Renal Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

Fluid compartment picture

A
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2
Q

____ is more immediately altered by kidneys

A

ECF

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3
Q

Increased muscle means increased what?

Increased fat means less what?

A

Water (for both)

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4
Q

What does ADH do?

A

Sodium and water retention

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5
Q

What is osmolar homeostasis mainly mediated by?

A

osmolality-sensors in anterior hypothalamus

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6
Q

What does osmolar homeostasis cause?

A
  • Sensors Stimulate thirst
  • Cause Pituitary Release of Vasopressin (ADH)
  • Cardiac atria releases ANP→act on kidney to ↓Na+/H20 reabsorption
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7
Q

What is volume homeostasis mediated by?

A

juxtaglomerular apparatus

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8
Q

What does volume homeostasis cause?

A
  • JGA senses changes in volume
  • ↓Vol @ JGA triggers Renin-Angiotensinogen-Aldosterone system (RAAS)→Na+/H20 reabsorption
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9
Q

Hyponatremia diagnosis algorithm

A
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10
Q

What percent of hospitalized pts are hyponatremic?

Why?

A

15%

  • over fluid-resuscitation
  • ↑endog vasopressin
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11
Q

What can cause hyponatremia in a hypovolemic pt?

A

diuretics, gi loss, burns, trauma

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12
Q

What can cause hyponatremia in a euvolemic pt?

A

salt restriction, endocrine related -Hypothyroid, SIADH (holding on to H20 >Na+)

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13
Q

What can cause hyponatremia in a hypervolemic pt?

A

ARF/CKD
heart failure

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14
Q

What is the upper and lower cutoff for sodium to need correction prior to surgery?

A

125
155

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15
Q

Once sodium is less than ____, you will start to see more pronounced symptoms

A

130

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16
Q

Hyponatremia s/s chart

A
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17
Q

Treatment of hyponatremia

A
  • Treat underlying cause (look at volume status)
  • Electrolyte drinks
  • NS
  • Diuretics
  • Hypertonic/3%
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18
Q

What is the rate for 3% NaCl?
na+ correction should not exceed _____. Why?

A

80 ml/hr over 15 hr

1.5 meq/L/hr- too rapid of correction can cause osmotic demyelination syndrome

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19
Q

What is considered rapid correction in treatment of hyponatremia?

A

> 6 meq/L in 24 hr

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20
Q

What do you give for hyponatremic seizures?

A

3-5ml/kg of 3% over 20 min, until seizures resolve

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21
Q

How often should you check sodium when replacing it?

A

q4 hours

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22
Q

Common causes of hypernatremia

A
  • Excessive evaporation
  • Poor oral intake (very young, very old, altered mental status)
  • Overcorrection of hyponatremia (ex. 3% NS treatment)
  • Diabetes insipidus → b/c patients have copious diluted urine
  • GI losses
  • Excessive sodium bicarb (when treating acidosis)
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23
Q

Hypernatremia diagnostic algorithm chart

A
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24
Q

What can cause hypernatremia in a hypovolemic pt?

A

Renal or GI loss

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25
Q

What can cause hypernatremia in a euvolemic pt?

A

DI, insensible loss (skin, respiratory)

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26
Q

What can cause hypernatremia in a hypervolemic pt?

A

Increases Na intake
Hyperaldosteronism
Cushings

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27
Q

Symptoms of hypernatremia

A

Orthostasis
Restlessness
Lethargy
Tremor/Muscle twitching/spasticity
Seizures
Death

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28
Q

Treatment of hypernatremia

A

Address Root cause, Assess volume status (VS, UOP, Turgor, CVP)
- Hypovolemic: normal saline
- Euvolemic: water replacement (po or D5W)
- Hypervolemic: diuretics

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29
Q

What is the goal Na+ reduction rate in hypernatremia?

What is this avoiding?

A

≤0.5 mmol/L/hr, and ≤ 10 mmol/L per day

Cerebral edema, seizures, neuro damage

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30
Q

If more than 50% of major veins collapse, what does this indicate?

A

Volume depletion

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31
Q

Potassium is a major (ICF/ECF?) cation

A

ICF
- < 1.5% in ECF; majority of it is in cell

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32
Q

Does serum or total K+ reflect transmembrane K+ regulation more?

A

Serum

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33
Q

____ causes the distal nephron to secrete K+ (and reabsorb Na+)

A

Aldosterone

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34
Q

In renal failure, K+ excretion _____

A

declines

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35
Q

Causes of hypokalemia chart

A
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36
Q

Common causes of hypokalemia

What are the 3 major categories?

A

Categories: renal loss, GI loss, transcellular shift

Renal loss- Diuretics, Hyperaldosteronism
GI loss – N/V/D, malabsorption
Intracellular shift- Alkalosis, β-Ag’s, Insulin
DKA (osmotic diuresis)
HCTZ (in BP meds)
Excessive licorice

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37
Q

S/S of hypokalemia

A

Generally cardiac and neuromuscular
- Muscle weakness/Cramps
- Ileus
- Dysrhythmias, U wave

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38
Q

Treatment of hypokalemia

A

Underlying cause

Potassium PO > IV (CVC); IV may require days
- Generally, K+ given @ 10-20mEq/L/hr IV
- Each 10 meq IV K+→↑Serum K+ by ~0.1 mmol/L

Avoid excessive insulin, β-agonists, bicarb, hyperventilation, diuretics

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39
Q

Causes of hyperkalemia

A

Renal failure
Hypoaldosteronism
Drugs that inhibit RAAS
Drugs that inhibit K+ excretion
Depolarizing NMB (Succs)
Acidosis (Respiratory/Metabolic)
Cell death (trauma, tourniquet)
Massive blood transfusion

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40
Q

Symptoms of hyperkalemia

A

Chronic may be minimally symptomatic (malaise, GI upset)
Skeletal muscle paralysis,↓fine motor
Cardiac dysrhythmias

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41
Q

EKG progression of hyperkalemia

A

peaked T wave
P wave disappearance
prolonged QRS complex
sine waves
asystole

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42
Q

Succs increases serum K+ by _____ meq/L

A

0.5-1

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43
Q

Hyperkalemia treatment

A
  • Dialyze within 24h prior to surgery
  • Calcium- 1st initial treatment (quickly stabilize cell membrane)
  • Hyperventilation (↑pH by 0.1 →↓K+ by 0.4-1.5 mmol/L)
  • Insulin +/- glucose (10u IV: 25g D50) * works in 10-20 min
  • Bicarb
  • Loop Diuretics
  • Kayexalate (hrs to days)
    *Avoid Succs, hypoventilation, LR & K+ containing IV fluids
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44
Q

Only 1% of body’s Ca++ is in _____. The other 99% is stored where?

A

ECF
Bone

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45
Q

What percent of plasma Ca++ is protein bound to albumin?
What does this mean?

A

60%
It’s rendered inactive

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46
Q

Only ____ Ca++ is physiologically active

A

ionized

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47
Q

Normal iCa++

A

1.2-1.38 mmol/L

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48
Q

What 2 things affect ionized Ca++ levels?

A

Albumin levels
pH

↑pH/Alkalosis→↑Ca++ binding to albumin (therefore ↓iCa++)

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49
Q

Hormones that regulate Ca++

A
  • Parathyroid hormone: ↑’s GI absorption, renal reabsorption, and regulates bone/bloodstream levels
  • Vitamin D: augments intestinal Ca++ absorption
  • Calcitonin: promotes storage of Ca++ in bone
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49
Q

Causes of hypocalcemia

A
  • ↓Parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion
    *complication of thyroid/PT surgery, can lead to laryngospasm
  • Magnesium deficiency
  • Low Vit D or disorder of Vit D metabolism
  • Renal failure (kidneys not responding to PTH)
  • Massive blood transfusion (citrate preservative binds Ca++)
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50
Q

PTH acts on what 3 things to increase Ca++ absorption?

A

Bones
Kidneys
GI

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51
Q

Majority of pts with hypercalcemia have what?

What are usually the Ca++ levels in these?

A

Hyper-parathyroid: <11
cancer >13

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52
Q

Less common causes of hypercalcemia

A

Vit D intoxication
Milk-alkali syndrome (excessive GI Ca++ absorption)
Granulomatous diseases (sarcoidosis)

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53
Q

S/S chart for hyper/hypocalcemia

A
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54
Q

Causes of hypo-magnesium

A

Low dietary intake or absorption
Renal wasting

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55
Q

Symptoms of hypo-magnesium

A

Muscle weakness or excitation
Seizures
Ventricular dysrhythmia (Polymorphic V-tack/Torsades De Pointes)

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56
Q

Treatment of hypo-magnesium

A

Depends on severity of sx
Slower infusions for less severe
Torsade’s/seizures→ 2g Mag Sulfate

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57
Q

What is hypermagnesemia usually caused by?

Who do you see this in the most?

A

Over treatment of mag (mag gtts)

  • Pre-eclampsia/Eclampsia→ only real treatment is delivery of baby; common to have them on mag gtt and emergency c-section
  • Pheochromocytoma→ excessive catecholamine release ; magnesium helps with BP; true treatment is removal of tumor
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58
Q

Symptoms of hypermagnesemia (with perspective levels)

A

4-5 mEq/L: Lethargy, N/V, Flushing→ common in OB patients

> 6 mEq/L: hypotension, ↓DTR

> 10 mEq/L: Paralysis, apnea, heart blocks, cardiac arrest

59
Q

Treatment of hypermagnesemia

A

Diuresis, IV calcium, dialysis

60
Q

How often should you check a mag level in hypermagnesemia?

61
Q

Where are the kidneys located?

A
  • Located retroperitoneal between T12-L4
  • Right slightly caudal to left to accommodate liver
62
Q

What is the primary/functional unit of the kidney?

63
Q

Each kidney has ____ nephrons

A

approx. 1 million

64
Q

What does the nephron consist of?

A

Glomerulus

Tubular system
- Bowman capsule
- Proximal Tubule (PCT)
- Loop of Henle
- Distal Tubule (DCT)
- Collecting duct

65
Q

Kidneys receive __% of CO which is equal to about ___ L/min

A

20%
1-1.25 L/min

66
Q

The outer layer of the kidney is the ___ and it receives ___% of RBF

A

Cortex
85-90%

67
Q

The inner layer of the kidney is the ____. The ____ is particularly vulnerable for developing necrosis in response to hypotension

A

Medulla
Loop of henle

69
Q

Primary functions of the kidneys

A

Regulates ECF volume, osmolarity, composition

Regulate BP (intermediately & Long term) →through RAAS & ANP

Excrete toxins/metabolites

Maintain acid/base balance
- pH regulated by reabsorption & excretion of HCO- & H+

Produce hormones (Renin, Erythropoietin, Calcitriol, Prostaglandins)

Blood glucose homeostasis

70
Q

What 2 things help regulate volume/BP in the kidneys?

71
Q

What maintains serum Ca++?

A

Calcitriol

72
Q

What are the renal functions labs?

A

GFR
Creatinine Clearance
Serum creatinine
BUN
BUN:creatinine ratio
Proteinuria
Specific gravity

73
Q

Normal GFR and considerations

A

125-140 ml/min
- Best measure renal function over time
- Heavily influenced hydration status
- So if patient dehydrated, you wont get accurate picture of GFR

74
Q

Normal creatinine clearance and considerations

A

110-150 mL/min
- Creatinine freely filtered, not reabsorbed
- To check this have to do 24 hour urine test
- Most reliable measure of GFR

75
Q

Normal serum creatinine and considerations

A

0.6-1.3 mg/dL (correlates with muscle mass, so a little higher in males)
- Can be influenced by high protein diet, supplements (ex. creatine), muscle breakdown
- Good for acute monitoring; Having a baseline is critical to assess for trends
- Serum creatinine inversely related to GFR
- In acute case, double Serum creatinine can mean drop in GFR by 50% → indicates AKI

76
Q

____ is better for trending kidney uses, while ___ is better for detecting an acute change

A

GFR
Creatinine

77
Q

GFR drops by ___ ml/min per decade after age ___

A

10 ml/min
20 y/o

78
Q

Normal BUN and considerations

A

10-20 mg/dL
- Urea is reabsorbed into blood
- BUN affected by diet, intravascular volume
- Low BUN could mean malnourished or volume diluted
- High could mean ↑protein diet, dehydrated, GI bleed, trauma, muscle wasting
- Obviously high BUN can indicate poor renal function

79
Q

Normal BUN:creatinine ratio and considerations

A

10:1–> BUN should be 10x higher than creat.
- BUN (reabsorbed) to Creatinine (not reabsorbed)
- Good measure of hydration status

80
Q

Normal proteinuria level and considerations

A

<150 mg/dL
- >750mg/day could suggest glomerular injury or UTI

81
Q

Normal urine specific gravity and considerations

A

1.001-1.035
- Comparing 1ml urine to 1ml distilled water
- measures nephron’s ability to concentrate urine

82
Q

What are you looking for when assessing volume status? (renal assessment)

A

Look at big picture for hydration status
History and physical exam
Signs the patient is dry / volume depleted

83
Q

What are the signs that a pt is dry/depleted?

A
  • Orthostatic pressure changes
  • ↓BE (base excess)
  • ↑Lactate
  • Drop in UOP is a late sign of volume loss
  • UOP- 30 ml/hr; 0.5-1ml/kg/hr
  • Oliguria: <500mL in 24h
84
Q

What are the volume monitors?

A
  • US to assess IVC
  • CVP, RAP
  • LAP, PCWP (Powerful stimuli for renal vasoconstriction)
  • PAP

SVV (stroke volume variation)
- Compares inspiratory vs expiratory pressure
- Assumes patient is ventilated
- Also Assumes sinus rhythm

85
Q

> __% collapse in ___ indicates fluid deficit

86
Q

What is passive leg raise?

A

Determine fluid responsiveness
- Lay them flat, and lift up legs, and it allows you to determine if they would be responsive to fluid challenge

87
Q

What is an acute kidney injury>

A
  • Deterioration over hours-days
  • Failure to excrete nitrogenous waste products or maintain fluid/electrolyte homeostasis
88
Q

AKI affects ___% of hospitalized pts and ___% of ICU pts

89
Q

AKI is usually caused by what?

A

Hypotension/hypovolemia
Nephrotoxins

90
Q

What is azotemia?

A

buildup of nitrogenous products s/a urea, creatinine
- hallmark of AKI

91
Q

What is the mortality of an AKI w/ multi system organ failure requiring dialysis?

92
Q

Risk factors of AKI

A

Pre-existing renal disease
Advanced age
CHF
PVD (peripheral vascular disease)
Diabetes
Sepsis ( b/c of hypotension)
Jaundice
Major operative procedures
IV Contrast

93
Q

AKI diagnostic criteria

A
  • ↑Serum Cr by 0.3 mg/dL within 48 h
  • ↑Serum Cr by 50% within 7 days
  • ↓Creatinine clearance by 50%
  • Abrupt oliguria *although not always seen in AKI
94
Q

Physical symptoms of AKI

A

Asymptomatic
Malaise
Hypotension
Hypovolemic or hypervolemic

95
Q

AKI causes chart

96
Q

What is the most common form of AKI?

A

Pre-renal azotemia

97
Q

___ of hospital acquired AKI cases are pre-renal

98
Q

Causes of AKI in OR?
Keep MAP within ___% of baseline

A

Anesthesia meds + volume & blood loss →↓RBF

20%

99
Q

In pre-renal AKI, BUN:CR is usually what?

100
Q

T/F
Pre-renal is reversible

A

True!
- Most common cause of ATN iis pre-renal azotemia if not reversed in time
- In Pre-renal azotemia, they are still reabsorbing Na+ & H20

101
Q

What is the treatment for pre-renal azotemia?

A

Restore RBF

Fluids, Mannitol, Diuretics, maintain MAP, Pressors are questionable
- Ideally you can maintain MAP with crytsalloids and colloids and not have them as deep during anesthesia
- You dont want to over constrict with pressors and damage the kidneys this way; but if pressors is last resort then need to do so
- Vasopressin is pressor of choice!

102
Q

Renal azotemia is an ___ renal disease and it potentially ____

A

Intrinsic
Reversible

103
Q

S/S of renal azotemia

A
  • ↓GFR(late sx)
  • ↓urea reabsorption in prox tubule →↓BUN
  • ↓Creatinine filtration→↑blood creatinine
  • BUN:Cr often < 15:1
104
Q

What is post renal azotemia?

A

Outflow obstruction
↑Nephron tubular hydrostatic pressure

105
Q

____ is used to diagnose post-renal azotemia

A

Renal ultrasonography

106
Q

In post renal azotemia, the reversibility is inversely related to what?

A

Duration
- The longer this issue has existed, the less reversible it is

107
Q

Treatment of post renal azotemia

A

Remove obstruction
- persistent obstruction damages tubular epithelium

108
Q

AKI chart

109
Q

Neurological complications of AKI

A

Symptoms are Related to protein/amino acids buildup in blood
Uremic Encephalopathy (dialysis can improve this)
Mobility disorders
Neuropathies
Myopathies
Seizures
Stroke

110
Q

CV complications of AKI

A

Systemic hypertension
Left ventricular hypertrophy
CHF
Pulmonary edema- late sign
Uremic cardiomyopathy - late sign
Arrhythmias r/t build up of electrolytes

111
Q

Hematological complications of AKI

A

Anemia

↓ EPO (erythropoietin) production
↓ red cell production
↓ red cell survival
Platelet dysfunction (plt function assay or TEG are valuable)
vWF disrupted by uremia
- Prophylactic DDAVP is good treatment!
- ↑VWF & Factor VIII to improve coagulation

112
Q

Metabolic complications of AKI

A

Hyperkalemia
Water/sodium imbalances
Hypoalbuminemia (kidneys allowing albumin to escape)
Metabolic acidosis
Malnutrition
Hyperparathyroidism
- Parathyroid in overdrive to in attempt to stimulate kidney to reabsorb Ca++

114
Q

AKI anesthesia implications

A

Correct fluid, electrolyte, acid/base status

Volume- NS preferred for renal (no K+)

Careful w/colloids- albumin preferred; synthetic colloids less desired

MAP maintained (20% of baseline)!!!

Vasopressors→ Vasopressin & alpha agonists
- Vasopressin is pressor of choice over alpha agonists b/c vasopressin preferentially constricts efferent arteriole vs alpha agonists

Prophylactic sodium bicarb
- Decreases formation of free-radicals
Prevents ATN from causing renal failure

115
Q

CKD is ____ and _____

A

Progressive and irreversible

116
Q

Leading causes of CKD

A

Diabetes, HTN

117
Q

Presentation of CKD

A

Often getting surgery for dialysis access
DM, toe/foot debridement’s & amputations
Non-healing wounds
Often frequent flyers

118
Q

In CKD, GFR decreases by ____ per decade starting from age ___

119
Q

CKD staging chart

120
Q

What is the GFR equation?

A

186 x (SCr)-1.154x (age)-0.203x (0.742 if female) x (1.210 if African American)

121
Q

CKD CV effects

A

Systemic hypertension
Dyslipidemia
Predisposed to silent MI

122
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for CKD HTN?

A

Thiazide diuretics
- May need ACE-I/ARB
- We do not like ACE’s and ARB’s b/c we see profound hypotension that is difficult to treat

123
Q

Side note about ACEs and ARBs for CKD pts

A

Often used in CKD b/c:
- ↓systemic BP and glomerular pressure
- ↓proteinuria by reducing glomerular hyperfiltration
- ↓glomerulosclerosis

124
Q

CKD systemic HTN considerations

A

-HTN is both a Cause and consequence
- Retention of sodium and water
- Chronic Activation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

125
Q

What are typical lipid levels in CKD?

A

Triglycerides often > 500
LDL often > 100

126
Q

Populations that are high risk for silent MI

A

Women and diabetics

127
Q

CKD hematologic effects

A

Anemia
- Responsive to exogenous erythropoietin
- Target Hbg 10
- Platelet dysfunction b/c platelets dont survive well in uremic environment
- Blood Transfusions → consider the Risks vs benefits, b/c excess hgb leads to sluggish circulation

128
Q

Indications to consider dialysis

A

Volume overload
Severe hyperkalemia
Metabolic acidosis
Symptomatic uremia
Failure to clear medications

129
Q

What is the leading cause of death in dialysis pts?

130
Q

Anesthesia concerns of CKD

A
  • Assess stability of ESRD
  • Body weight pre/post dialysis (we base doses of meds on body weight)–> want a weight within 24 h of surgery
  • Want to know if they have Well-controlled BP, and if Meds were continued.. Especially know if on ace’s or arbs
  • Need to know Glucose management; good to know A1C b/c allows you to know they are unmanaged
  • Aspiration precautions in these patients (DM, obesity)–> slowed GI motility → can do ultrasound of gastric area to make sure its empty
  • Pressors for these patients→ not as responsive to noepi b/c of constant high catecholamines
  • Uremic bleeding
131
Q

What are considerations with uremic bleeding?

A
  • normal platelet count/PT/PTT. Assess plt function.
  • Consider Cryo, F VIII, vWF to optimize clotting

Desmopressin (DDAVP)
- Give early due to : Peak 2-4h; lasts 6-8h
- Can be given prophylactically if expecting blood loss
- Tachyphylaxis – so cant give today and tomorrow and expect same effect - need to pick surgery you expect the most blood loss

132
Q

Many anesthetic agents are ___ soluble and reabsorbed by ______

A

Lipid
Renal tubular cells

133
Q

What is the best NMB on nonRSI kidney pts?

A

Nimbex (metabolized in plasma)

134
Q

For CKD pts, it’s important to avoid ___ metabolites. These include what?

A

Active
morphine, demerol

135
Q

What is important with lipid insoluble drugs?

A

Eliminated unchanged in urine, prolonged duration of action due to decreased kidney function
- Renal dosing, based on GFR

136
Q

What are lipid insoluble drugs that we need to renally dose?

A

Thiazides
Loop diuretics
Digoxin
Many abx

137
Q

Renal excretion drug chart

A

Liver will eventually metabolize these

138
Q

Morphine is ___% cleared through urine by what metabolites?

A

40%
morphine-3 glucuronide
morphine-6 glucuronide

139
Q

What is the metabolite of demerol?

A

Normeperidine

140
Q

Considerations of demerol for kidneys

A
  • Analgesic and CNS effects
  • main adverse effect is neurotoxicity (nervousness, tremors, muscle twitches, seizures)
  • Multiple doses of meperidine result in accumulation of normeperidine due to its long elimination half-life (15-30 h) as compared with the meperidine (2-4 h).
141
Q

K+ < ___ on an elective surgery is a concern

142
Q

Dialysis pts should be dialyzed within ____ preceding elective sx

143
Q

Blood loss activates ____. What does this mean?

A

Baroreceptors
- ↑SNS outflow and increase in circulating catecholamines and they constrict afferent arteries which further decrease RBF

144
Q

Catecholamines active ___. What does this mean?

A

α1-Rs
- ↑afferent arteriole constriction→↓RBF