethylene or propylene glycol), Oxyproline (derivative of acetaminophen), uremia, L-lactate, D-lactate, methanol, aspirin, renal failure, ketoacidosis

47
Q

What group is affected by rhabdoid tumors and what is the prognosis?

A

Infants, and they are highly aggressive despite treatment

48
Q

Which kidney cells produce EPO?

A

Peritubular interstitial cells

49
Q

Describe the serum potassium and pH in a patient with significant hyperaldosteronism

A

Hypokalemia and high bicarb

50
Q

Which type of kidney stone is radiolucuent?

A

Uric acid stones

51
Q

What are the three main types of channels in the PCT?

A

Na+/H+ antiporter, simple Na+ channels, and Na+/organic solute cotransporters

52
Q

What is the the most rapidly effective IV treatment for EKG changes caused by hyperkalemia?

A

IV calcium

53
Q

Why does the plasma K+ concentration contributes to the resting membrane potential of cells?

A

The permeability across the membrane is higher for K+ than it is for Na+

54
Q

What sort of depositions do we see in Henoch-Sch_nlein purpura?

A

IgA subendothelial deposits

55
Q

What are some histological findings of acute tubular necrosis?

A

Swollen tubular epithelium, interstitial edema, dilated convoluted tubules

56
Q

How is pH calculated from serum bicarb and PCO2?

A

pH = 6.1 + log [HCO3-] / 0.03 PCO2

57
Q

How much K is in a standard 70 kg person?

A

4000 mEq

58
Q

What is the best treatment for severe diarrhea hypotension in areas where there is no access to intravenous fluids?

A

Oral rehydration therapy of water with glucose, NaCl, bicarb, and KCl

59
Q

How does clay ingestion cause hypokalemia?

A

It sticks to the gut wall and traps K+, preventing the ingestion of potassium.

60
Q

Which three classes of drugs can really mess with glomerular filtration regulation?

A

NSAIDs, ACEIs, and ARBs

61
Q

What are the three main causes of isotonic volume depletion?

A

Hemorrhage, sepsis, and CHF

62
Q

What sort of urological cancer does schistomiasis predispose patients to?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

63
Q

Is mesoblastic nephroma malignant or benign?

A

Benign

64
Q

55-year-old man with blood in his urine. The light microscopy shows a total of 12 glomeruli of which four show global sclerosis and two contain cellular crescents. The remaining glomeruli appear normal. There is no staining by immunofluorescence. What is the best diagnosis?

A

Pauci-immune glomerulonephritis

65
Q

What has been shown in clinical trials to reduce the progression of chronic renal failure?

A

ACE inhibitors to reduce proteinuria

66
Q

What are some examples of factors leading to a complicated UTI?

A

Pregnancy, male sex, diabetes, urinary tract instrumentation, anatomic abnormalities, immunosuppression

67
Q

What types of glomerulonephritidies present with low serum C3?

A

MN, PSGN, DPGN, cryoglobulinemia

68
Q

With a substance that is freely filtered/secreted maximally, what will happen to its clearance as you raise the plasma concentration?

A

It will decrease and approach the clearance of inulin

69
Q

Reasons for diuretic refractoriness

A

Low oncotic pressure, too much dietary salt, impaired kidney function, pre-renal azotemia

70
Q

Adenocarcinoma of the bladder is associated with what?

A

Persistent urachus and exstrophy

71
Q

What is the big pathogenic finding of diabetic nephropathy?

A

BM thickening and mesangial proliferation

72
Q

Which nephropathy gives subepithelial “spike-and-dome” or “diffuse deposits”?

A

Membranous nephropathy

73
Q

What causes intracapillary lipids with non-specific trapping of plasma proteins?

A

FSGS

74
Q

What causes intramembranous deposition of C3?

A

Type II MPGN

75
Q

What is suggested by the finding of hemosiderin laden macrophages?

A

Hemolysis

76
Q

Carcinoma in situ of the bladder has which characteristics (cellular and nuclear morphology)?

A

Flat, non-invasive; high-grade nuclear atypia

77
Q

What is the embryonal origin of podocytes?

A

Primitive renal tubule epithelium

78
Q

What is a renal corpuscle?

A

The initial blood-filtering component of a nephron

79
Q

Crescent formation is most typically associated with which finding?

A

RBC casts

80
Q

What is the prognosis for patients with thin basement membrane disease?

A

Benign; they will likely maintain kidney function for their whole lives

81
Q

What kidney issue can multiple myeloma cause?

A

Renal failure caused by tubulointerstitial nephritis

82
Q

Which cancer can you treat with BCG?

A

Bladder carcinoma

83
Q

What toxins can cause ATN?

A

Aminoglycosides, cisplatin, Hg, Pb, other heavy metals

84
Q

What cells are in muddy brown casts?

A

Epithelial cells

85
Q

Which kinds of bacteria almost never cause UTIs?

A

Staph

86
Q

Which foods have the saltiest content?

A

Canned foods

87
Q

Low magnesium causes what electrolyte abnormality?

A

Hypokalemia

88
Q

What disease causes mesangial and endocapillary proliferation with lobular accentuation and double contoured capillary walls?

A

MPGN Type I

89
Q

Name four causes of renal papillary necrosis

A

Sickle cell disease or trait, analgesic use, diabetes mellitus, and severe pyelonephritis

90
Q

What finding is associated with thrombotic micropathy?

A

Thrombocytopenia

91
Q

“Free access to water” means what about someone’s electrolyte levels?

A

They’ll normalize

92
Q

What are the four signs of CKD?

A

Hematuria, proteinuria, low GFR, hypertension

Nephrology (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions