Renal/Integumentary Flashcards

1
Q

_____-Related Changes in the Renal System:
• Decreased kidney size – around age 30. You can actually lose up to 25% of the mass
• Decreased Renal Blood Flow (RBF) and Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)
o d/t renal vascular perfusion changes
• Decreased number of nephrons
• Decreased tubular transport response
• Decreased elimination of drugs
• Increased sclerotic glomerular capillaries
• Increased excretion of glucose
• Increased bladder symptoms
o Urgency, frequency, nocturia

A

Age

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2
Q

this test is for a waste product that is continuously produced during normal muscle breakdown. What your kidneys do is filter that waste product from the blood into the urine where it is then excreted. This process allows for almost no reabsorption. So when you look at this test it tells you simply the amount of blood the kidneys can make creatinine-free each minute. As renal function declines, patient’s ability to clear creatinine will go down.

A

plasma creatinine concentration

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3
Q

Normal creatinine value is ______ mg/dl

A

0.7 to 1.2

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4
Q

Test used in glomerular nephritis

A

creatinine concentration

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5
Q

a protein mainly used to assess kidney function. It also filters out of the blood by the glomeruli and is excreted out. Used when creatinine clearance could be misleading (cirrhosis, obese, malnourished, vegetarians) – individuals may not have the muscle mass to adequately assess their kidney function thru creatinine clearance.

A

Plasma Cystatin C Concentration

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6
Q

plasma protein that is freely filtered at the glomerulus.

A

cystatin C

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7
Q

two renal tests used to measure progressive renal dysfunction

A

creatinine + cystatin C

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8
Q

waste product that kidneys move from blood out of body thru urine
 end product of protein metabolism
 varies as a result of altered protein intake and protein catabolism

A

blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

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9
Q

test for hydration status (increases in dehydration and kidney failure)

A

BUN

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10
Q

normal range for BUN: _____ mg/dL

A

10-20

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11
Q

test: blood in the body continuously & hundreds of times throughout the day flow thru kidneys – they will push that liquid part of our body thru these tiny filters (nephrons) & the majority of the body’s fluid will be filtered thru nephrons and reabsorbed back into body. If not reabsorbed, it will then become urine

A

glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

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12
Q

rate of blood flow through the kidneys

A

glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

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13
Q

test that determines level of kidney function

A

glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

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14
Q

normal pH of urine

A

5-6.5

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15
Q

measures solute concentration of urine has a normal value of 1.016- 1.022

A

specific gravity

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16
Q

measures RBC in urine (there should be none)

A

sediment

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17
Q

measures accumulations of cellular precipitates in the urine

 They are an indication of the type of disease the kidney is experiencing

A

casts

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18
Q

renal infection (pyelonephritis) will result in ____ casts

A

WBC

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19
Q

inflammation of the glomerulus (glomerulonephritis) will results in _____ casts

A

RBC

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20
Q

urine ______ indicate inflammation, infection, or metabolic disorder

A

crystals

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21
Q

urine test that shows if there is an infection

A

WBC

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22
Q
urine \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tests:
•	Glucose
•	Bilirubin
•	Urobilinogen
•	Leukocyte esterase
•	Nitrates
•	Ketones
•	Proteins
•	Hemoglobin and myoglobin
A

reagent strips

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23
Q

test with flat plain film (one picture of abdomen AP [anterior posterior view])
->targets the kidney, ureter, and bladder (not that great of a diagnostic tool for urinary system – typically just use it when assessing for constipation)

A

x-ray “KUB”

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24
Q

renal diagnostic test that uses iodine that contain a radiopaque dye that is injected into a vein to circulate throughout the kidney and then excrete in the urine. As it is excreted in the urine a rapid series of x-rays catches the dye as it is being excreted.
o This will give us a good idea of the urinary tract and if there are any underlying complications.
o The dye is nephrotoxic and hydration is recommended prior to the IVP

A

Intravenous Urography/Pyelography (IVP)

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25
Q

non-invasive, no exposure to radiation, test that allows visualization of the kidneys – measure kidneys, see shape/location, see if there’s kidney stones, tumors, cysts, abscess, etc. [often used in pediatrics for detection of causes of reflux etc]

A

ultrasound

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26
Q

minimally invasive test that is done under fluoroscopy- an x-ray done in “real time” (allows radiologist to see urinary tract & bladder)
–>will identify if there is any bladder backup to the kidneys [reflux] also if they have reflux and have had surgery, they may repeat to see if surgery was successful. Also if they are suspicious of a blockage in urethra, this test will identify that
o Shows how the lower urinary tract is functioning
o Child is usually catheterized, and the radiopaque material is passed via catheter to the bladder. And when the bladder is full the child is asked to urinate or may do so on his/her own. The fluoroscope pictures are being made as the bladder fills and the child voids
o Used to evaluate bladder size, if there is vesicoureteral reflux and what grade the reflux is

A

Voiding Cystourethrogram (VCUG)

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27
Q

Masses of crystals or other substances that occur in the kidney and cause obstruction
• Most are made of calcium crystals – calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate
**made of minerals & salts but calcium most common

A

Nephrolithiasis (“Kidney Stones”)

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28
Q

CM of _____:
• VERY PAINFUL
• Nausea/vomiting
• Diaphoresis
• Pain radiating from flank to lower abdomen or groin
• Pain can come in waves w/fluctuating intensity.
• Pain can occur w/urination
Urine can be red, pink, or even brown in color

A

Nephrolithiasis (“Kidney Stones”)

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29
Q

Patho of ________:
• Caused by inflammation of the urinary epithelium after invasion and colonization by some pathogen in the urinary tract
• There is a positive retrograde movement of bacteria into the urethra and bladder
• Most of the time, if bacteria enters the urinary tract, our body’s immune system can get rid of the bacteria on its own by protective mechanisms. If body’s natural immune system doesn’t protect us, the bacteria will enter thru urethra, lead to an inflammation of epithelium, and multiply.
• Leading pathogen: E-coli (85% of all UTIs)

A

Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)

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30
Q

Protective _______ ________:
• Bacteria is washed out of the urethra during micturition
• Low pH & high osmolality of urea, the presence of Tamm-Horsfall proteins, and secretions from the uroepithelium which all provide a bactericidal effect.
• The ureterovesical junction (UVJ) closes during bladder contraction preventing reflux of urine to the ureters and kidneys
• Length of the male urethra is protective
• Common pathogens
• Most common pathogens are Escherichia coli & Staphylococcus

A

Urinary Mechanisms

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31
Q
Causes of \_\_\_\_\_:
Mostly coliforms (e.coli, klebsiella, proteus, pseudomonas)
A

Acute Cystitis (Bladder Infection)

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32
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Premature infant
female gender (including school aged girls)
sexually active women [can develop from sexual intercourse]
pregnant women
women recently treated with antibiotics
spermicide use
estrogen deficiency in women
persons with catheters
Diabetes Mellitus
bladder dysfunction
A

Acute Cystitis (Bladder Infection)

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33
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Varies w/ age
Urinary urgency
burning
blood in urine
voiding small amounts
urinary frequency
foul urinary odor
pelvic discomfort
low-grade fever 
adults
dysuria
low back pain
**May be asymptomatic especially during pregnancy or in the elderly. Symptoms different in children and older 
sometimes suprapubic pain
**In the elderly they may manifest differently: lethargy, anorexia, confusion, anxiety
A

Acute Cystitis (Bladder Infection)

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34
Q

Evaluation of ____:

• Urine dip or UA with microorganism count of 10,000 mls or more

A

Acute Cystitis (Bladder Infection)

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35
Q

Chronic bladder inflammation w/ acute cystitis-like symptoms of pelvic pain w/no evidence of bacteria in urine.
***Can be caused by autoimmune reaction, drug-induced, radiation, chemicals (spermicides, bubble baths, lubricants, etc.)

A

Interstitial Cystitis/Bladder Pain Syndrome [Noninfectious Cystitis]

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36
Q

Causes of _______:
Nonbacterial infection
noninfectious cystitis- radiation, chemical
interstitial cystitis- hypersensitivity
Hunner Ulcers- autoimmune derangement of the bladder mucosa with ulcers
scaring
decreased bladder capacity

A

Interstitial Cystitis/Bladder Pain Syndrome [Noninfectious Cystitis]

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37
Q

Acute infection of the ureter, renal pelvis, and/or renal parenchyma (most cases occur among women) in which bacteria has continued to travel past the bladder, thru ureters, and into the kidneys to wreak havoc
**Primary organism- E.Coli and other coliforms are the usual infectious agents (e.coli, klebsiella, proteus, pseudomonas

A

Acute Pyelonephritis (Kidney Infection)

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38
Q

Risk Factors for _______:
female gender
urinary tract blockage (like man w/large prostate)
weakened immune system
spinal cord or nerve damage around bladder
foreign bodies- catheter
”list goes on.”

A

Acute Pyelonephritis (Kidney Infection)

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39
Q
Cause of \_\_\_\_\_\_:
ascending infection (from the lower urinary tract) or sepsis (blood born infection)
A

Acute Pyelonephritis (Kidney Infection)

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40
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
very sick
flank pain
fevers
chills
costovertebral tenderness
purulent urine
anorexia
dehydration
UTI symptoms [urgency, frequency, burning, blood in urine, foul-smelling urine, n/v]
A

Acute Pyelonephritis (Kidney Infection)

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41
Q

Evaluation for ______:

UA ill show WBC casts- indicating pyelonephritis

A

Acute Pyelonephritis (Kidney Infection)

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42
Q

Chronic syndrome caused by an overactive detrusor muscle that contracts involuntarily even w/ a low volume of urine in bladder creating urgent need to void
***Symptom syndrome- urgency with/without urge incontinence, urinary frequency and nocturia

A

Overactive Bladder

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43
Q

Diagnosis of _____:
good medical hx
physical exam
negative urinalysis (may want to send off to lab to make sure urine doesn’t grow anything w/culture)

A

Overactive Bladder

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44
Q

sudden, intense urge to urinate followed by loss of urine (maybe urinary frequency & nocturia as well)

A

urge incontinence

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45
Q

urine leaks w/exerted pressure (coughing, sneezing, laughing, exercise)

A

stress incontinence

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46
Q

frequent or constant dribbling of urine because bladder doesn’t empty completely

A

overflow incontinence

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47
Q

physical or mental impairment that prevents making it to the toilet on time (dementia, bed-bound that requires assistance to bathroom).

A

functional incontinence

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48
Q

urine formation and excretion begins in fetus in the ___ month of gestation

A

3rd

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49
Q

the key to all stages of kidney development & maintenance of kidney function

A

Wilms Tumor 1 (WT1) gene

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50
Q

Urethral meatus is located on the ventral side or undersurface of the penis

A

hypospadias

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51
Q

rare malformation of penis but can also develop in famles as well.
o Males: Urethral opening is on the dorsal surface of the penis
o Females: Cleft along the ventral urethra usually extends to the bladder neck
o 2x as many boys are affected as girls

A

epispadias

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52
Q

absence of one or both kidneys in fetus
o If unilateral (occurs in 1 in 1000 live births) usually the left kidney is absent and the remaining kidney hypertrophies which can lead to a normal/healthy life

A

renal agenesis

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53
Q

kidneys are absent bilaterally (incompatible with uterine life and is a rare genetic disorder) resulting in low amniotic fluid
**more often in males
Associated with a group of facial anomalies:
• agenesis or hypoplasia
• wide set eyes,
• low set ears,
• receding chin,
• flattened nose with downward turned nasal tip

A

Potter Syndrome

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54
Q

Autosomal Dominant disorder (each child has 50% chance) that is a mutation of two genes:
• PKD1 on chromosome 16
• PKD2 on chromosome 4
Occurs in 1 in 1000 live births
• Cyst formation and obstruction, accompanied by destruction of renal parenchyma, interstitial fibrosis, and loss of functional nephrons
• Most common form, accounts for 90% of all polycystic disease
• Causes symptoms later in life around 30-40
• Affects both genders and all races
• Cysts will develop in clusters on kidneys, leading to hypertrophy & loss of function over a period of time

A

Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)

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55
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_:
HTN
flank pain
bloating
kidney stones
kidney failure
A

Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)

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56
Q

Autosomal Recessive disorder (both parents must carry the abnormal gene to pass on, each child will have 25% chance of getting disease, 50% carrier, 25% non-carrier)
that occurs due to gene mutation on chromosome 6 p
• Cystic changes of the kidney and liver are evident at birth
• Renal replacement therapy is typically needed and required during childhood or adolescence.
• Enlarged kidneys with cysts
• Systemic hypertension
• Liver problems

A

Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)

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57
Q

inflammation of tiny filters in kidneys
o Etiology: It is a renal disorder in which proliferation and inflammation of the glomeruli are secondary to an immune mechanism. There will be a sudden onset of hematuria with red blood cell casts and proteinuria

A

Acute Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

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58
Q

Patho of ______:
The most common acute glomerulonephritis that occurs after a throat (i.e., pharyngitis) or skin infection (i.e., impetigo) with certain strains of group A α-hemolytic streptococci. This occurs because antigen-antibody complexes and complement are deposited in the glomerulus. Immune complexes then initiate inflammation and glomerular injury. This form primarily occurs in children 5 to 15 years of age.
[In English: Usually takes 1-2 weeks after recovering from either strep throat or impetigo to develop this. Immune response that occurs when body produces too many antibodies and extra settle in glomeruli, leading to inflammation]

A

Acute Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

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59
Q

CM of ______:
• Pink or cola colored urine [from RBCs in urine],
• foamy urine d/t excess protein,
• HTN,
• Water retention,
• edema [face, hands, feet, abdomen], and,
• In severe cases- azotemia will be present [aka increase in BUN,Creatinine]

A

Acute Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

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60
Q

o Etiology: Unknown
o Pathophysiology: IgA deposited in kidneys, trapped in glomeruli
o The most common form of glomerulonephritis in children and young adults and occurs more in males than females.
o It is characterized by deposition primarily of IgA and complement proteins in the glomerulus
o Most children recover completely. 20-40% may have recurrent symptoms or even renal failure

A

Glomerulonephritis – Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Nephropathy (Burger’s Disease)

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61
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_\_:
•	Hematuria (may or may not be visible – can be dark-brown cola looking)
•	Proteinuria
•	Urinating less
•	Edema
A

Glomerulonephritis – Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Nephropathy (Burger’s Disease)

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62
Q

It is common to see recurrent gross hematuria with a concurrent URI (i.e., tonsillitis) or gastroenteritis in __________. Most children continue to have microscopic hematuria between the attacks of gross hematuria and have mild proteinuria. In severe cases, proteinuria, edema and HTN can occur and must be treated swiftly to prevent loss of kidney function

A

Glomerulonephritis – Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Nephropathy (Burger’s Disease)

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63
Q

Care is supportive for _______ and _________.

A

Glomerulonephritis – Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Nephropathy (Burger’s Disease)
Acute Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis

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64
Q

abnormal immune response in which the immune system makes IgA to protect the body from antigens & chose antigens (bacterial or viral)…typically preceded by infection…Antibodies attack blood …majority occurs in people that have recently had an URI. It can also be associated w/other types of exposures such as meds, foods, insect bites.

A

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)

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65
Q

CM of _______:
hematuria
proteinuria
HTN
can lead to renal failure
Rash (purpura-type) Reddish-purple spots that look like bruises on buttocks, legs, feet – can also appear on arms, face, trunk
Swollen/painful joints
GI symptoms – abdominal pain, n/v, blood in stools
In children:
kidney involvement is usually transient and kidney function returns to normal. Small % have long-term problems, even smaller % have kidney failure
In adults:
more likely to have chronic kidney disease that will eventually lead to kidney failure.

A

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)

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66
Q

____ is a small vessel IgA mediated vasculitis

A

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)

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67
Q

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) often results in elevated _____ and _____.

A

BUN and creatinine

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68
Q

embryonal tumor of the kidney
o Most common kidney cancer in children (nearly all cases are diagnosed before age 10 but majority are diagnosed between birth and age 5)
o Affects 1 in 10,000 children
o Associated w/mutation of WT1 gene – also the CTNNB1 and AMER1 gene are also associated
o Arises from proliferation of abnormal renal stem cells
o Most common solid tumor of childhood
o Ranks 5th among most frequently occurring childhood cancers
o Both inherited and sporadic forms
• Wilms tumor suppresses genes WT1 and WT2 on chromosome 11

A

Nephroblastoma (Wilms Tumor)

69
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_:
Palpable abdominal mass
Abdominal Swelling
Abdominal Pain
Fever
hematuria
n/v
constipation
loss of appetite
High BP
A

Nephroblastoma (Wilms Tumor)

70
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_ in Children:
--Infants:
Vomiting
diarrhea
jaundice
fever
abdominal painp
oor growth
foul-swelling urine
bloating
weight loss
irritability 
--Toddlers and young children:
Fever
frequency,
urgency
Enuresis or incontinence in a previously dry child
Abdominal, flank, or back pain, pubic bone pain
Foul-smelling urine and sometimes associated hematuria
Chills
Fatigue
A

UTI

71
Q

Most common pathogen in UTI and pyelo in children

A

E.Coli

72
Q

CM of ______ in Children:
Newborns: poor feeding, vomiting
Children under 2 – fever (not always), poor appetite, vomiting, diarrhea
Children over 2 – fever, appetite changes, stomach or low back pain, urinary urgency/frequency, pain w/urination. Previously potty-trained children may have accidents at night or day. Foul-smelling urine. Blood in urine.
Chills, fever
Flank or abdominal pain along with enlarged kidney(s) caused by edema

A

Pyelonephritis

73
Q

Reflux of urine from the bladder, to the ureters and kidneys. Reflux encourages infected urine in the bladder to be swept up into the ureters and kidneys causing frequent pyelonephritis.

A

Vesicoureteral Reflux

74
Q

Etiology of ____:
Congenital abnormalities, having parents/siblings with VUR, neural tube defects (spina bifida)
***Caused by a congenital abnormality in the valvular mechanism at the ureter bladder junction or ectopic insertion of the ureter into the bladder

A

Vesicoureteral Reflux

75
Q

Diagnosis of ______:

  • **Renal US (1st choice – non-invasive & will determine size/shape of kidneys – can not prove reflux is present but can show you the stretch of the kidneys that reflux can produce and will show you scarring that can be caused by the reflux)
  • Voiding cystourethrogram (VCUG) – x-ray – catheter is placed and bladder is filled with liquid dye. X-rays are taken as the bladder fills & empties. Will identify any backwards flow of urine.
  • intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
A

Vesicoureteral Reflux

76
Q

atopic dermatitis is associated with:

A

increase in serum levels of IgE, interleukins and eosinophils

77
Q

basal cell carcinoma starts as a ______

A

pearly/ivory nodule

78
Q

most common type of skin cancer

A

basal cell carcinoma

79
Q

multiple vesicular lesions around nares with yellow crust…most likely cause?

A

staph

80
Q

aging causes _____ in the skin

A

decrease in cell proliferation

81
Q

scabies looks like:

A

papules and vesicles that look like tunnels

82
Q

psoriasis lesions arise from:

A

hyperproliferation of the skin

83
Q

etiology of pityriasis rosea:

A

virus (likely herpes)

84
Q

What will pityriasis rosea initially look like?

A

herald lesion then xmas tree pattern on trunk

85
Q

greasy, scaling lesions in the nasolabial folds and sometimes behind the ears

A

seborrhic skin condition

86
Q

clinical manifestations of this skin disorder include a slightly rough, pink or flesh-colored lesion in sun-exposed skin

A

actinic keratosis

87
Q

actinic keratosis can develop into _______

A

squamos cell legion

88
Q

antibodies found in Acute Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis (ASPNG)

A

IgG

89
Q

seen in urine analysis in pyelonephritis

A

WBC

90
Q

hormone that affects strength of pelvic muscles

A

estrogen

91
Q

main problem with urge incontinence

A

relaces detressor muscle

92
Q

typically see mixed incontinence in:

A

older adults

93
Q

overflow incontinence in mean is usually due to:

A

(Benign Prostrate Hyperplasia) BPH

94
Q

hemmorhagic ulcers in the bladder wall seen in interstitial cystitis

A

Hunner ulcers

95
Q
Skin Changes with \_\_\_\_\_:
Thinner
Dryer
Less elasticity
Decreased melanocytes
Decreased SQ fat
Decreased vasculature
Decreased lymphatic drainage
Decreased # fibroblasts
Decreased cell proliferation
Decreased blood supply
Decreased Langerhans cells
Decreased pressure/touch receptors and free nerve endings
Decreased sensory perception
Decreased protective function
Changes in hair color & distributions 
Changes in pigmentation 
Shortened capillary loops
Atrophy of sebaceous, ecrine and apocrine glands
Compromised temperature regulation
Increased infections
Delayed wound healing 
***90% geriatric persons have some kind of skin d/o
	EX: keratosis, psoriasis, angiomas, liver spots and skin tags are common
	Cancerous and precancerous lesions are common
A

Aging

96
Q

Highly contagious childhood skin disorder that is transmitted by skin-to-skin contact and autoinoculation (little bumps on skin – when they rupture, the juice inside makes more bumps)
o Most common in children, can also occur in adults (esp. sexually active young adults – if found in genital area – considered an STI)
o Etiology: Poxvirus

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

97
Q

CM of ______:
Waxy, pink globules seen on face/trunk/extremities
Small, raised, round & flesh colored bumps
Little indentation (dot) or umbilication at the top
May be itchy
May become inflamed
Clears in 6-9 months

A

Molluscum Contagiosum

98
Q

most common and effective treatment option for Molluscum Contagiosum

A

Cantharidin

99
Q

Three day measles (3-5 days) characterized by diffuse punctate macular rash that begins on the trunk and spreads to the arms and legs and a mild febrile state might be present
 If contracted during first trimester of pregnancy it can cause severe teratogenic effects in the fetus.
 Less aggressive
 Look for in kids not vaccinated with MMR

A

Rubella (German Measles)

100
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_\_:
Enlarged and tender occipital and periauricular nodes Pinkish reddish Maculopapular rash that starts on face then spread to rest of body a few days later
low-grade fever
mild pink eye
headache
general discomfort
swollen lymph nodes
runny nose
cough
A

Rubella (German Measles)

101
Q

Communicable viral disease– Most contagious of all infectious diseases: it can remain infectious up to 2 hours in the air after an infected person leaves an area (infects very easily!)

A

Rubeola (Red Measles)

102
Q

Rubeola etiology

A

Morbillivirus - single stranded RNA virus

103
Q

Rubeola Route of Transmission

A

droplet/air

104
Q

Rubeola Incubation Period

A

7-12 days

105
Q

Rubella Etiology

A

Rubivirus – a positive strand of RNA virus

106
Q

Rubella Transmission

A

direct/droplet

107
Q

Rubella Incubation

A

: 14-21 days

108
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
High fever
Runny nose
Cough
Conjunctivitis
Photosensitivity
Kolpik spots (Pin point whites spot, surrounded by erythematous ring in the mouth)
1-3 day purple/reddish brown, macular and blotchy rash that begins along hairline and spread downward
A

Rubeola (6th Disease)

109
Q

etiology of Roseola

A

HSV 6 or 7

110
Q

transmission of Roseola

A

droplet

111
Q

incubation period of Roseola

A

5-15 days

112
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_:
High fever (starts suddenly – when they are most contagious)
Pink, non-pruritis macular rash
Irritability
Swollen glands
Ear pain
Decreased appetite
A

Roseola

113
Q

transmission of chicken pox

A

touch/droplet

114
Q

incubation period of chicken pox

A

14 days

115
Q

Reactivation of latent varicella virus that hides in the ganglia

A

Shingles

116
Q

transmission of pityriasis rosea

A

unknown

117
Q

incubation of pityriasis rosea

A

unknown

118
Q

CM of _____:
URI symptoms
fever
headache
salmon-pink herald patch (2 in. raised patch) that is usually on the trunk
early lesions are macular and papular followed by expanding rose-colored oval lesions that are bilateral and symmetrically distributed on the trunk and upper extremities resembling drooping Christmas tree
multiple smaller pink spots that are dry and scaly
***typically lasts 2-3 months

A

Pityriasis Rosea

119
Q

cold sores arising from the trigeminal nerve root with initial outbreak causing a flu-like prodrome w/ a burning and tingling sensation followed by vesicles and erythema as the virus replicates
• as the viral vesicles rupture ulcers form
• followed by crusting before healing
• Recurrence- the virus hides in the ganglia and will erupt again when the immune system is challenged

A

HSV Type 1

120
Q

transmission of HSV Type 1

A

oral secretions

121
Q

herpes on genitalia that arise from the sacral nerve root that cause cluster of blisters that will rupture & leak leaving area tender

A

HSV Type 2

122
Q

transmission of HSV Type 2

A

contact

123
Q

transmission of genital warts

A

direct contact

124
Q

CM of ____:

small, fleshy bumps, rough w/black centers (small clotted blood vessels) that resolve spontaneously

A

genital warts

125
Q

Common benign papilloma caused by DNA containing papilloma viruses that causes an exaggeration of normal skin composition stratum corneum that becomes irregular and thickened

A

genital warts

126
Q

etiology of impetigo

A

Staph

127
Q

transmission of impetigo

A

Contact or touching articles/toys of infected individual

128
Q

CM of ____:
Sores around the nose or mouth (red sores rupture & ooze, & ooze will dry)
Form yellowish brown crust
sores around mouth but can spread to fingers as well

A

Impetigo

129
Q

etiology of Folliculitis, Furuncles, Carbuncles (all have to do w/hair follicles)

A

Staph

130
Q

inflammation of the hair follicle (looks like small yellow pustules that are confined to hair follicle)

A

folliculitis

131
Q

boils (more extensive, involved sebaceous glands)

A

furuncles

132
Q

infected hair follicles (multiple furuncles that go deeper w/in layers of skin)

A

carbuncles

133
Q

Fungal- Scaly, pruritic scalp w/bald areas; hair breaks easily

A

Tinea capitis (scalp)

134
Q

Fungal- Circular, clearly circumscribed, mildly erythematous scaly patches with a slightly elevated ring-like border; some forms are dry & macular, & other forms are moist/vesicular

A

Tinea corporis (skin areas, excluding scalp, face, hands, feet, groin)

135
Q

Fungal- Small erythematous and scaling vesicular patches w/a well-defined border that spreads over the inner and upper surfaces of the thighs; occurs w/heat & high humidity

A

Tinea cruris (groin, jock itch)

136
Q

Fungal- Occurs between the toes & may spread to the soles of the feet, nails, & skin of toes; slight scaling, macerated painful skin, occasionally with fissures and vesiculation

A

Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot)

137
Q

Fungal- Dry, scaly, erythematous lesions, or moist vesicular lesions that begin w/clusters of intensely itching, clear vesicles; often associate w/fungal infection of the feet

A

Tinea manus (hand)

138
Q

A superficial or deep inflammation of the nail that develops yellow-brown accumulations of brittle keratin over all or portions of the nail

A

Tinea unguium or onychomycosis (nails)

139
Q

CM of _____:
• Itchy red scaly circular rash.
• Scalp - may not be red but may see circular patches of hair loss.
• Nails - thickening discolored nail that will crumble and fall off.
• Groin/feet - may just be red, itchy irritated skin

A

Fungal Infections of the Skin

140
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_:
warm moist environment
DM
antibiotics
immunosuppression
pregnancy
A

Candidiasis

141
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_\_\_ :
Heat
Moisture
Occlusive clothing
Pregnancy
Systemic ATB therapy
DM
Sexual intercourse w/infected male
A

Vaginal (vulvovaginitis)

142
Q

Risk Factors for _______ Candidiasis:
Uncircumcised
Sexual intercourse w/ infected female

A

Penis (balanitis)

143
Q

Risk Factors for _______ Candidiasis:
DM
Immunosuppressive therapy
Inhaled steroids

A

Mouth

144
Q

Risk Factors for _______ Candidiasis:
Heat & Moisture
DM
Immunosuppressive therapy

A

Skinfolds

145
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_:
Vaginal itching
white, watery, or creamy discharge
Red & swollen vaginal & labial membranes w/erosions
Lesions may spread to anus and groin
A

Vaginal Candidiasis

146
Q

CM of _____:

Pinpoint, red, tender papules & pustules on glans and shaft of penis

A

Penis (balanitis) Candidiasis

147
Q

CM of ______:
Red, swollen, painful tongue & oral mucous membranes
Localized erosions & plaques appear w/chronic infection

A

Mouth Candidiasis

148
Q

CM of ______:

Pruritic red rash progressing to vesicles and papules that enlarge and rupture

A

Skinfold Candidiasis

149
Q

CM of ______:
• Dry, itchy, scaly erythema (can show up anywhere)
• Creases of elbows/knees, face, hands, scalp, trunk
• Location very individualized

A

Atopic Dermatitis

150
Q

Skin disorder that is a Type 1 hypersensitivity that increases IgE, eosinophils, & interleukins

A

Atopic Dermatitis

151
Q

Allergic, Irritant Type 4 Hypersensitivity (cell-mediated) or Non-allergic reaction skin disorder

A

contact dermatitis

152
Q

skin reaction due to chemicals, metals, or plants such as poison ivy, poison oak, sumac which is a delayed acquired hypersensitivity – Type 4 – to a specific antigen/allergen (***cell-mediated)

A

contact dermatitis

153
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_\_:
Red skin
erythematous where irritant came in contact with skin, blisters (ooze & crust over)
swelling
burning
tenderness at site
may c/o itching
A

contact dermatitis

154
Q

a papulosquamous inflammatory skin diseases whose etiology is unknown that is manifested by various degrees of greasy, scaling, erythema, in areas of high oil gland concentration of the face and scalp
o Common inflammatory skin disorder that mainly affects the scalp, causing scaly, itchy, red skin and stubborn dandruff

A

Seborrheic Dermatitis

155
Q

seborrheic dermatitis of the scalp is known as ______

A

cradle cap

156
Q

skin disorder with papules and plaques with overlying silvery scale that is an inflammatory inherited condition with immune system involvement (exacerbations and remissions)
o Lesions will be on the knees, elbows, lower back, scalp, nails

A

psoriasis

157
Q
CM of \_\_\_\_\_\_:
red patches covered w/thick
silvery scales
Dry, cracked skin that is itchy
Nail changes (thickness, rigid)
swollen/stiff joints
A

psoriasis

158
Q

CM of _____:
facial redness
swollen red papules
pustules

A

Rosacea

159
Q
Risk Factors for \_\_\_\_:
women
fair skin 
age
smoking
family hx
A

Rosacea

160
Q

Disease of pilosebaceous unit triggered by increased production of androgen that arises when sludging of sebaceous oils and deposition of loose epithelial cells cause an obstruction of the follicular canal…associated with increase production of sex hormones, especially testosterone.
o Comedones and pustules distributed over the face, upper back, upper chest

A

Vulgaris Acne

161
Q

Genetic; IgE mediated skin disorder most common in children that will improve with age in some persons
• Commonly found on the face, antecubital regions, behind the ears, wrists
• Thickening of the skin or lichenification occurs d/t scratching

A

Excema

162
Q

Clinical manifestations of ______:
pruritic lesions
oozing
crusting

A

Eczema

163
Q

skin disorder that is a Type 1 hypersensitivity caused by sunlight, chronic illness, or temp changes, drugs (antibiotics), foods (shellfish, peanuts), systemic disease (lupus) or physical agents (cold, heat)
o Most lesions (hives/welts) resolve spontaneously in <24 hours
o Antihistamines, corticosteroids and B-adrenergic agonists are treatment options

A

Urticaria (Hives)

164
Q

Clinical Manifestations of _______:
red/skin-colored wheals
itchy painful swelling (angioedema)

A

Urticaria (Hives)

165
Q

In glomerulonephritis, what damages the epithelial cells resulting in hematuria and proteinuria?

A

immune injury

166
Q

Which cells of the inflammatory process are found in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

immune complexes

167
Q

When does an individual have their full complement of renal nephrons?

A

at birth

168
Q

Which of the following reactivates with stress, sun exposure, or menses?

A

Herpes Simplex