Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Physl 210 B > Renal, Reproductive, Endocrine Physl > Flashcards

Renal, Reproductive, Endocrine Physl Flashcards

1
Q

5 functions of the kidneys?

A 
Regulate blood pressure and volume
Maintain acid-base balance
Excrete waste
Gluconeogensis
Secrete various hormones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Waste products excreted by kidneys?

A

Urea, uric acid, bilirubin, creatinine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 hormones secreted by the kidneys?

A

Erythropoetin
Renin
1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which fluid do the kidneys regulate? What are the components of it?

A

Extracellular fluid: plasma, ISF, CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Proportion of body’s intracellular to extracellular fluid

A

40% intracellular, 20% extracellular (total 60% of body weight is water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Relative Na, K, Cl, bicarbonate, phosphate concentrations in ECF vs ICF

A

Na, Cl and bicarbonate have higher concentrations in ECF

K and phosphate..ICF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aquaporins

A

Water channels in the plasma membrane, allowing for rapid diffusion of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the water concentration of a solution depend on?

A

The number of solute particles in that solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Osmolarity

A

The number of solutes per volume of solution,expressed in moles per litre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A region with lower osmolarity has a higher or lower water concentration?

A

Higher water concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Diffusion

A

Solute particles move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Diffusion is due to what?

A

Random thermal motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Osmosis

A

Net diffusion of water across a semi permeable membrane from a region of high water concentration to a region of low water concentration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Semi-permeable membrane

A

Allows water to cross, not any solutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Osmotic pressure & why it is important in cells?

A

Opposing pressure required to stop osmosis completely. It will stop water from flowing into the cell, and prevent the cell from bursting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Tonicity

A

Determined by the concentration of non-penetrating solutes of an extracellular solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Non-penetrating solutes

A

Solutes that do not enter the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Isotonic

A

Intracellular and extracellular solute concentrations(osmolarity) and water concentrations are the same. No net movement of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hypertonic

A

Extracellular environment has a higher solute concentration (osmolarity) than intracellular environment. Water moves out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hypotonic

A

Intracellular environment has a higher solute concentration (osmolarity) than extracellular environment. Water moves into cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Movement of fluid in absoption

A

Fluid moves from ISF to plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Movement of fluid in filtration

A

Fluid moves from plasma to ISF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Capillary hydrostatic pressure

A

Pressure exerted by fluid against capillary wall causing some of the fluid to move into ISF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

A

Pressure of ISF on the walls of the capillary, causing movement of fluid into capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do plasma proteins in plasma affect osmotic force?

A

A lot of plasma proteins in plasma means lower water concentration inside capillary compared to outside, so water tends to be pulled into capillary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do plasma proteins in ISF affect osmotic force?

A

Fluid will tend to be drawn into ISF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Starling forces

A

The 4 forces (Sum of the 2 outgoing forces minus the 2 ingoing forces) that determines the net filtration pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which end has higher absorption/filtration? Why?

A

Venous end has more more absorption. Net filtration pressure is negative so fluid moves into capillary.
Arterial end has more filtration. Net filtration pressure is positive so fluid moves out of capillary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Hilum

A

Inner concave part of kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Ureters

A

Drain urine from kidneys to bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bladder

A

Sac that stores urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Micturation

A

Releasing urine outside the body; urination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

2 regions of the kidney

A

Outer: cortex
Inner: medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Nephron

A

Functional unit of the kidney. Urine is made here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Renal corpuscle and structure

A

Bulb-like structure with loops of capillaries

Composed of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Renal tubule segments

A

Proximal convolutes tubule
Loop of Henle
Distal convoluted tubule
Collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Function of renal corpuscle

A

Initial filtering of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Podocytes

A

Cells which come in contact with glomelular capillaries; have foot-like processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Development of renal corpuscle

A

Nephron develops as a tube that has no opening
Tubule invaginates and basal lamina is trapped between epithelial cells and epithelial layer
Epithelial cell layer differenciates into parietal and visceral layers
Outer layer does not fuse with inner layer, space left between them
Parietal layer flattens into wall of Bowman’s capsule and visceral layer becomes podocyte cell layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Parietal vs visceral layer

A

Parietal- outer layer of epithelial cells

Visceral- layer closest to glomelular capillaries; podocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Fenestration importance?

A

Allows for filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Basement membrane

A

Gel like mesh structure composed of collagen proteins and glycoproteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Purpose of foot preojections

A

Wrap around capillaries and leave slits in them, allowing for greater SA for filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

2 types of nephrons

A

Cortical and juxtamedullary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What parts are found in the cortex?

A

Tubule segment, collecting duct, DCT, PCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What parts are found in the medulla?

A

Loops of henle, ascending limb, renal corpuscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Difference between cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons

A

They both perform filtration,absorption and secretion but the juxtamedullary nephrons additionally create osmotic gradients to regulate the concentration of urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Afferent arteriole

A

Brings blood into glomerular capillary network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Efferent arteriole

A

Blood exits glomerulus through it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Peritubular capillaries

A

Found around the PCT. They fuse together to form renal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Vasa recta

A

Capillaries found mostly associated with the juxtamedullary nephrons in medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Steps in urinary production

A

Glomerular filtration
Tubular absorption
Tubular secretion
Urinary excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Glomerular filtration

A

Fluid in blood is filtered across capillaries of glomerulus and into Bowmans capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Tubular reabsorption

A

Movement of a substance from tubule to blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Tubular secretion

A

Movement of non-filtered substances from capillaries to tubular lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Urinary excretion

A

Blood is filtered at glumeruli and urine excreted from body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What can move from glomerular capillaries to Bowmans capsule? What cannot?

A

Water, electrolytes, glucose, waste products.

Plasma proteins and blood cells cannot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Ultrafiltrate

A

Cell free fluid that has come into Bowman’s space. Contains mostly all the substances at the same concentrations as in the plasma and in the filtrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Proteinuria

A

Proteins that weren’t supposed to pass through filtration barrier end up in the filtrate and urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

A

Hydrostatic pressure of the blood found in glomerular capillaries. Pushes fluid into Bowman’s space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Bowman’s space hydrostatic pressure

A

Hydrostatic pressure of fluid in Bowman’s space. Pushes fluid in glomerular capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Osmotic force due to proteins in the plasma

A

Due to plasma proteins; there is high solute concentration in capillaries due to presence of these proteins and less water, so this causes movement of fluid from Bowman’s capsule to capillaries (water follows solute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which forces oppose and favour filtration?

A

Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure favours filtration.
Bowmans space hydrostatic pressure and osmotic force due to proteins in plasma oppose filtration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How to determine glomerular pressure

A

Sum of the 3 pressures subtracted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Net filtration is always…?

A

Positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which factor would contribute to increased glomerular filtration rate?

A

Increased blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which factor would contribute to decreased glomerular filtration rate?

A

Increase in protein concentration in plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Fraction of volume entering glomerular capillaries that is filtered?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Volume of fluid excreted?

A

<1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Glomerular filtration rate? What are the numbers?

A

The volume of fluid filtered from the glomerulus into the Bowmans capsule per unit time.
125mL/min or 180L/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Factors affecting GFR?

A

Blood pressure
Neural and endocrine control
Permeability of corpuscular membrane
Surface area available for filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Autoregulation

A

Allows GFR to remain relatively constant despite large changes in arterial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Autoregulation is regulated by changes in what?

A

Myogenic reflex and tubuloglomerular effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Effect of constriction of afferent arteriole on GFR?

A

Decreased glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure, therefore decreased filtration rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Effect of constriction of efferent arteriole on GFR?

A

Volume of blood builds up in glomerular capillaries so increased hydrostatic pressure and increased filtration rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Effect of dilation of efferent arteriole on GFR?

A

Decreased glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure, decreased rate of filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Effect of dilation of afferent arteriole on GFR?

A

Increased blood flow, increased hydrostatic pressure increased filtration rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Mechanisms which change arteriolar resistance?

A 
Myogenic responses (muscle contracting/relaxing due to changes in pressure)
Hormones/neurotransmitters
Tubular glomerular feedback (controls the autoregulatory processes and affect GFR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Juxtaglomerular apparatus

A

Specialized structure formed by the distal convoluted tubule and glomerular afferent arteriole
Next to the glomerulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

3 cell types that regulate GFR

A

Macula densa
Juxtaglomerular cells
Mesangial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Macula densa

A

Cells on the wall of distal tubule where the ascending limb is beggining to form the distal tubule.
Change afferent arterial resistance by paracrine effects. (adenosine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What do macula densa sense?

A

Increase Na load and increased fluid flow through distal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What do macula densa secrete?

A

Vasoactive compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Juxtaglomerular cells

A

Sit on top of afferent arteriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Juxtaglomerular cells release what?

A

Renin, which controls afferent arteriole resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Juxtaglomerular cells are innervated by?

A

Sympathetic nerve fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Mesangial cells

A

Found in the triangular portion between afferent and efferent neurons. Allow podocytes to contract, and control filtration surface area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Which cells are NOT considered as part of the JGA?

A

Mesangial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism

A

Increase in GFR
Increase in flow
Flow past macula densa increases
Paracrine factors secreted from macula densa and act on afferent arteriole
Afferent arteriole constricts and resistance increases
Glomerular hydrostatic pressure drops
GFR decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Filtered load and how to calculate it

A

Amount of substance filtered by kidneys per day; how much load is filtered into Bowmans capsule
GFR x concentration of the substance in plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

If substance excreted in urine is less than filtered load, what occured?

A

Reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Is substance excreted in urine is more than filtered load, what occured?

A

Secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What happens when a substance is filtered and secreted?

A

20% of substance filtered at Bowman’s space, 80% moves in peritubular capillaries. As that small amount was being filtered, most of the substance ended up being secreted into urine. Body did not absorb any of substance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What happens when a substance is filtered and partially reabsorbed?

A

20% of substance filtered at Bowman’s space, 80% moves in peritubular capillaries. As that small amount was being filtered, the some was also being reabsorbed back into peritubular capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What happens when a substance is filtered and completely reabsorbed?

A

20% of substance filtered at Bowman’s space, 80% moves in peritubular capillaries. As that small amount was being filtered, all of it ended up being reabsorbed by the peritubular capillaries. NONE was excreted in urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Inulin

A

Polysaccharide found in plants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Inulin renal handling

A

Filtered ONLY. Excreted completely in urine so no secretion or reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Creatinine renal handling

A

Filtered for the most part

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Electrolytes renal handling

A

Filtered and partially reabsorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Glucose and amino acids renal handling

A

Filtered and completely reabsorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Organic acids and bases renal handling

A

Substance completely secreted into urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

PAH

A

Organic acid that undergoes filtration and secretion

Measures renal plasma flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

How much % of water is reabsorbed?

A

99%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How much % of Na is reabsorbed?

A

99.5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

How much % of glucose is reabsorbed?

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

How much % of urea is reabsorbed?

A

44%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

How is glucose vs water and Na reabsorption regulated?

A

Glucose is not physiologically regulated while the body regulates the reabsorption of water and Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

2 pathways of reabsorption

A

Diffusion and mediated transport (major component involving transporters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Transepithelial transport and its pathway

A

Substance will move from the tubular lumen to the interstitial space and into peritubular capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

How does Na move across luminal surface?

A

Passively down conc gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

How does Na move out of the cell across basolateral membrane?

A

Active transport using ATPase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

How does Na move into peritubular capillaries?

A

Bulk flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Reabsorption of Na by mediated transport

A

On basolateral membrane: transport of Na mediated by Na/K pump
On apical membrane: influx of Na caused by diffusion into the cell which has lower conc of NA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Clearance of zero

A

Refers to NO glucose present in urine because all filtered glucose is reabsorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

In the proximal tubule glucose is reabsorbed by?

A

Active transport on luminal side by SGLT

Facilitated diffusion on basolateral side using GLUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Glucosuria

A

Above renal threshold glucose appears in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How does SGLT work?

A

Uses the inwardly directed Na gradient as “energy” to move glucose into cell from a low to high concentration. This is secondary active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Glucose crosses basolateral membrane using what?

A

GLUT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Relationship between plasma glucose concentration and filtration rate of glucose?

A

Linear relationship; proprotional. When plasma glucose concentration increases, filtration rate increases also

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Relationship between plasma glucose and reabsorption of substance?

A

Initially linear, until 300mg/100mL plasma. Then the graph plateaus because it hit the transport maximum. No more glucose can be reabsorbed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Transport maximum. What does it cause on graph?

A

All SLGT proteins that transport glucose from lumen to peritubular capillaries are saturated. Binding sites are all occupied therefore no more glucose can be absorbed, resulting in plateau on graph.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Relationship between plasma glucose and excretion rate of glucose?

A

Normally glucose should not be found in urine. Only happens if the body’s limit for handling glucose has been reached (at 300mg/mL)
So graph starts and is linear once it hits 300 on x axis, since this is the renal threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Renal threshold

A

300 mg/mL

Beyond this value, glucose comes out in the urine; there is no more reabsorption of glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Diabetes mellitus and cause

A

Capacity to reabsorb glucose is normal, but filtered load is greatly increased and is beyond threshold level to reabsorb glucose by tubules.
SGLT functions normally
Has too much glucose in blood due to insulin not functioning properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Renal glucosaria

A

Mutation of SGLT results in inability to transport glucose from luminal side to peritubular capillaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Urea reabsorption is dependant on?

A

Water reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Tubular secretion movement

A

From peritubular capillaries to tubular lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Tubular secretion involved mostly what ions?

A

H and K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Renal clearance

A

Measures the volume of plasma from which a substance is completely removed from the kidney per unit time
Bascially how well the kidneys remove substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Renal clearance formula

A

Concentration of substance in urine x volume of urine passed / Concentration of substance in plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is used to measure clearance?

A

Inulin, since it is completely excreted and not at all reabsorbed nor secreted.
Measuring clearance of inulin will provide GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Why does creatinine slightly overestimate GFR?

A

Because it undergoes slight secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Relationship between clearance and GFR

A

If clearance is greater than GFR of 125, substance is being secreted.
If clearnace is less than GFR of 125, substance is being reabsorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Relationship between GFR and conc of plasma for substance X for creatinine

A

GFR is inversely proportional to the plasma concentration of the substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Which ion is actively reabsorbed?

A

Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Which ion is transorted passively when Na is pumped out?

A

Cl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Which ion is secreted into tubules by cells of the distal and collecting ducts?

A

K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

PCT major function

A

Reabsorbs majority of water and non wastes

Solute secretion except for K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Loop of Henle major function

A

Creates osmotic gradient in interstitial space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

DCT major fucntion

A

Physiological control for water absorption

Homeostatic mechanisms of fine control of water and solute to make urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Sources of water gain

A

Ingested liquid

Oxidation of food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Sources of water loss

A

Sweating
Skin and airways (insensible)
GI tract, urinary tract, menustration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Water reabsorption is dependant on?

A

Na reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Which hormone regulated water absobtion?

A

ADH aka. vasopressin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What does ADH regulate and where does it take place?

A

Regulates specific aquaporins to allow water absorption in the collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Which part of nephron has NO water reabsorption?

A

Distal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Which parts has ADH control of aquaporins?

A

Large distal tubule and collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Descending vs ascending limbs water reabsorption

A

Ascending limb has NO water reabsorption while descending does.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Goal of environment of interstitial space?

A

To generate a hyperosmotic environment on the outside of the tubules (interstitial space)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Where does active transport of NaCl occur?

A

Ascending limb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Net result of ascending limb active transport and no water movement?

A

Creates a gradient difference between interstitial fluid and ascending limb. NaCl is allowed to accumulate in interstitial fluid without water moving into it since ascending limb is impermeable to water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Net result of descending limb

A

Water keeps moving out until equilibrium is reached, and osmolarity in interstitial space and surroundings is the same.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Multiplication

A

As you move down the descending limb, the osmolarity increases, so the gradient is multiplied as fluid moves down the loop and at the very bottom it is very hyperosmolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Why is counter current multiplier important?

A

To keep water in the body and produce a hypersmotic/concentrated urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Osmolarity at the top of the ascending limb?

A

Low since NaCl can move out but water cannot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

As water leaves collecting duct, osmolarity…?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What happens to water moving into interstitial space?

A

Juxtamedullary neurons create hyperosmolar gradient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Short vs long loops of Henle

A

Short- optimal for environments where lots of water does not need to be conserved
Long- optimal for environments where you need to conserve more water (hyperosmotic gradient is greater to conserve more water)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Vasa recta. Permeable to?

A

Blood vessels that run parallel to the loop of Henle. Permeable to both solutes and water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Counter current blood flow

A

Blood flows in through one direction and flows out the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Why is a hyperosmotic interstitial gradient created?

A

To absorb water in the interstitial space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Purpose of vasa recta

A

Maintains the salt gradient at each level that the nephron tubules have created

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

How does the vasa recta help in countercurrent exchange?

A

Blood flow in vasa recta serves as countercurrent exchangers by helping maintain the Na Cl gradient. Vasa recta doesn’t create any hyperosmolarity but maintains it because capillaries are freely permeable to ions, urea, water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What does the vasa recta maintain?

A

The gradient established by the Loop of Henle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

How much percent of original amount of urea is excreted?

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Importance of minimal uptake of urea by vasa recta and recycling?

A

Helps in maintaining high osmolarity in medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Mechanisms used to maintain hyperosmotic environment of medulla?

A

Counter current anatomy and opposing fluid flow in loops of Henle
Reabsorption of NaCl in ascending limb
Impermeability of ascending limb to water
Trapping urea in medulla
Hairpin loops of vasa recta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Diuresis

A

Producing a large volume of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Antidiuresis

A

Reduction/supression of excreting a large amount of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

What type of hormone is ADH?

A

Peptide hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

What type of cells make ADH and where are they found?

A

Neurosecretory cells in hypothalamus. Found in the supraoptic nucleus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

AQP1

A

Water channels found in proximal convoluted tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

AQP2,3,4

A

Water channels found in the collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Which aquaporin types are regulated by ADH?

A

AQP2 is. AQP3 and 4 are not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

ADH binds to receptor on cell, and through what mechanism are transcription factors activated and AQP2 regulated?

A

G protein coupled mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Water moves across apical membrane through…?

A

AQP2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Water moves out basolateral membrane through…?

A

AQP3,4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What happens when there are low levels of ADH?

A

AQP2 channels are recycled by endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What happens in the absence of ADH?

A

Leads to diuresis because theres not enough AQP2 channels in luminal membrane of collecting duct so the cells are almost impermeable to water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Large amounts of urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Central diabetes insipidus

A

Failure to release ADH from posterior pituitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Regular release of ADH but the hormone does not function properly. May be problem with the signalling pathway or cells within nephron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

When ADH is increased…

A

AQP2 levels increase and more water is reabsorbed (pee less)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

When ADH is decreased…

A

AQP2 levels decrease and more water is excreted (pee more)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Osmolarity gradient for dry/water deprived conditions?

A

Steep gradient, ADH will work to retain water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Osmolarity gradient for excess water conditions?

A

Not a steep gradient. More water is excreted in urine than absorbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Water diuresis

A

Only water is excreted with no extra solutes in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Osmotic diuresis

A

Excess solute in urine is always associated with large amounts of water excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Na is never what? What happens instead?

A

Never secreted into renal tubules. It is EXCRETED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Low Na in plasma: short term regulation?

A

Baroreceptors regulate GFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

Low Na in plasma: long term regulation?

A

Aldosterone helps facilitate Na reabsorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

High Na in plasma regulation?

A

ANP regulates GFR and inhibits Na reabsorption.

Also inhibits aldosterone actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Baroreceptors

A

Used for short term regulation of low plasma volume (reflection of low Na levels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Where are baroreceptors located?

A

Carotid sinus, aortic arch, major veins, intrarenal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

How do baroreceptors work?

A

Sense changes in blood volume, peripheral resistance,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Where is baroreceptor info processed?

A

Medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

Aldosterone

A

Steriod hormone that regulates Na reabsorption (acts to conserve it)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Aldosterone is secreted from?

A

Adrenal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

What triggers aldosterone release?

A

Low plasma volume due to low Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Aldosterone site of action

A

Cells of the distal tubule and collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

How does Na in diet regulate aldosterone secretion?

A

High amounts of Na: low aldosterone secretion

Low amounts of Na: high aldosterone secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Renin

A

Enzyme that senses low NaCl in blood.

Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Angiotensin II

A

Sensor that senses secretion of aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

Angiotensinogen to aldosterone pathway

A

Angiotensinogen to angiotensin I to angiotensin II (via ACE) and then angiotensin II acts upon adrenal cortex to stimulate release of aldosterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

ACE inhibitor

A

Manages high BP by blocking ACE enzyme. Reduces plasma Na concentration by blocking angiotensin I to II conversion and ultimately blocking aldosterone release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Most important trigger for release of aldosterone?

A

Renin-angiotensin mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

Renin-angiotensin mechaism initiated in reponse to..?

A

Sympathetic stimulation of renal nerves
Decreased filtrate osmlarity
Decreased BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Juxtaglomerular cells

A

Mechanoreceptors on the wall of afferent arteriole.
Sense plasma volume
Secrete renin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Macula densa

A

Chemoreceptors on wall of DCT

Sense NaCl load of filtrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

What do macula densa do when Na concentration decreases in the filtrate?

A

They sense it and release signalling molecules, which stimulate renin release by juxtaglomerular cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

3 factors affecting renin release?

A

Sympathetic input from extrarenal baroreceptors
Intrarenal baroreceptors
Signals from macula densa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

ANP

A

Synthsized and secreted by cardiac atria.

Important for regulating high levels of Na

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Site of ANP action?

A

On cells of several tubular segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

What does ANP do?

A

Inhibits aldosterone, so inhibits Na reabsorption

Increases GFR and Na excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

What stimulates ANP secretion?

A

Increased Na concentration
Increased blood volume
Atrial distension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

K concentration is regulated where?

A

Cortical collecting ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Hyperkalemia

A

Excessively high concentration of K in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

K levels physiologically regulated by? How?

A

By aldosterone. When there is a high extracellular K concentration, aldosterone acts to increase secretion of K in urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

ADH secretion is directly sensitive to what?

A

Extracellular K level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

What can happen with pH changes? (4)

A

Changes in shape of proteins
Neuronal activity changes
K ion imbalances
Irregular cardiac beats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Volatile acid vs non volatile

A

Volatile acids can be converted into gases and then eliminated by exhaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Volatile and non volatile acids produced in our body?

A

Volatile: CO2
Non: phosphoric and sulfuric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Sources of H gain?

A

Generation of H from CO2
From non volatile acids
Loss of bicarbonate in diarrhea
Loss of bicarbonate in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Sources of H loss?

A

Vomiting
In urine
Hyperventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Buffer

A

Substance that binds to H and forms a H buffer conjugate

Weak acid+its conjugate base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Extracellular buffer example

A

Bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Intracellular buffers examples

A

Phosphate ions

Hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Acid base balance formula

A

CO2+H2OH2CO3H + HCO3-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

What happens when respiration rate is not high enough?

A

Passage of blood through peripheral tissues generate H

230
Q

Which organ plays a short term role in pH regulation?

A

Lungs

231
Q

Increased H conc causes what?

A

Stimulates ventilation

232
Q

Decreased H conc causes what?

A

Inhibits ventilation

233
Q

Which organ plays a long term role in pH regulation?

A

Kidneys

234
Q

When one H ion is lost from body…what happens

A

One HCO3 is gained

235
Q

Alkalosis. What happens after

A

Decrease of plasma H. Kidneys excrete more bbicarbonate

236
Q

Acidosis. What happens after

A

Increase of plasma H.

Kidneys make new bicarbonate and send it to blood

237
Q

Reabsorption of HCO3: mechanism I

A

Extra H binds to intracellular buffer HPO4
HCO3 is still generated by tubular cells and diffuses into plasma
Net gain of HCO3

238
Q

Reabsorption of HCO3: mechanism II

A

Only cells from proximal tubule are involveed
Uptake of glutamine
NH4 and HCO3 are formed
NH4 is actively secreted by counter transport into lumen
HCO3 is added to to plasma

239
Q

Initial buffer and what happens when its depleted (acidosis)

A

Biacarbonate. Then phosphate and then glutamine metabolism

240
Q

Respiratory acidosis caused by? How does kidney compensate?

A

Result of decreased ventilation. Increase blood PCO2.

Kidney secretes H and lowers plasma H conc.

241
Q

Respiratory alkalosis caused by? How does kidney compensate?

A

Result of hyperventilation. Decrease blood PCO2. High altitudes. Kidney excretes HCO3

242
Q

Metabolic acidosis

A

Occurs in diarrhea, severe excersise. Results in increased ventilation and increased H secretion

243
Q

Metabolic alkalosis

A

Occurs after prolonged vomiting

Results in decreased ventilation and increased HCO3 excretion.

244
Q

Functions of the reproductive system

A

Provides gametes for procreation
Mating
Fertilization

245
Q

Function of gonads

A

Produce the gametes

246
Q

What are the gonads of the male reproductive system?

A

Testis

247
Q

Scrotal sac & what is contained in it?

A

Found outside the body. Contains testes, blood vessels, nerves

248
Q

Importance of countercurrent blood flow?

A

Cools the blood before it enters testes. Heat from arterial blood is passed to cooler venous blood

249
Q

Why are testes housed outside the body?

A

So that the temperature is maintained at least 2 degrees below core body temp. This is necessary for optimal spermatogenesis.

250
Q

Spermatic cord

A

Passes through a slit in the abdomen down into scrotal sac.

Combination of vas deferens, blood vessels, nerves

251
Q

Testes during gestation period

A

Present in abdominal cavity at 8 weeks

252
Q

Testes first phase of descending

A

During 8-12 weeks testes will move down towards inguinal canal

253
Q

Second phase of testes descending

A

Between month 7-9 testes pass through inguinal canal and rest in the scrotum

254
Q

Seminiferous tubules

A

Site of sperm production

Contain a lumen and many spermatogenic cells

255
Q

Mumps virus

A

Causes the lumen to become much bigger making the spermatogenic cells appear small. This affects spermatogenesis

256
Q

Leydig cells/interstitial cells

A

Found in connective tissues surrounding seminiferous tubules.
Produce testosterone

257
Q

Sertoli cells

A

Epithelial cells lining the circular seminiferous tubule

Help in sperm development

258
Q

Smooth muscle cells of testes

A

Muscle like

Contractile properties which help move sperm forward

259
Q

Tight junctions of testes

A

Do not let infections or anything that may harm sperm through
Create and invisible ring-like structure that is impermeable.
Helps in forming the blood-testis barrier

260
Q

Sertoli cells: 11 functions

A

Support sperm development
Secrete luminal fluid for sperm housing
Secrete androgen binding protein under influence of FSH
Androgen buffer
Maintains androgen concentration in lumen
Target cells for testosterone and FSH
Secrete paracrine factors that stimulate spermatogenesis
Secrete inhibin
Negative feedback loops for FSH
Phagocytosis of old sperm
Site of immunosuppression (Blood testes barrier)

261
Q

Testosterone and where is it produced?

A

Lipophilic, steroid hormone synthesized by cholesterol.

Principally produced by the testes in males

262
Q

Progesterone

A

Intermediary hormone synthesied from cholesterol. May be converted to mineralcorticoids, glucocorticoids, or androgens depending on enzymes present.

263
Q

Action of testosterone?

A

Influences gene transcription and protein synthesis to produce response in target cell

264
Q

DHT

A

Maintains sexual characteristics and tissues, like prostate gland and secondary male sex characteristics

265
Q

How is testosterone converted into estrogen? Where does this happen?

A

By aromatase

In the brain, testes, adipose tissue, liver

266
Q

Plasma testosterone levels before birth

A

High peak of testosterone and then levels decrease until birth

267
Q

Plasma testosterone levels after birth

A

Right after birth there is a peak but then levels decrease through childhood

268
Q

Plasma testosterone levels from adolescence to adulthood

A

Slowly increase and remain high throughout adulthood.

Slowly start declining around age 40

269
Q

What is pulsatile secretion and why is it necessary?

A

Secretion of GnRH every 90 min causing the pulsatile release of hormones. Occurs at the onset of puberty in males.
Important because cells of the anterior pituitary will not respond to constant GnRH, only pulsatile.

270
Q

High frequency pulses of GnRH results in predominant secretion of?

A

LH

271
Q

Low frequency pulses of GnRH results in predominant secretion of?

A

FSH

272
Q

LH

A

Acts on Leydig cells to stimulate testosterone secretion

273
Q

How is testosterone a negative feedback regulator?

A

Decreases the amplitude of pulsatile secretion, which results in down regulation of receptors for GnRH so less release of LH

274
Q

Effects of androgens (6)

A

Stimulate spermatogenesis
Promote development and maintenance of secondary sex characteristics
Increase sex drive
Proetin synthesis
Stimulate growth hormone secretion
Development of male reproductive structures

275
Q

What happens in spermatogenesis when the spermatogonium undergoes mitosis?

A

One cell remains as a spermatagonium to prevent depletion.

The other is called the primary spermatocyte and progresses on to become mature sperm

276
Q

What happens to primary spermatocyte?

A

Meiosis occurs and produces 2 secondary spermatocytes from that one.
Chromosome number is halved

277
Q

Each secondary spermatocyte gives rise to…?

A

2 spermatids, each with haploid number of chromosomes

278
Q

Final sperm are called? How many are formed?

A

Spermatozoa. 4, each with haploid chromosomes

279
Q

Where exactly does spermatogenesis occur in the sertoli cells?

A

From the basement membrane to the lumen, and occurs in the space between Sertoli cells

280
Q

Spermiogenesis

A

Last stage in spermatogenesis where spermatids mature into motile spermatozoa by aquiring flagella and cytoplasm is shedded to make a sperm shape

281
Q

Parts of sperm head

A

Nucleus

Acrosome

282
Q

Acrosome

A

Vesicle close to plasma membrane at tip of sperm head

Contains enzymes needed for fertilization

283
Q

Mid piece of sperm contains many..?

A

Mitochondria needs for movement of tail

284
Q

Tail of sperm movement

A

Whip like movements

285
Q

Where are sperm stored until ejaculation?

A

Vas deferens

286
Q

3 male accessory glands

A

Seminal vesicles, prostate glands, bulbourethral gland

287
Q

Seminal vesicles

A

Secrete alkaline fluid with enzymes, fructose, and prostaglandins

288
Q

Why is the fluid secreted by semincal vesicles alkaline?

A

To neutralize the highly acidic environment of female genital tract

289
Q

Prostaglandins function

A

To contract the female tract to to help sperm move forward

290
Q

Prostate gland

A

Secretes enzymes like PSA, and citrate

291
Q

PSA

A

Protease that breaks down proteins in the seminal clot making semen more fluid
PSA is also a biomarker for detection of abnormal growth of prostate tissue

292
Q

Bulbourethral glands

A

Secrete viscous fluid with mucous

293
Q

Male sexual response is controlled by?

A

ANS

294
Q

Function of seminal fluid?

A

Dilution of sperm

295
Q

Erection phase is mainly controlled by?

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

296
Q

When the penile tissue is not erected (relaxed state) what is the dominant control?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

297
Q

Emission phase is controlled by?

A

Sympathetic nervous system (thoracolumbar division)

Muscle contraction to move sperm to mix with seminal fluid

298
Q

Ejaculation phase is controlled by?

A

Somatic nervous system since its skeletal contraction

299
Q

What happens during erection?

A

When parasympathetic nerve is stimulated, NO is released, stimulating production of cGMP
cGMP acts to dilate smooth muscle
cGMP is broken down by phosphodiesterase and erection ceases

300
Q

How is erectile dysfunction treated?

A

Viagra, which acts as an inhibitor for phosphodiesteraase

301
Q

Site of fertilization?

A

Fallopian tube

302
Q

Site of sperm maturation?

A

Epididymis

303
Q

Capacitation

A

Physiological maturation of sperm cell membranes before fertilization can occur.

304
Q

Acrosomal reaction

A

Sperm must penetrate the zona pellucida of egg.
Acrosomal reaction is triggered by the binding of the sperm to zona pellucida, and pores are created so acrozomal enzymes can pass through and allow sperm to create a path through zp

305
Q

Fertility in men vs women

A

In men: sperm are always fertile

Women: only during ovulation

306
Q

Female gonads

A

Ovaries

307
Q

Uterine tubes

A

Transport ova from ovaries to uterus

Contain hair like structures called fimbrae to help with movement

308
Q

Movement of ovum through tube

A

Intially: peristaltic contractions

And then mostly ciliary actions

309
Q

Ectopic pregnancy

A

When cilia do not mvoe properly in ovi duct, resulting in fertilized egg in in uterine tube

310
Q

Perimetrium

A

Outer layer of uterus
Epithelial cells, connecting tissues
Protective

311
Q

Myometrium

A

Middle layer of uterus

Muscular

312
Q

Endometrium

A

Inner layer of uterus
Contains connective tissue and glycogen
Cyclic change every month

313
Q

Cervix

A

Canal leading to vagina

314
Q

Birth canal

A

Cervix and vagina

315
Q

Follicles

A

Densely packed shells of cells containing an immature oocyte at all stages prior to ovulation

316
Q

Ovary

A

Contains follicles in different stages of growth

317
Q

Primidorial, primary, and mature follicles?

A

Primadorial- very small
Primary- medium
Mature- large, with a fluid filled cavity

318
Q

Ovarian cycle

A

Development of ovarian follicle, rupture, and degeneration

319
Q

Uterine cycle

A

Menstral cycle

Essentially preparing endometrium for possible embroyo in case of fertilization

320
Q

Hormonal cycle

A

Controlled by FSH and LH, causing ovarian changes during monthly cycle

321
Q

Ovarian cycle phases

A 
Follicular phase:
First 14 days
Development of follicles
Ovulation:
On 14th day
Luteal phase:
Next 14 days
Egg is released
322
Q

Uterine cycle phases

A

Mentrual phase:
Bleeding, shdding of endometrial layer for about 5 days
Proliferative phase:
Layers of endometrium widen
Functional layer of endometrium develops
Secretory phase:
Further vascularization and development of uterine glands

323
Q

Which phases coincide?

A

Menstrual and proliferative phases of uterine cycle coincide with follicular phase of ovarian cycle.
Secretory phase coincides with luteal phase of ovarian.

324
Q

Oogenesis

A

Development of female gamete

325
Q

Primidorial follicles

A

Single oocyte surrounded by a single layer of epithelial cells

326
Q

How does follicle grow?

A

By mitosis of granular cells

327
Q

Primary follicle stage

A

Growth stage

Grnaular cells secrete proteins and glycopreoteins which forms a thick layer around the oocyte (zona pellucida)

328
Q

Preantral follicle

A

Mitosis of granula reult in many layers around oocyte
Early theca cells develop
No antrum

329
Q

Early antral follicle

A

Fluid filled spce in antrum begins to fill

330
Q

Mature follicles

A

Major growth due to growth of antral space

Cumulus oophorus

331
Q

Corpus albicans

A

Empty structure which functions as temporary endocrine structure. Eventually dissapates

332
Q

Which follicles become the dominant ones?

A

The one that secretes the highest amount of estrogen

333
Q

Hormonal cycle phases

A

Estrogenic phase: first 14 days
Predominant hormone is estrogen
Progestational phase: after ovulation
Prodominant hormone is progesterone

334
Q

FSH effect on granular cells

A

Increases rate of mitosis

335
Q

Zona pellucida

A

Seperates the oocyte from the inner layer of granulosa cells

336
Q

2 cell compartment theory

A

LH acts on its receptors in theca cells and androgens are secreted
Theca cells convert cholesterol to progesterone to androgens
Inside the granulosa cells, androgens are converted to estrogen

337
Q

How does FSH help with making estrogen?

A

Stimulates aromatase production, which helps convert androgens to estrogen in granulosa cells

338
Q

Granulosa cells secrete…?

A 
Antral fluid
Paracrine factors
Inhibin
Estrogen
Substance that forms zona pellucida
339
Q

Estrogen and feedback in the axis

A

Negative feedback- estrogen can dampen the amplitde of pulse generator or reduce responsiveness of pituitary to GnRH
Positive feedback- estrogen can act on hypothalamus to increase amplitude of pulse generator or increase responsveness

340
Q

Progesterone and feedback in the axis

A

Only has negative feedback- in the lack of estrogen it produces negative feedback on level of both the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus

341
Q

When does the second meitotic division occur?

A

After ovulation and only if the secondary oocyte is fertilized by male gamete

342
Q

Net result of oogenesis?

A

One primary oocyte with n number of chromosomes

343
Q

Net result of spermatogensis?

A

4 spermatozoa with n number of chromosomes

344
Q

Estrogen has an inhibitory effect on..? When?

A

Gonadotropin, when plasma concentrations of estrogen are low

345
Q

During early proliferative stages what happens with estrogen levels?

A

Estrogen levels increase

346
Q

Rapidly increasing estrogen causes sharp rise in?

A

LH, causing LH surge

347
Q

Estrogen at high levels causes?

A

Positive feedback effect on gonadotropins

348
Q

When is there a large increase in progesterone?

A

After the corpus luteum is formed

349
Q

Where does the estrogen in LH surge come from?

A

As dominant follicles secrete more and more estrogen, , estrogen levels increase

350
Q

Proliferative phase prepares for what?

A

Fertilized ovum

351
Q

What happens during proliferative phase?

A

Endometrial lining grows and develops
Smooth muscle layer thickens
Mucus secreted from cervical glands

352
Q

What happens during the secretory phase?

A

Blood supply increases
Glands enlarge and secrete glycogen-rich fluids
Cervical secretions are more sticky

353
Q

Effects of estrogen on ovaries?

A

Increased growth of follicles

Increased receptors for LH, FSH, estrogen, progesterone

354
Q

Effects of progesterone on ovaries?

A

Decreased FSH induced estrogen production

Decreased receptors for estrogen

355
Q

Effects of estrogen on uterus?

A

Increased growth of endometrium and myometrium
Increased blood flow and contractibility
Increased sensitivity to oxytocin

356
Q

Effects of progesterone on uterus?

A

Increased endometrial secretions
Decreased contractility
Decreased sensitivity to oxytocin

357
Q

Effects of estrogen on breasts?

A

Increased duct growth, fat deposition, size of areola

358
Q

Effects of progesterone on breasts?

A

Increased alveolar growth

359
Q

Zygote

A

Fertilized egg cell resulting from the union of male and female gametes

360
Q

Polyspermy

A

Multiple sperm fertilze one egg

361
Q

Pronucleus

A

Pair of gametic nuclei before their fusion leads to a formation of a nucleus of the zygote

362
Q

Morula

A

Made of many cells, and develops into blastocyst. Cells are totipotent at morula stage

363
Q

Identical twins arise from?

A

Division of totipotent morula cells

364
Q

Fraternal twins arise from?

A

Fertilization of 2 separate oocytes released during the same cycle

365
Q

Blastocyst

A

Cells lose their totipotency and start to differenciate

No zona pellucida

366
Q

Outer cell layer of blastocyst will become?

A

Fetal placenta

367
Q

Inner cell layer of blastocyst will become?

A

Embroyo

368
Q

What happens when blastocyst enters uterine site?

A

Inner cell mass has lost its totipotency and will develop into embroyo

369
Q

How does implantation occur?

A

Blastocyst will anchor itself to the wall of the endometrial lining
Sticky trophoblast cells anchor themselves the the endometrial lining

370
Q

Trophoblast cells divide into what 2 parts?

A

Syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast layers

371
Q

Syncytiotrophoblast layer

A

Outer trophoblast cells enter deep into the endometrial layer and start dividing and become fused. They form a syncytium (multiple nuclei but no cell membranes)

372
Q

Cytotrophoblast layer

A

Trophoblast layer closest to the inner cell mass becomes cytotrophoblast layer. These cells release hormones for the growing embroyo

373
Q

Decidual response

A

Response of the endometrial tissue where there is the appearance of blood vessels and glycogen secreting glands for the newly anchored embroyo or blastocyst/

374
Q

Fetal placenta develops from?

A

Develops from the same blastocyst that forms the fetus

375
Q

Maternal placenta develops from?

A

Maternal uterine placenta

376
Q

Amnion

A

Innermost membrane that encloses the embroyo

377
Q

Chorion

A

Embroyonic derived portion of placenta

378
Q

Chorionic villi

A

Finger-like projections on chorion that allow for faster transfer of materials between maternal and fetal blood

379
Q

Umbilical arteries

A

Carry deoxygenated blood from fetus to placenta

380
Q

Umbilical veins

A

Carry oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus

381
Q

Functions of the placenta

A

Temporary endocrine gland
Exchange tissue for gases, nutrients, waste
Filter/immunological barrier

382
Q

hCG during pregnancy released from? Level during pregnancy? Function?

A

Released from chorionic part of placenta.
Initial peak at 2 mo, then decreases and stays low during pregnancy.
Helps maintain corpus luteum

383
Q

hPL

A

Human placental lactogen
Anti-insulin like actions in mother, it allows plasma glucose levels to remain high, helping fetus take up more glucose through placenta

384
Q

Progesterone during pregnancy

A

Once corpus luteum degenerates, prog is released
Decreases uterine contractions
Inhibits secretion of LH or FSH
Stimulates growth of alveolar ducts

385
Q

Estrogen during pregnancy

A

Once corpus luteum degenerates, est is released
Causes growth of myometrium and mammary ducts
LH and FSH inhibited

386
Q

Positive feedback loop of oxytocin release

A

During childbirth, pressure of fetus head against cervix causes oxytocin release via anterior pituitary
Oxytocin acts on myometrial layer, binding to the tissue and causing more contractions

387
Q

Myometrial contractions are increased by…?

A

Oxytocin, prostaglandins, estrogen, stretch

388
Q

Cervical ripening

A

Process that makes the cervix soft, allowing for easier expansion

389
Q

Hormones influencing cervical ripening? how?

A

Relaxin and prostaglandins

Relaxin relaxes the cervix while progesterone inhibits contractions if mother is not ready to deliver yet

390
Q

Prolactin

A

Released from ant pit

Stimulates production of milk/lactation

391
Q

Lactogenesis

A

Cells in the breast tissue start making milk

392
Q

Oxytocin role in lactation?

A

Needed for milk ejection/ let down

393
Q

Galactapoesis

A

Maintenance of lactation while mother is breast feeding

394
Q

Alveolar epithelial ducts

A

Synthesize milk but CANNOT release milk

395
Q

Myoepithelial cells

A

Muscle like and have contractile properties to expel the milk

396
Q

Myoepithelial cells have receptors for?

A

Oxytocin

397
Q

Suckling process

A

Suckling stimulates mechanoreceptors (tactile receptors) in breast, signal sent to hypothalamus and oxytocin is released.Contraction occurs in myoepithelial cells of breast and milk is ejected.

398
Q

Dopamine role in suckling

A

Inhibits prolactin secretion

399
Q

2 Hormones that impose male characteristics?

A

Testosterone and AMH

400
Q

SRY gene

A

Present in males because of the Y chromosome

Allows testes to develop

401
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

XXY

Infertile

402
Q

Turners syndrome

A

Lack of X chromosome
XO
Streaked ovaries (flattened)

403
Q

Double genital duct system in males vs females

A

Wolffian ducts persist and Mullerian ducts regress in males

Mullerian ducts persist and Wolffian ducts regress in females

404
Q

MIH

A

Mullarian inhibiting hormone

Hormone present in only males that causes Mullerian duct to regress

405
Q

What causes development of the male internal genitalia?

A

Testosterone secreted from Leydig cells

406
Q

Teststerone is converted to what?

A

DHT by 5 alpha reductase

407
Q

What does DHT do?

A

Causes masculisation of male external genitalia

408
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

Genetically female (XX) but phenotype is male
Caused by too much androgens produced in fetal stage
Decreased cortisol, so increased ATCH, so adrenal androgens, so increased mascularization

409
Q

Androgen insensitivity disorder

A 
Genetically male (XY) but phenotype is female
Tissues were unresponsive to testosterone during development so Wolffian ducts cant develop
Male internal and external genitalia do not develop
410
Q

What triggers onset of puberty?

A

Increased secretion of GnRH causes more LH and FSH secreted

411
Q

Kisspeptin

A

Neuropeptide that acts on the cells that release GnRH

412
Q

Hormonal changes in menopause

A

Follicular depletion
Ovulation ceases eventually
Decreased estrogen and inhibin and progesterone
Increased FSH:LH ratio

413
Q

Nervous system vs endocrine system

A

Nervous system is rapid and short term regulation while endocrine system is slower but more sustained control over long term processes

414
Q

Exocrine glands

A

Glands that empty their secretions directly into body cavities or onto body surfaces via tubular ducts

415
Q

Endocrine glands

A

Ductless system that release secretions directly into bloodstream

416
Q

Endocrine signaling

A

Hormone released into bloodstream and acts on distant target sites

417
Q

Nervous signalling

A

NT is released into synapse close to target site

418
Q

Neuroendocrine signalling

A

Release secretions into a blood supply

419
Q

Hormone characteristics

A

Regulate homeostasis
High potency
Actions are mediated through specific receptors
Delay of response
Secreted irregularily in phases
Most are carried in blood by binding proteins

420
Q

Steroid hormones are derived from?

A

Cholesterol

421
Q

Protein hormones include?

A

Amines
Peptides
Proteins

422
Q

How does cholesterol enter the cell?

A

Bound to LDL

423
Q

What happens once cholesterol is in the cell?

A

Moves to mitochondria to eventually form pregnenolone and and be further modified into different steriod molecules.

424
Q

How is mRNA converted to a hormone?

A

mRNA, pre hormone, pro hormone, hormone

425
Q

Secretory vesicle

A

Vessel that mediates transport of cargo like NTs or hormones

426
Q

Secretory vesicle roles?

A 
Protects hormone from degredation
Resevoir
Provides a transport mechanism along microtubules and microfilaments
Release mechanism (exocytosis)
Provide for quantal release
427
Q

Roles of binding proteins?

A

Increase solubility and concentration of lipid soluble hormones
Increases size of hormone, protecting against degredation
Inactivates free hormones

428
Q

Negative feedback in regulating hormone secretion

A

Inhibits hormone secretion when circulating levels are high and increases when they are low

429
Q

Positive feedback in regulating hormone secretion

A

Rare, but there is a participation of negative feedback inhibitory signals that will terminate secretion rates

430
Q

Requirement for hormonal action

A

Binding of a hormone to specific receptor

431
Q

Nuclear receptors

A

Receptors located in nucleus

Produce effects by altering protein synthesis

432
Q

Cytoplasmic receptors

A

Receptor is found in intracellular transport

Provide a resevoir of the hormone within target site

433
Q

Protein hormones cannot cross the …? What must they do?

A

Cant cross the cell membrane. They must bind to membrane bound receptors

434
Q

Sensitization

A

Increase in affinity of a receptor

435
Q

Down-regulation

A

Cells down-regulate receptors in response to high hormone concentrations in the blood

436
Q

Up-regulation

A

Cells up-regulate receptors in response to low hormone concentrations in the blood

437
Q

Defects in rate of hormone synthesis is due to?

A

Problems with endocrine gland

438
Q

Defect in regulation of hormone is due to?

A

Problem in hormone action because hormone action requires feedback

439
Q

Defect in hormone action is due to?

A

Problem with target tissue

440
Q

Neurohypophosis/posterior pituitary

A

Down growth from the brain or hypothalamus

Neural tissue

441
Q

Anterior pituitary/adenohypophysis

A

Non neural tissue

Results from invagination of roof of mouth

442
Q

Intermediate lobe

A

Between the ant and post pituitary

443
Q

Infundibulum

A

Contains the axons of neurons in the hypothalamus and blood vessels

444
Q

Where is ADH produced?

A

Supraoptic nuclei

445
Q

Where is oxytocin produced?

A

Paraventricular nuclei

446
Q

Neurophysins

A

Transport ADH to neurosecretory granules or vesicles in the nerve

447
Q

Main stimuli for ADH secretion

A

Decrease in blood volume

Increase in blood osmolarity

448
Q

ADH secretion increased by?

A

Stress, heat, nicotine, caffeine

449
Q

ADH secretion decreased by?

A

Cold, alcohol

450
Q

Hypothalamic diabetes insipidus/central DI

A

Problem of ADH production

451
Q

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Problem of ADH action

452
Q

SIADH

A

Excess ADH due to problem of ADH production, feedback failure

453
Q

Poluria

A

Large amounts of dilute urine

454
Q

Polydipsia

A

Excessive fluid intake

455
Q

Hyponatremia

A

Excess ADH and decreased aldosterone

456
Q

Median eminence

A

Capillary bed which recieves axons from nuclei in the hypothalamus

457
Q

Hypothalamal-hypophyseal portal vessels

A

Venous or portal blood vessels which run into the anterior pituitary

458
Q

Short portal vessel

A

Blood vessel which comes from the capillary bed in the posterior pituitary

459
Q

Parvocellular neurons

A

Have small cell bodies and short axons

Produce neural secretions that are released into blood vessels down to anterior pituitary

460
Q

Magnocellular neurons

A

Large neuroendocrine cells located in hypothalamus

Synthesize ADH and oxytocin

461
Q

GnRH

A

Stimulates release of FSH and LH

462
Q

GHRH

A

Stimulates release of growth hormone(GH)

463
Q

TRH

A

Stimulates release of TSH and prolactin

464
Q

PRFs

A

Stimulate release of prolactin

465
Q

CRH

A

Stimulate corticotropin release

466
Q

SRIF

A

Inhibits release of GH and TSH

467
Q

PIFs. Example?

A

Inhibit release of TSH and PRL

Dopamine

468
Q

TSH

A

Stimulates thyroid gland

Secretes T3 and T4

469
Q

ACTH

A

Stimulates adrenal cortex

Secretes cortisol

470
Q

Somatomedins

A

Induce growth effects on soft tissues and bone

471
Q

How is GH release inhibited?

A

By Somatomedins
GH inhibits its own release
By products of lipolysis and glucose

472
Q

How do certain meals affects GH release?

A

Meals high in glucose or fatty acids supress GH release

Meals high in amino acids increase GH release

473
Q

Dwarfism

A

Due to GH deficiency in juveniles.

474
Q

Isolated growth hormone deficiency (Type I)

A

Defect in GH production

475
Q

Laron type dwarfism

A

Defect in GH action due to problem with GH receptors

476
Q

GH dwarfs vs thyroid dwarfs

A

GH dwarfs have normal body proportions just shorter in height, while thyroid dwarfs have body proprtions of an individual much younger than themselves

477
Q

Somatopause

A

GH deficiency in adults.
Decrease in lean muscle tissue and increase in fat tissue.
Thymic atrophy

478
Q

Acromegaly and symptoms

A 
Excess GH in adults. Adult does not grow in height, but hands, bones of face, etc widen and enlarge
Protruding jaw
Hirsutism (hair growth excessive)
Due to GH secreting tumour
Enlarged breast tissue in males
479
Q

What hormone inhibits prolactin secretion?

A

Progesterone

480
Q

Hyperprolactenemia. How to treat it?

A

Excess prolactin resulting in decreased libido, amenorrhea, gonadal dysfunction
Dopamine agonist for treatment

481
Q

Hypoprolactenemia

A

Deficiency in prolactin

Gonadal dysfunnction and impairment of lactation

482
Q

Pituitary diabetes

A

Excess of all anterior pituitary hormones

483
Q

Hypopituitarism

A

Deficiency in pituitary hormone production

484
Q

What do thyroid hormones do?

A

Increase metabolic rate and heat production
Enhance grwoth and CNS development
Enhance sympathetic activity

485
Q

Glycoprotein hormones

A

Contain sugar residues
Made of alpha and beta subunit
Promote receptor recognition and prevent degredation

486
Q

Basic unit of the thyroid gland?

A

Follicle

487
Q

Thyroglobulin, where is it synthesized and secreted?

A

Precursor for thyroid hormone biosynthesis
Synthesized in the follicular cells of rough ER
Secreted into the colloid
Contains numerus tyrosine residues

488
Q

The 2 thyroid hormones. Which is more active?

A

T3 (triiodothyrinine) and T4 (thyroxine)

T3 more active

489
Q

How is T4 a precursor hormone?

A

Degraded by deiodinase to T3 where iodine is lost from thyroxine

490
Q

Monoiodotyrosine

A

Produced by addition of 1 iodine attached to tyrosine

MIT

491
Q

Diiodityrosine

A

Addition of 2 iodines attached to tyrosine (DIT)

492
Q

Thyroid peroxidase

A

Responsible for attaching iodine to tyrosine on thyroglubulin, and for oxidizing iodides

493
Q

DIT on TG+MIT=?

A

T3

494
Q

DIT on TG+DIT=?

A

T4

495
Q

Thyroid binding globulin

A

Binds both T3 and T4 to be carried into blood

496
Q

Membrane bound receptors

A

Receptors that are linked to channels within the membrane

Binding of the hormone to the receptor opens the channel allowing glucose to enter

497
Q

Cytoplasmic receptors

A

Act as a resevoir of thyroid hormone in the target tissue

498
Q

Nuclear receptors

A

Affect gene transcription and protein synthesis

499
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

Caused by excess T3 and T4, due to problem with thyroids gland, pituitary gland or hypothalamus

500
Q

Primary problem caused by thyroid gland

A

Produces excess T3 and T4

Toxic goiter

501
Q

Secondary problem caused by pituitary gland

A

Increased TSH

Goiter

502
Q

Tertiary problem caused by hypothalamus

A

Increased TRH

Goiter

503
Q

Grave’s disease and symptoms

A

Most common type of hyperthyroidism caused by autoimmune disease in which antibodies develop against TSH receptor
Characteristics include goiter in neck, bulging of eyes, increased BMR, increased sympathetic nervous system activation, palpilations

504
Q

Hypothyroidism and symptoms

A

Caused by deficiency of I in diet

505
Q

Primary thyroid dysfunction

A

Decrease in thyroid hormone leading to increased TSH and goiter

506
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

A

Autoimmune disease where antibodies are created against T3 and T4; goitre

507
Q

Secondary hypothyrodism

A

Low levels of TSH are produced in pituitary gland

508
Q

Tertiary hypothyroidism

A

Low levels of TRH

509
Q

Cretinism

A

Hypothyroidism in utero

510
Q

Myxedemia

A

Hypothyroidism in adults due to accumulation of edema and hyaluronic acid under skin

511
Q

Steroid hormones are produced by?

A

Adrenal cortex

512
Q

Precurser hormone for aldosterone?

A

Corticosterone

513
Q

Only hormone to produce feedback inhibition is?

A

Cortisol

514
Q

Steroidogenesis

A

Cholesterol is converted to biologically active steroid hormones

515
Q

Adrenocorticotropin (ACTH)

A

Stimulates adrenal blood flow, adrenal growth, steroidogenesis

516
Q

ACTH and Beta LPH are made from?

A

POMC (propriomelanocortin)

517
Q

Increased POMC activity results in?

A

Increased MSH activity and increased skin pigmentation

518
Q

Glomerular zone of adrenal cortex

A

Produces aldosterone, no metabolism

outer zone

519
Q

Fascicular zone

A

Produces cortisol, intermediate metabolism

middle zone

520
Q

Reticular zone

A

Produces androgens; sex characteristics

inner zone

521
Q

Conn’s syndrome

A

Excess aldosterone leads to increased Na retention, therefore increased water retention leading to hypertension

522
Q

How does cortisol increase blood glucose?

A

Through anabolic effects on liver (glucogenesis) and catabolic effects on peripheral tissues

523
Q

Levels of cortisol throughout the day?

A

High first thing in the morning, decrease throughout the day and are lowest at the end of the day, rise during sleep

524
Q

Addisons disease

A

Defect in adrenal cortex. Cortisol is not made and there is no feedback inhibition
Levels of ACTH are very high
Increased skin pigmentation due to high POMC activity

525
Q

Secondary adrenal insufficiency

A

Defect at pituitary level…it does not make ACTH

Does not have increased POMC levels

526
Q

Primary adrenal insufficiency

A

Reduced cortisol secretion and reduced gluconeogenesis so hypoglycemia

527
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A

Prolonged exposure to cortisol caused by tumour

528
Q

Adrenal gland tumour

A

Produces high levels of cortisol adn cortisol inhibits ACHT production via feedback regulation

529
Q

Ectopic tumour

A

Can produce ACTH which stimulates cortisol production

530
Q

DHEA

A

Weak androgen synthesized in the zona reticularis

Can be converted into estrogen or testosterone

531
Q

Andrenogenital syndrome and symptoms

A

Biosynthetic pathways that make aldosterone and cortisol are deficient, and instead all the precursors that enter the pathway that makes DHEA
Masculiniation of female genitals
Hirsuitism

532
Q

2 hypercalcemic hormones that regulate Ca and P

A

PTH and vitamin D

Act to increase Ca levels in blood

533
Q

Hypocalcemic hormone that regulates Ca and P

A

Calcitonin

Acts to decrease Ca levels in blood

534
Q

Parathyroid hormone acts to

A

Increase plasma Ca at the expense of plasma phosphate

535
Q

PTH effect on kidney

A

Increased Ca reab, decreased P reab, increased vit D activation

536
Q

PTH target sites

A

Kidney
Bones
GIT

537
Q

Low levels of plasma Ca levels causes (what regarding PTH)

A

Stimulation of PTH secretion

538
Q

High levels of plasma Ca levels causes (what regarding PTH)

A

Inhibition of PTH

539
Q

Causes of hyperparathyroidism

A

Problem with parathyroid gland itself

Low blood Ca

540
Q

2 conditions that result in low blood Ca

A

Rickets (in children) and osteomalacia (adults)

541
Q

Trousseau’s sign

A

Hypoparathyroidism

Involuntary contraction of carpal muscles due to hypercalcemia and tetany

542
Q

Chvostek’s sign

A

Hypocalcemia
Trigeminal nerve along neck
Tetany and snarl

543
Q

Pseudohypoparathyroidism

A

Tissue insensitivity to PTH action (PTH receptors in tissue arent working)

544
Q

As concentration of blood plasma increases what happens to calcitonin secretion?

A

Increases

545
Q

Calcitonin in GIT

A

Calcitonin will directly inhibit Ca uptake

546
Q

Where is calcitonin made?

A

Thyroid gland in parafollicular cells (C cells)

547
Q

Photoisomerization occurs in response to?

A

UV light

548
Q

How is vitamin D synthesized?

A

By the addition of hydroxyl groups in the liver and then in the kidney to inactive state

549
Q

Effects of vitamin D

A

Increased plasma Ca and P concentration

550
Q

Vitamin D deficiency in kids vs adults

A

Kids: rickets
Adults: osteomalacia

551
Q

Vitamin D toxicity

A

Excess VD can result in tissue calcification which can lead to aneurysm

552
Q

Where is the endocrine gland found?

A

Within the organ called Islet of Langerhans or pancreatic islets

553
Q

Alpha cells secrete?

A

Glucagon

554
Q

Beta cells secrete?

A

Insulin

555
Q

Somatostatin

A

Made in the delta cells and acts as a hypothalamic releasing factor to inhibit secretion of TSH and GH
Also inhibits secretion of glucagon and insulin

556
Q

What happens when beta cells release insulin?

A

Inhibits alpha cells

557
Q

What happens when alpha cells release glucagon?

A

Stimulates alpha cells and delta cells

558
Q

Which nerves are involved in pancreatic islet stimulation?

A

From parasympathetic: vagus nerve

From sympathetic: splanchnic nerve

559
Q

Sympathetic stimulation effect on glucagon and insulin?

A

Increased glucagon decreased insulin

560
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation effect on glucagon and insulin?

A

Increased glucagon and insulin

561
Q

Insulin actions. Anabolic or catabolic?

A

Lower blood glucose
Promotes conversion of nutrients to stored form
Anabolic

562
Q

Glycogen actions. Anabolic or catabolic?

A

Increases blood glucose
Promotes breakdown of stored energy
Catabolic

563
Q

What happens regarding insulin when you ingest food?

A

Parasympathetic release of insulin

564
Q

What happens regarding insulin when you are stressed?

A

Sympathetic stimulation will inhibit insulin release

565
Q

Primary stimulus for insulin release?

A

High plasma glucose levels

566
Q

Primary stimulus for glucagon release?

A

Low plasma glucose levels

567
Q

Diabetes mellitus

A

Insulin deficiency and glycogen excess

568
Q

Type I diabetes mellitus

A

Autoimmune disease…body attacks beta cells

Treated with insulin injections

569
Q

Type II diabetes mellitus

A

Insulin resistance…body cant respond to insulin
Obesity occurs
Treated by regulating diet

570
Q

Insulin excess

A

Due to insulin secreting tumour

Reactive hypoglycemia

Physl 210 B (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions