Renal Pathology Flashcards

1
Q

Light/Immunoflourescence/Electron Microscopy Findings in Minimal Change Disease

A

Only EM finding: foot processes (podocyte) effacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Disease: Associated w/ dense subendothelial immune complex deposits, granular IF, “tram-track” apparance

A

Type 1 Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MGN) – nephritic/nephrotic; GBM splitting by mesangial ingrowth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Disease: associated w/ C3 nephritic factor, intramembranouse dense deposits

A

Type 2 Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis (MGN) – C3NF stabilizes C3 convertase (C3bBb) –> low serum C3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Average adult kidney weight

A

150g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What cell is the major glomerular barrier to protein loss in the urine?

A

Podocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This congenital renal disease is associated with increased risk later inlife for developing 2ndary FSGS due to overwork of the nephron

A

Unilateral renal agenesis –> overwork of nephron –> progressive glomerular sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Disease: X-linked dominant type IV collagen mutation –> thinning and splitting of GBM; EM: “basket-weave” appearance

A

Alport Syndrome – Nephritic Syndrome; “can’t see (retinopathy, lens dislocation), can’t pee (glomerulonephritis), can’t hear a bee (sensorineural deafness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Markedly reduced intrauterine urine production leads to ___

A

Potter sequence = Low urine production –> oligohydraminos –> compression –> low-set ears, small receding chin, beak-like nose, abnormally bent lower extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Renal hypoplasia definition and frequent association

A

Histologically normal kidney w/ less than 6 lobes; frequently oligomeganephronia (enlarged glomeruli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Horshoe kidney associated pathologies

A
  1. Renal infection (Pyelonephritis) – ureter obstruction
  2. Renal stones
  3. Hydronephrosis – ureter obstruction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Congenital Disease: Histo: undifferentiated tubules and ducts, mantles of undifferentiated mesenchyme (SmM and cartilage)

A

Renal Dysplasia – aplastic, multicystic, diffuse cystic, obstructive forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MCC of an abdominal mass in newborns?

A

Unilateral multicystic renal dysplasia = renal enlargement by multiple cysts –> irregular mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What part of the nephron does it affect?

  • -Adult AD PKD
  • -Autosomal Recessive PKD
A

–AD PKD = Anywhere – Glomerulus, PT, DT, CD

–AR PKD = Collecting Duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Earliest, most common presentation of AD PKD

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MCC of Neophrotic syndrome in:

  • -Caucasian Adults
  • -American Blacks
  • -Children
A

Caucasian Adults = Membranous Nephropathy

American Blacks = FGSG

Children = MCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Disease: EM: “spike and dome” appearance, subepithelial deposits

A

Membranouse Nepropathy = nephrotic presentation of SLE, diffuse capillary and GBM thickening, MCC in Caucasian adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

MCC of 2ndary nephrotic syndrome and end-stage renal disease in US

A

Diabetes –> Diabetic Glomerulonephropathy = Eosinophilic nodular glomerulosclerosis: mesangial expansion, GBM thickening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Disease: Associated w/ Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions

A

Diabetic Glomerulonephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Disease: Associated w/ effacement of podocyte foot processes in EM, but normal glomerulus in light microscopy and IF studies.

A

Minimal Change Disease – selective proteinuria (albumin)

–Corticosteroids –> remission w/ intermittent relapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Disease: Associated with VHL tumor suppressor gene deletion on chromosome 3

A

Renal Cell Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Disease: Risk factors include Schistosoma haematobium infection (Middle ease), chronic cystitis, smoking, chronic nephrolithiasis

A

SCC of Bladder = chronic irritation –> squamous metaplasia –> dysplasia –> SCC
—Presents with painless hematuria

22
Q

Disease: Associated w/ deletion of WT1 tumor suppressor gene

A

WAGR syndrome = Wilms tumor, Aniridia, Genital abnormalities, mental and motor Retardation

23
Q

Disease: Associated w/ mutations of WT1 tumor suppressor gene

A

Denys-Drash syndrome = Wilms tumor, progressive renal (glomerular) disease, male pseudohermaphroditism

24
Q

Disease: Associated w/ mutations in WT2 gene cluster, particularly IGF-2

A

Beckwith-Wiedmann syndrome = Wilms tumor, neonatal hypoglycemia, muscular hemihypertrophy, organomegaly (including tongue)

25
Disease: Classically presents w/ painless hematuria, multifocal "field defect" (recurring) tumors, risk factors include: naphthylamine, azo dyes (hair salon), cyclophosphamide or phnacetin
Urothelial Carcinoma
26
Characteristics of Flat vs. Papillary pathway of Urothelial Carcinoma
``` Flat = develops as high grade-flat tumor, early p53 mutations Papillary = develops as low-grade papillary tumor, progresses to high grade, no early p53 mutations ```
27
Disease: arises from a urachal remnant, cystitis glandularis, or exstrophy
Urinary adenocarcinoma (usually bladder) - -Urachal remnant = at dome of bladdre - -Cystitis glandularis = columnar metaplasia - -Exstrophy = congenital failure failure to form caudal portion of anterior abdominal and bladder walls
28
Disease: Hamartoma of blood vessels, smooth muscle, and adipose tissue
Angiomyolipoma -- increased frequency in Tuberous Sclerosis
29
Where does Renal Cell Carcinoma arise?
Epithelial cells of proximal kidney tubules
30
RCC can cause a varicocele on which side?
Left -- L spermatic vein leads drains into L renal artery (can be blocked in RCC) --R spermatic vein drains directly into IVC
31
This type of stone is treated with HCTz
Calcium oxalate/phosphate
32
Kidney stones of these 2 substances can form staghorn calculi
Ammonium magnesium phosphate = classical staghorn Cystine
33
Infection w/ urease positive organisms (Proteus, Klebsiella) can lead to this kind of nephrolithiasis
Ammonium magnesium phosphate -- forms in alkaline urine
34
This kind of kidney stone can't be seen in X-ray
Uric acid
35
Gene products affected in AD PKD vs. AR PKD
AD PKD = polycystin 1, 2 = Ca signalling normally inhibiting tubular growth AR PKD = fibrocystin = regular cell differentiation, proliferation and adhesion in collecting ducts
36
What congenital kidney disease is associated w/ berry aneurysms (family hx of death my aneurysm), hepatic cysts, and mitral valve prolapse?
AD PKD
37
Disease: Autosomal dominant defect leading to parenchymal fibrosis and shrunken kidney
Medullary Cystic Kidney Disease = cysts in medullary collecting ducts --> worsening renal failure
38
Which 2 parts of the nephron are most susceptible to ischemic damage?
1. Proximal tubule | 2. Medullary segment of TAL
39
Acute Tubular Necrosis causes what acid/base change?
1. Increased Anion gap metabolic acidosis (decreased excretion of organic acids (K-H antiport) 2. Hyperkalemia (decreased renal excretion)
40
Disease: IF microscopy shows linear pattern
Goodpasture syndrome (Type 2 hypersensitivity) = anti-basement membrane (type IV collagen) antibody; associated w/ HLA-DRB1
41
What diseases are associated with granular pattern in IF microscopy?
PSGN or Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis = immune complex deposition
42
In what disease does IgA immune complex deposit in mesangium of glomeruli?
``` IgA Nephropathy (Berger Disease) = most common nephropathy worldwide ---Childhood presentation of hematuria w/ RBC casts ```
43
What nephrotic syndrome has good response to steroids?
Minimal Change disease (MCD) | ---Poor response = FSGS, Membranous nephropathy, MPGN
44
What is the first change in the kidney in Diabetes Mellitus?
Nonenzymatic glycosylation of vascular basement membrane --> hyaline arteriolosclerosis (affecting efferents more than afferents) --> hyperfiltration injury --> microalbuminemia
45
What is 'thyroidization' of the kidney and when do you see it?
Atrophic tubules containing eosinophilic proteinaceous material resembling thyroid follicles - --Seen in Chronic Pyelonephritis - --May have waxy casts in urine
46
What is the most common cause of acute intrarenal azotemia?
Acute Tubular necrosis
47
What kind of acute renal failure? Urine osm = 500+ FENa = less than 1% BUN/Cr = 20+
Pre-renal azotemia = low renal blood flow --> low GFR | --> more reabsorption of fluid and BUN --> high ratio, low FENa
48
What kind of acute renal failure? Urine osm = less than 350 FENa = 2%+ BUN/Cr = less than 15
Intrinsic renal failure = Usually Acute Tubular Necrosis = patchy necrosis --> debris --> obstruction --> low GFR --> impaired BUN and Na reabsorption; --classic brown granular/epithelial casts
49
Urine osm, FENa, and BUN/Cr changes in Early vs. Long-standing Post-renal azotemia
Post-renal azotemia - -Early stage obstruction = decreased outflow --> forces BUN back into blood (high BUN/Cr ratio), normal tubular function (FENa less than 1%, high urine Osm) - -Long-standing obstruction = tubular damage --> impaired BUN and Na reabsorption (low BUN/Cr ratio, high FENa), inability to concentrate urine (low Urine osm)
50
When do you see fatty casts ("oval fat bodies")?
Nephrotic syndrome, where lipids are passes along with protein ---"Maltese cross" sign
51
When do you see WBC vs RBC casts?
RBC Casts = glomerulonephritis, malignant HTN | WBC Casts = tubulointerstitial inflammation, acute pyelonephritis, transplant rejection
52
3 Types of Urinary Incontinence and their causes
1. Stress Incontinence = urethral hypermobility or intrinsic sphincter deficiency; sneezing, lifting 2. Urgency Incontinence = overactive bladder; detrusor instability 3. Overflow Incontinence = incomplete emptying; detrusor underactivity