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MQW U5 > Micro...lol > Flashcards

Micro...lol Flashcards

1
Q

E. coli characteristics

A 
Gram (-) Rod
Facultative Anerobe
Lactose fermenter
*Nitrites*
MacConkey agar -- select for gram negative, lactose = pink
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2
Q

What is the most important virulence factor that makes E. coli uropathogenic?

A

Type 1 or P fimbrae = attachment to eurothelial cells

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3
Q

E. coli cystitis treatment:

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole = Bactrim

or Fluoroquinolone

As short as 3 days

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4
Q

E. coli polynephritis or sepsis treatment:

A

Fluoroqinolone, 3rd gen cephalosporine (cefotaxime)

7-14 days, Abx sensitivity testing, kidney fxn testing

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5
Q

Why does cranberry juice prevent E. coli

A

Tannins reduce fimbrae attachment

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6
Q

Enterobacteriaceae are [more/less] pathogenic than E. coli

A

Less, but more Abx resistant

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7
Q

Old guy with previous indwelling catheter is likely to get UTI by what pathogens?

A

Klebsiella/Enterobacter/Serratia

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8
Q

What UTI pathogen has siderophores?

A

Klebsiella – can bind iron

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9
Q

What UTI pathogen has an exotoxin?

A

Enterobacter – cytolysin to colonize tissue

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10
Q

What UTI pathogen can cause endocarditis and osteomyelitis in IV drug users?

A

Serratia

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11
Q

What do you see with Serratia urine culture?

A

Bright red (it’s the thing in your bath tub)

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12
Q

Patient with recent B-lactam use presents with UTI. What likely organism?

A

Proteus/Providencia/Morganella

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13
Q

Most Proteus/Providencia/Morganella are sensitive to these Abx:

A

Aminoglycosides

Trimethoprim/Sulfamethoxazole

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14
Q

Enterococcus characteristics

A

Gram (+) cocci, chains, facultative anaerobes, grow in high salt, catalase (-)

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15
Q

Patient with recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use (3rd gen cephalosporins) presents with UTI. What likely organism?

A

Enterococcus

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16
Q 
Enterococcus treaments:
Uncomplicated?
Allergic?
VRE?
Endocarditis?
A 
Uncomplicated = ampicillin
Allergic = vancomycin
VRE = nitrofurantoin
Endocarditis = ampicillin/vanc + gentamycin/streptomycin/ceftriaxone
17
Q

What antibodies are present in Type O blood?

A

Anti A

Anti B

18
Q

What antibodies are present in Type B blood?

A

Anti A

19
Q

What antibodies are present in Type AB blood?

A

NONE

20
Q

How can erythroblastosis fetalis occur?

A

Mom Rh (-) has Rh (+) baby –> develops anti Rh Ab –> has another baby that is Rh (+) –> mother Ab attacks baby –> erythroblastosis fetalis

21
Q

What is the strongest transplant antigen?

A

Blood group antigen

22
Q

A person that has many transfusions will have [high/low] panel reactive antibody

A

High – more transplants = response to more MHCs

23
Q

Acute rejection is mediated through what cell?

A

CD8 T cells reacting to MCH1 – stimulated by either MHC2 stimulation of CD4 T (TH1 or TH17,) or APC picking up dead cell antigens

24
Q

Immune suppression in transplant is targeted towards what type of rejection?

A

Acute rejection

25
Q

What is the strongest stimulating MHC?

A

DR

26
Q

What pathological changes occur due to chronic rejection?

A

Thickening of vessel walls –> organ failure

27
Q

MHC matching requires how many matches?

A

6 MHC1 matches (3 pairs) = 2A, 2B, 2C

28
Q

Mixed Lymphocyte matching tests matching of MHC Class [1/2]

A

MHC Class 2

29
Q

Positive Mixed Lymphocyte matching is [good/bad]

A

BAD – positive = T proliferation = mismatch

30
Q

Daclizumab and Basiliximab target ____ and inhibit [activated/inactivated] T cells

A

IL-2 (stimulates CD8 cells)

Activated T cells

31
Q

Common corticosteroids used for maintenance of immune suppression

A

Prednisone, prednisolone

32
Q

What are commonly used cytotoxic drugs and when are they used?

A

Azathioprine, mycophenolic acid = interfere with rapid cell proliferation

Used to maintain immune suppression

33
Q

What drugs block calcineurin signalling pathway for IL-2 secretion?

A

FK506 (tacrolimus), cyclosporine

MQW U5 (8 decks)

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