Immunity Flashcards

1
Q

Antibodies against meningococcus assist ________ cells in destroying the bacteria

A

phagocytic

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2
Q

Tissue damage causes inflammation and activation of ___________, which help lyse the bacteria.

A

complement

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3
Q

response that takes longer to produce antibodies

A

primary

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4
Q

response that produces antibodies quickly

A

secondary

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5
Q

neutrophils accumulate to kill bacteria in response to ________ signals

A

chemotactic

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6
Q

when bitten by dog, patient is given _______ to prevent rabies

A

immunoglobulins

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7
Q

immunoglobulins provide passive immunity for ______ (how long?)

A

2 months

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8
Q

neonate’s ______ level drop after birth

A

IgG

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9
Q

neonates lowest level of IgG will be ______ months afer birth

A

5-6

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10
Q

the spectrum of microorganisms colonized on the body’s surfaces

A

normal microbiome

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11
Q

the natural epithelial barrier and inflammation that confer innate resistance and protection

A

innate (natural/native) immunity

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12
Q

process that is initiated by inflammation and results in a long-term and very effective immunity to infecting microorganisms

A

adaptive (acquired/specific) immunity

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13
Q

type of immunity that is slow to develop but has memory & rapidly targets/eradicates a 2nd infection

A

adaptive immunity

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14
Q

physical, mechanical, and biochemical barriers at the body’s surfaces that are in place at birth to prevent damage by sunbstances in the environment and thwart infection by pathogenic microorganisms

A

natural barriers

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15
Q

the second line of defense that is activated if the surface barriers are breached which protects from further injury, prevents infection of injured tissue, and promotes healing

A

inflammatory response

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16
Q

a rapid activation of of biochemical and cellular processes that is relatively nonspecific

A

inflammatory response

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17
Q

highly interconnected junctions that prohibit the passage of microorganisms into the underlying tissue

A

mucosal epithelial cells

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18
Q

mechanical cleansing of body surfaces include…

A

vomiting and urination

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19
Q

these cells produce mucus that coats the epithelial surface and traps microorganisms that are removed by hairlike cilia that mechanically move the mucus upward to be expelled by coughing or sneezing

A

goblet cells of the UR tract

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20
Q

substances synthesized and secreted by epithelial surfaces that trap or destroy microorganisms

A

epithelial-derived chemicals

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21
Q

examples of epithelial-derived chemicals

A
mucus
sweat
sliva
tears
earwax
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22
Q

in the skin, these secrete antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids and lactic acid

A

sebaceous glands

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23
Q

enzyme in sweat, tears and saliva that attacks the cell walls of gram-positive bacteria

A

lysozyme

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24
Q

________ create an acidic skin surface (pH 3-5) which is inhospitable for most bacteria

A

glandular secretions

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25
Q

proteins secreted by epithelial cells that destroy pathogens

A

antimicrobial peptides

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26
Q

generally positively charged polypeptides of approximately 15-95 amino acids that can be divided into 2 classes

A

antimicrobial peptides

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27
Q

these can activate cells of innate and adaptive immunity

A

cathelicidins and defensins

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28
Q

family of glycoproteins produced and secreted by the lungs which include surfactant proteins A-D and mannosebinding lectin

A

collectins

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29
Q

these react with different affinities to carbohydrates and lipids on the surfaces of a wide array of pathogenic microorganisms

A

collectins

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30
Q

the process that facilitates recognition of the microorganism by macrophages, enhancing macrophage attachment, phagocytosis and killing

A

collectin binding

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31
Q

powerful activator of a plasma protein system (complement) that recofnizes a sugar commonly found on the surface of microbes which damages bacteria and increases recognition by macrophages

A

mannose-binding lectin (MBL)

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32
Q

epithelial antimicrobial found in intestinal goblet cells where it protects against helminth infections

A

resistin-like molecule beta

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33
Q

epithelial antimicrobial stored in neutrophils and intestinal epithelium that reacts with lipopolysaccharide on the surface of gram-negative nacteria resulting in bacterial lysis

A

bactericidal/permeability-inducing (BPI) protein

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34
Q

carbohydrates that are found in intestinal epithelium and have activity against gram-positive bacteria

A

antimicrobial lectins

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35
Q

rapid initiation and interactive system of humoral and cellular systems designed to limit the extent of tissue damage, destroy contaminating infectious microorganisms, initiate the adaptive immune response and begin the healing process

A

inflammatory response

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36
Q

cellular injury and pathogenic invasion result in…

A

mast cell degranulation
activation of plasma systems
release of cellular products

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37
Q

inflammatory response occurs in tissues with _______

A

vascularization (blood supply)

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38
Q

inflammatory response is activated ________ after damage occurs

A

rapidly (within seconds)

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39
Q

inflammatory response depends on the activity of ___________

A

cellular and chemical components

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40
Q

inflammatory response is _______

A

nonspecific

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41
Q

arteriole inflammatory response includes…

A

aterilor constriction
transudate production
mast cell degranulation

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42
Q

capillary inflammatory response includes…

A
emigration of neutrophils
spillage of erythrocytes
leukocyte (platelet adhesion)
platelet aggregation
endothelial cell contraction
increased vascular permeability
      chemotaxis for neutrophils
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43
Q

venule inflammatory response includes…

A

emigration of neutrophils
macrophage infiltration
mediators
fibrin deposition= fibrosis

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44
Q

Inflammatory Phases (Acute)

A

Cellular Injury
Acute Inflammation
Healing or Chronic Inflammation

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45
Q

Inflammatory Phases (Chronic)

A

Cellular Injury
Chronic Inflammation
Healing or Granuloma Formation

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46
Q

the 3 plasma protein systems

A

complement system
clotting system
kinin system

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47
Q

enzymes that are inactive froms of proteins

A

proenzymes

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48
Q

system athat produces several factors that can destroy pathogens directly and can activate or collaborate with other components of the innate and adaptive immune response

A

complement system

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49
Q

completement system pathway activated by proteins of the adaptive immune system (antibodies bound to their specific targets (antigens)

A

classical pathway

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50
Q

completement system pathway activated by mannose-containing bacterial carbohydrates

A

lectin pathway

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51
Q

completement system pathway activated by gram-negative nacterial and fungal cell wall polysaccharides

A

alternative pathway

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52
Q

early systemic response to inflammation which is partially induced by specific cytokines released from neutrophils and macrophages

A

fever

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53
Q

fever-causing cytokines

A

endogenous pyrogens

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54
Q

portion of the brain that controles the body’s temperature

A

hypothalamus

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55
Q

pyrogens act directly on the ________

A

hypothalamus

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56
Q

3 cardinal signs of inflammation

A

fever
leukocytosis
plasma protein synthesis

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57
Q

increase in the number white blood cells (>11K)

A

leukocytosis

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58
Q

more immature forms of neutrophils present in relatively greater than normal proportions than mature neutrophils

A

leukocytosis with left shift

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59
Q

process of plasma proteins, mostly products of the liver, increased during inflammation

A

plasma protein synthesis

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60
Q

local manifestation of inflammation

A

vasodilation

increased capillary permeability

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61
Q

systemic manifestations of inflammation

A

fever
leukocytosis
plasma protein synthesis

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62
Q

cellular products of inflammation response

A
transudate
leukocytes
endothelial cell adhesion molecule
neutrophils
erythrocytes
macrophages
fibrin
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63
Q

watery exudate in early or mild inflammation with very few plasma proteins or leukocytes

A

serous

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64
Q

thick and clotted exudate in severe or advanced inflammation

A

fibrinous exudate

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65
Q

exudate that consists of pus caused by large amount of accumulated leukocytes in persistent bacterial infections

A

purulent (supparative) exudate

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66
Q

purulent (supparative) exudate is characteristic of …

A

walled-off lesions (cysts or abscesses)

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67
Q

exudate that includes bleeding and filled with erythrocytes

A

hemorrhagic exudate

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68
Q

first step in initiation of immune response that presents foreign fragments to immune system
macrophages ingest, process, and display antigen fragments on their cell surface

A

antigen presenting cells (APC)

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69
Q

cells that present and process antigens

A

antigen presenting cells (APC)

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70
Q

these are needed to start an immune response

A

antigen presenting cells (APC)

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71
Q

What are displayed on the surface of APCs?

A

macrophages with antigen fragments

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72
Q

What do macrophages with antigen fragments interact with?

A

T-helper cells that recognize the same antigen

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73
Q

macrophage + T-helper cell interaction releases _______ which stimulates _______

A

macrophage - chemical alarm system called IL-1 stimulates T-helper cells to secrete IL-2

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74
Q

IL-2 causes proliferation (rapid increase) in…

A

cytotoxic T cells + B cells

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75
Q

proliferation of cytotoxic T cells and B cells triggers…

A

cell-mediated and humoral immune response

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76
Q

cells that present and process antigens require a variety of cells in the __________ system

A

lymphoid (lymph nodes + spleen)

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77
Q

antigen processing is done by _________ cells

A

phagocytic (mostly dendritic)

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78
Q

the processed antigen is on the surface of the cells and recognized by the lymphocytes

A

antigen presentation

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79
Q

a molecule that can react with antibodies or antigen receptors on B and T cells

A

antigen

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80
Q

most antigens are _________

A

immunogens (will induce an immune response)

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81
Q

most important criteria for antigen to induce an immune response

A

antigen is foreign to the host

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82
Q

_______ antigens are the most immunogenic

A

large

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83
Q

criteria for antigen to induce immune response

A
  1. foreign to the host
  2. large
  3. adequate chemical complexity
  4. sufficient quantity
  5. route / vehicle of entry
  6. genetic make-up of host
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84
Q

glycoproteins found in all human cells except RBC

A

major histocompatibility complexes (MHC)

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85
Q

these carry identification or codes that help distinguish tissue from the tissue of others and from antigens or foreign substances.

A

major histocompatibility complexes (MHC)

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86
Q

these distinguish self from non-self

A

major histocompatibility complexes (MHC)

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87
Q

T lymphocytes cannot recognize foreign bodies unless they are displayed on the surface of…

A

MHC proteins on the cell

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88
Q

this is an important consideration for tissue and organ transplants

A

matching of the MHC gene expression

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89
Q

MHC are divided into _______

A

human leukocyte antigens (HLAs) that code for MHC

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90
Q

the 3 types of MHC are derived genetically from _____

A

the long arm of chromosome 6

91
Q

types of MHC that codes for proteins that display/present antigens on the surface cells

A

Class I and II

92
Q

type of MHC that codes for a variety of proteins important in the inflammatory reaction

A

Class III

93
Q

type of immunity that consists of lymphocytes and surface proteins called antibodies

A

Adaptive (acquired) Immunity

94
Q

Adaptive (acquired) Immunity is specific to ______ and produces ______

A

certain antigen

long-term protection

95
Q

Adaptive (acquired) Immunity has a _____ system

A

memory

96
Q

Adaptive (acquired) Immunity produces a ______ response if the antigen presents for a second time

A

secondary

97
Q

Adaptive (acquired) Immunity is ______ meaning it does not pre-exist but will be produced in reponse to infection

A

inducible

98
Q

cells found in blood, tissues and organs and defend against intracellular pathogens by attacking the antigen directly

A

effector T cells

99
Q

cell that may produce cytokines or develop into T-cytotoxic cells (Tc cells) or T helper cells

A

T cells

100
Q

regulatory cells that control both cell-mediated and humoral responses

A

T helper cells

101
Q

type of immunity that is controlled by T cells and is responsible for some viruses, tumors and cancers

A

cell-mediated immunity

102
Q

cells that divide into plasma cells (factories for antibodies) and circulate in blood and secretions and defends against extracellular microbes by binding to the antigen

A

B cells

103
Q

B cells need _____ to activate

A

T helper cells

104
Q

type of immunity that can result in direct inactivation of the microorganism or activation of inflammatory mediators (phagocytes) that will destroy the pathogen

A

Humoral Immunity

105
Q

type of immunity that can result in direct inactivation of the microorganism or activation of the inflammatory mediators (phagocytes) that will destroy the pathogen

A

humoral immunity

106
Q

type of immunity that is primarily responsible for protection against bacteria and viruses

A

humoral immunity

107
Q

______ reduce the IgG that will recognize a specific antigen that has been presented previously and provides immunity

A

B cells

108
Q

process of antibodies or immunoglobulins manufactured to a specific antigen

A

humoral response

109
Q

functions of humoral response

A
precipitation
agglunation
neutralization
compliment activation
opsonization
110
Q

class of immunoglobulins that is most abundant, most protective, and smallest that cross the placenta to fetus

A

IgG

111
Q

class of immunoglobulins that is the largest, first to respond because it increases first

A

IgM

112
Q

class of immunoglobulins that is found in body secretions (i.e. breastmilk)

A

IgA

113
Q

class of immunoglobulins that is a mediator in allergic reactions and defends against parasitic infections

A

IgE

114
Q

class of immunoglobulins that is least abundant and acts as an antigen receptor on the surface of early B cells

A

IgD

115
Q

adaptive immunity occurs in ___ phases

A

two

116
Q

phase of adaptive immunity that occurs in the fetus where lymphocytes undergo extensive differentation and proliferation in the thymus and bone marrow developing origin-specific cell surface proteins

A

generation of clonal diversity

117
Q

T lymphocytes (T cells) are derived from…

A

thymus

118
Q

B lymphocytes (B cells) are derived from…

A

bone marrow

119
Q

_____ and ______ develop surface antigen receptors

A

T cells and B cells

120
Q

lymphocytes coming out of clonal diversity are immunocompetent but naive meaning….

A

they have the ability to respond to an antigen but have not encountered one yet

121
Q

phase of adaptive immunity that is initiated by exposure to a foreign antigen related to infection

A

clonal selection

122
Q

in clonal selection, antigen reacts with B and T cells that have…

A

surface receptors against that specific antigen

123
Q

in clonal selection, when the B and T cell clones encounter an antigen, they form…

A

mature effector cells

124
Q

B cells become…

A

plasma cells, antibody and memory cells

125
Q

T cells become…

A

T cytotoxic cells, T helper cells, T regulatory cells, and memory cells

126
Q

T helper cells help the _____ process

A

clonal selection

127
Q

T cytotoxic cells kill _____

A

target cell

128
Q

T regulatory cells suppress _____

A

the immune response

129
Q

memory cells illicit ______

A

a secondary response

130
Q

immunity that is created by the transfer of plasma containing antibodies against a specific antigen from an immunized person OR
from someone who has had the disease and became immune to an individual who needs to be protected because this person has not been immunized or previously exposed

A

passive immunity

131
Q

_____ immunity does not involve the host’s immune response at all

A

passive

132
Q

______ immunity is temporary

A

passive

133
Q

modes of transmission of passive immunity

A

injection of performed antibodies
passage from mother to fetus (IgG)
breastmilk to newborn (Ig G and IgA)

134
Q

IgA gives newborn protection against ______

A

GI infections

135
Q

injections give individual protection for ______

A

2 months

136
Q

type of immunity that is long-lived and occurs when the body mounts and immune response to and builds up antibodies against the disease or immunization

A

active immunity

137
Q

active immunity requires ___ cells

A

memory B cells

138
Q

modes of transmission of active immunity

A

natural exposure after immunization

139
Q

in the 3rd trimester, the fetus mounts a ________

A

primary immune response

140
Q

IgG is the lowest in infants at ____ months

A

5-6

141
Q

decrease in immune function with aging is due to ________ and ________

A

decreased T cell activity

decreased circulating memory B cells

142
Q

aging decreases changes the _______ of T cell subtypes

A

population

143
Q

increased risk for autoimmune disorders occurs with aging due to ______

A

increase in circulating autoantibodies

144
Q

increased risk for immune complex disorders occurs with aging due to ______

A

increase in circulating immune complexes

145
Q

normal immune response that is either inappropriately triggered, excessive, or produces undesirable effects on the body

A

hypersensitivity

146
Q

hypersensitivity usually does not occur with ______

A

first exposure

147
Q

this type of hypersensitivity respons is antibody mediated, specifically IgE and the products of tissue mast cells and mediated release of histamine from mast cell

A

Type I: Immediate

148
Q

this type of hypersensitivity response is antibody mediated, specifically IgG and IgM

A

Type II: Tissue-Specific/ Cytotoxic/Cytolytic

149
Q

this type of hypersensitivity response is antibody mediated, specifically IgG and IgM but is NOT TISSUE SPECIFIC
forms large, sticky molecules

A

Type III: Immune Complex Reaction

150
Q

Type III Immune Complex Reaction hypersensitivity response results in…

A

failure to remove antigen-antibody immune complexes causing INFLAMMATION

151
Q

The most complex type of hypersensitivity response is

A

Type III: Immune Complex Reaction

152
Q

this type of hypersensitivity response is cell mediated, specifically T cells, and causes a localized inflammatory reaction

A

Type IV: Delayed-cell mediated

153
Q

the type of hypersensitivity response that has no antibody involvement, only T cells

A

Type IV: Delayed-cell mediated

154
Q

this type of hypersensitivity is caused by antibodies attacking antigens on the surface of specific cells or tissues which causes them to malfunction or be destroyed

A

Type II: Tissue-Specific/ Cytotoxic/Cytolytic

155
Q

this type of hypersensitivity is caused by recent hx of infection or persistent low grade infection; exposure to molds, plants or animal allergens that are inhaled; OR as autoimmune process

A

Type III: Immune Complex Reaction

156
Q

this type of hypersensitivity is caused by tissue damage resulting from a delayed cellular reaction to antigen

A

Type IV: Delayed-cell mediated

157
Q

this type of hypersensitivity occurs immediately 15-30 min after exposure; could be anaphylaxis

A

Type I: Immediate

158
Q

this type of hypersensitivity occurs often immediately (15-30 min) but can occur over time

A

Type II: Tissue-Specific/ Cytotoxic/Cytolytic

159
Q

this type of hypersensitivity occurs over several hours or longer and is usually ongoing; “self sustaining inflammation”

A

Type III: Immune Complex Reaction

160
Q

this type of hypersensitivity occurs when the exposure precedes the rash by 48 hours or more

A

Type IV: Delayed-cell mediated

161
Q

Examples of Type ______ Hypersensitivity
Atopic conditions: asthma, hay fever, dermatitis
Drug, food, insect venom allergies
Reactions to inhaled or environmental allergens

A

Type I: Immediate

162
Q

Examples of Type ______ Hypersensitivity

  • Transfusion reaction.
  • celiac’s disease
  • Hemolytic disease of the newborn
  • Grave’s Disease
  • Transplant rejection
  • Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
A

Type II: Tissue-Specific/ Cytotoxic/Cytolytic

163
Q

Examples of Type ______ Hypersensitivity

  • SLE (Lupus)
  • immune complex glomerulonephritis (kidney)
A

Type III: Immune Complex Reaction

164
Q

Examples of Type ______ Hypersensitivity

  • graft rejection (transplant rejection)
  • photoallergic sensitivity
  • TB skin test
  • -poison ivy rash*
  • metal skin reaction (nickel)
A

Type IV: Delayed-cell mediated

165
Q

_________ can cause vasodilation, capillary leak which leads to hives, anaphylaxis, and shock due to BP decrease

A

Histamines

166
Q

key difference between Type I and Type II Hypersensitivity reaction is…

A

location of antigen mechanism on injury

167
Q

type of hypersensitivity that is located on tissue-specific antigen on the cell surface

A

Type II: Tissue-Specific/ Cytotoxic/Cytolytic

168
Q

type of hypersensitivity that is located on an antigen from an antigen antibody complex that precipitates out of the blood or fluid and are deposited into tissues

A

Type III: Immune Complex Reaction

169
Q

type of hypersensitivity that results in direct cell death or malfunction

A

Type II: Tissue-Specific/ Cytotoxic/Cytolytic

170
Q

excessive immune response; when the immune system recognizes self-tissue as foreign, tolerance of self-antigen breaks down

A

Autoimmunity

171
Q

the most widely accepted theory of autoimmunity that states response is caused by foreign antigens sharing similar sequences with self-antigens

A

Antigenic Mimicry Theory

172
Q

Release of sequestered antigens theory
T-cell theory
B-cell theory
Mast cell theory

A

Theories of Autoimmunity

173
Q

______ are at greater risk to have more autoantibody production compared

A

Women

174
Q

______ plus _______ increases risk of Type I DM

A

genetics plus autoantibodies

175
Q

enviromental triggers for autoimmunity include…

A

viruses (Epstein-Barr, cytomegalovirus)
bacteria (h pylori)
stress

176
Q

stress can trigger autoimmunity because increased stress levels increases production of _______

A

proinflammatory cytokines

177
Q

individuals of the same species have incompatible antigens, preventing them from receiving an organ from each other

A

Alloimmunity/Isoiummunity

178
Q

transfusion reactions, graft rejections, and transplant rejections are caused by the two individuals having ______

A

unmatched HLAs

179
Q

most common cause of infections

A

viruses

180
Q

stage of clinical infectious disease process that lasts from initial exposure to onset of first symptom (hours- years)

A

Incubation Period

181
Q

stage of clinical infectious disease process that involves the occurence of S/S (mild, discomfort, tiredness)

A

Prodromal Period

182
Q

stage of clinical infectious disease process in which the pathogen is multiplying rapidly, immune/inflammatory responses have been activated, S/S may be pathogen-specific or just an inflammatory response (fever)

A

Invasion Period

183
Q

stage of clinical infectious disease process where, in most cases, S/S decline and infectious agent is removed (could be fatal or enter latency phase)

A

Convalescence Period

184
Q

first line of defense against infection consisting of physical and biochemical agents)

A

innate resistance

185
Q

second line of defense against infection that is non-specific

A

inflammation

186
Q

3 purposes of inflammation

A
  1. Neutralize and destroy invading and harmful agents
  2. Limit spread to other tissues
  3. Prepare for repair
187
Q

functional decrease in one or more components of the immune system

A

immune deficiency

188
Q

type of immune deficiency that is congenital, rare, often X-linked, and suspected with severe and recurrent infections

A

primary immune deficiency

189
Q

type of immune deficiency that is caused by system disorders, something that secondarily affects the immune system (ex: HIV)

A

secondary immune deficiency

190
Q

the chracteristic vascular changes at the site of an injury produce…

A

increased permeability and leakage

191
Q

two lines of defense that compose innate immunity

A

physical/mechanical/biochemical barriers

inflammation

192
Q

clinical manifestations of inflammation

A

pain, fever, edema, redness, pus p. 194

193
Q

pathogenesis of pain

A

exudate accumulation, chemical mediators, nerve endings

194
Q

pathogenesis of edema

A

increased vascular permeability, vasodilation

195
Q

fluid that leaks out when capillary permeability increases

A

WBC, neutrophils, macrophages

196
Q

pathogenesis of erythema

A

increased blood flow, vasodilation

197
Q

pathogenesis of exudate

A

neutrophils, collection of dead cells

198
Q

B lymphocytes create ________ in response to encountering an antigen

A

antibodies

199
Q

antibodies turn into _______

A

plasma cells

200
Q

B lymphocytes are responsible for ______ immunity

A

humoral

201
Q

T lymphocytes are responsbile for _______ immunity

A

cell-mediated

202
Q

most protective, most abundant, smallest immunoglobulin

A

IgG

203
Q

immunoglobulin passed through placenta

A

IgG

204
Q

IgG passing through breastmilk is ______ immunity

A

passive

205
Q

IgA is found in _______

A

secretions (mucosa, breastmilk)

206
Q

the largest and the first responder immunoglobulin

A

IgM

207
Q

the least abundant immunoglobulin that acts as an antigen receptor on the surface of early B cells

A

IgD

208
Q

immunoglobulin that is mediator of allergic responses and acts to defend against parasitic infections

A

IgE

209
Q

IgG and _____ increase early in presentation of infection

A

IgM

210
Q

T lymphocytes (cell mediated immunity) turn into

A

thousands of T helper cells, memory cells and T cytotoxic cells

211
Q

Cell-mediated immunity (T lymphocytes) protects us from _______

A

tumors, viruses, hard to kill pathogens

212
Q

In a secondary immune response, _____ is significantly increased.

A

IgG

213
Q

passive immunity can be passed from ____ to _____

A

donor to recipient

214
Q

What causes bronchospasm during a Type I Hypersensitivity reaction?

A

histamine release from mast cells that binds with H1 receptors

215
Q

Histamine causes ______

A

vasodilation which drops BP

216
Q

Examples of Autoimmune Disorders

A
Graves Disease
Lupus
Hashimotos
Type I DM
RA
Pernicious Anemia
217
Q

Examples of Alloimmunity

A

hemolytic disease of the NB
transfusion reaction
graft rejection

218
Q

Primary Effector Cells of Hypersensitivity Type I: Immediate

A

mast cells bind to IgE and release histamine which increases chemotaxis of eosinophils

219
Q

Primary Effector Cells of Hypersensitivity Type II: Tissue-Specific/Cytotoxic

A

IgG and IgM

reaction mediated by eosinophils, macrophages, and complement

220
Q

Primary Effector Cells of Hypersensitivity Type III: Immune Complex Response

A

IgG and IgM and neutrophils

mediated by complement

221
Q

Primary Effector Cells of Hypersensitivity Type IV: Delayed Cell Mediated

A

only by T cells

222
Q

increased ESR (sed rate) would be increased in someone with infection due to

A

increased plasma protein synthesis (systemic manifestation of inflammation)

223
Q

phagocytes

A

WBC, leukocytes, macrophages

224
Q

lymphocytes

A

T cells, B cells