Neuro disease Flashcards

1
Q

Cerebral blood flow is modulated by what?

A
  • cerebral metabolic rate
  • cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) *MAP-ICP
  • arterial blood carbon dioxide (PaC02)
  • arterial blood oxygen (Pa02)
  • various drugs and intracranial pathologies
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2
Q

With auto regulation, CBF is approximately ___ ml/___g brain tissue per minute

What is this in cardiac output?

A

50 ml/100g

750 ml/min (15% of CO)

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3
Q

The intracranial and spinal vault contain what?

A

neural tissue (brain + spinal cord), blood, and CSF

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4
Q

What is the spinal vault enclosed by?

A

Dura mater
Bone

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5
Q

Brain tissue, CSF, and intracranial blood have a combined volume of ______mL

At this volume, ICP is maintained at ______ mmhg

A

1200-1500 ml
5-15 mmhg

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6
Q

What is the Monro-kellie hypothesis?

A

any increase in one component of intracranial volume must be offset by a decrease in another component to prevent an elevated ICP
- Normally, changes in one component are compensated for by changes in other components, but eventually a point is reached where even a small increase in intracranial contents results in a large increase in ICP
- Initially, when ICP increases, homeostatic mechanismsincrease MAP to maintain CPP
- In prolonged/extreme cases, compensatory mechanisms can’t keep up, cerebral ischemiaoccurs

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7
Q

T/F
The intracranial vault is compartmentalized

A

True

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8
Q

What are the 2 meningeal barriers, and what do they separate?

A
  • Falx cerebri: a reflection of dura that separates the two cerebral hemispheres
  • Tentorium cerebelli: a reflection of dura that lies rostral to the cerebellum and separates the supratentorial and infratentorial spaces
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9
Q

T/F
In extreme instances, the contents can herniate into a different compartment
Herniation syndromes are categorized based on the region of brain affected

A

True

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10
Q

What is subfalcine herniation?

A

Herniation against the falx cerebri; often compressing branches of theanterior cerebral artery, creating a midline shift

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11
Q

What is transtentorial herniation?

A

Herniation of the supratentorial contents against the tentorium cerebelli, compressing the brainstemin a rostral to caudal direction

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12
Q

Transtentorial herniation s/s

A

AMS, defects in ocular reflexes, hemodynamic andrespiratory compromise, and death

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13
Q

What is uncal herniation?

A

a subtype of transtentorial herniation, where the uncus (medial portion of temporal lobe) herniates over the tentorium cerebelli

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14
Q

Uncal herniation s/s

A

ipsilateral oculomotor nerve dysfunction, pupillary dilatation, ptosis, and lateral deviation of the affected eye, brainstem compression, and death

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15
Q

Herniation of the _____ ____ can occur due to elevated infratentorial pressure, causing the cerebellarstructures to herniate through the foramen magnum

s/s of this?

A

Cerebellar tonsils
- medullary dysfunction, cardiorespiratory instability and death

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16
Q

What are the brain herniation examples?

A
  1. Subfalcine
  2. Transtentorial
  3. Cerebellar contents through foramen magnum
  4. Traumatic event causing herniation out of cranial cavity
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17
Q

Causes of increased ICP

A

Tumors
Intracranial hematomas
Blood in CSF
Infection

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18
Q

How do tumors increase ICP?

A

1) directly because of their size
2) indirectly by causing edema in surrounding brain tissue
3) by obstructing CSF flow, as seen with tumors involving the third ventricle

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19
Q

Intracranial hematomas cause increased ICPsimilar to ___ ______

A

Mass lesions

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20
Q

Blood in the CSF, as is seen in ______ ______, may obstruct CSF reabsorption, and granulations can further exacerbate increased ICP

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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21
Q

Infections s/a _____ or ______, can lead to edema or obstruction of CSF reabsorption

A

Meningitis
Encephalitis

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22
Q

Methods to decrease ICP

A
  • Elevation of the head: encourages jugular venous outflow
  • Hyperventilation: lowers PaC02
  • CSF drainage: external ventricular drain (EVD)
  • Hyperosmotic drugs: increase serum osmolarity, drawing fluid across BBB
  • Diuretics: induce systemic hypovolemia
  • Corticosteroids: decrease swelling and enhance the integrity of the BBB
  • Cerebral vasoconstricting anesthetics (propofol): decrease CMR02 and CBF
    Surgical decompression
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23
Q

What are the genetic neuro disorders?

A

Multiple Sclerosis
Myasthenia Gravis
Lambert Eaton Syndrome
Muscular Dystrophy
Myotonic Dystrophies

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24
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?
What is the onset age?

A

Progressive, autoimmune demyelination of central nerve fibers; Pts experience periods of exacerbations & remissions

Onset age 20-40

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25
Q

Risk factors of MS

A

Female, 1st deg relative, Epstein Barr virus, other autoimmune disorders, smoking

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26
Q

Exacerbation triggers of MS

A

stress, elevated temps, postpartum period

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27
Q

Symptoms of MS

Treatment?

A

motor weakness, sensory disorders, visual impairment, autonomic instability. Sx vary b/o site of nerve fiber demyelination

Tx: No cure
- managed with corticosteroids, immune modulators, targeted antibodies(IVIG)

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28
Q

When would you get an LFT for MS pts preop?
Why?

A

If on dantrolene or azathioprine

bone marrow suppression, liver function impairment

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29
Q

Preanesthetic considerations for MS pts

A
  • Consider PFTS is resp. compromise
  • Labs: CBC, BMP, LFT
  • Preop steroids (stress dose) for long term use
  • Temp management
  • GA, RA & PNB’s are acceptable anesthetic options
  • avoid succs
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30
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

Autoimmune; Antibodies generated against N-Ach-R’s at skeletal motor endplate
- Effects skeletal muscle, not smooth or cardiac muscle cells
- Muscle weakness, exacerbated w/exercise

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31
Q

Cranial nerves are partially susceptible in MG. What does this look like?

A

Ocular sx common-diplopia, ptosis
Bulbar involvement → laryngeal/pharyngeal weakness→ respiratory insufficiency, aspiration rx

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32
Q

Thymic hyperplasia is in what percent of MG pts?

What percent improves after thymectomy?

A

10%

90%

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33
Q

Exacerbation triggers of MG

A

pain, insomnia, infection, surgery

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34
Q

Treatment of MG

A

Ach-E inhibitors (Pyridostigmine), immunosuppressive agents, steroids, plasmapheresis, IVIG

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35
Q

MG preanesthetic considerations

A
  • Consider PFT
  • Reduce paralytic dosage to a void prolonged muscle weakness
  • caution with opiods
  • Ach-E inhibitors (Pyridostigmine) may prolong Succs and Ester LA’s
  • CBC, BMP, LFT (if on azathioprine)
  • pre op steroids if needed
  • increased risk of post op vent need
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36
Q

What is eaton-lambert syndrome?

A

Antibodiesagainst VG Calcium chnls
- Reduce Ca++ influx into the presynaptic Ca++ channels→↓Ach release @ the NMJ
- Sx similar to MG

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37
Q

> 60% eaton-lambert cases are associated with what?

A

Small cell lung carcinoma

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38
Q

S/s of eaton-lambert syndrome

A

progressive limb-girdle weakness, dysautonomia, oculobulbar palsy

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39
Q

Treatment of eaton-lambert syndrome

A

3-4 diaminopyridine (K+ chnl blocker), Azathioprine, Ach-E inhibitors, steroids, plasmapheresis, IVIG

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40
Q

ELS pre-anesthetic considerations

A
  • VERY sensitive to ND-NMB & D-NMB;
    Significantly more sensitive to ND-NMB than MG patients
  • optimize resp. function
  • extreme caution on paralytic/opiods
  • possible post of vent support
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41
Q

What is muscular dystrophy? How many types are there?

A

Hereditary disorder of muscle fiber degeneration c/b breakdown of the dystrophin-glycoprotein complex, leads to myonecrosis, fibrosis, and skeletal muscle mbrn permeability

6 types of MD.

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42
Q

What is Duchenne’s MD?

A
  • most common & severe form
  • Occurs only in boys, onset 2-5y.
  • Wheelchair bound by age 8-10.
  • Avg lifespan ̴20-25y d/t cardiopulmonary complications
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43
Q

S/S of MD

A

progressive muscle wasting without motor/sensoryabnormalities, kyphoscoliosis, long bone fragility, respiratory weakness, frequent pneumonia, EKG changes

Elevated creatine kinase c/b muscle wasting

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44
Q

MD anesthetic considerations

A
  • CBC, BMP, PFT, CK
  • eval for cardiomyopathy
  • caution with ND-NMB
  • hyper metabolic syndrome
  • avoid succs/VA: can exacerbate instability of muscle membrane
  • low dose roc and TIVA for GA
  • MH cart with dantrolene
  • RA preferred
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45
Q

What is hypermetabolic syndrome?

A

similar to MH, triggered by with Succs & VA
- can lead to: rhabdomyolysis, hyperkalemia, Vfib, cardiac arrest

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46
Q

What is myotonia?

A

prolonged contraction after muscle stimulation
- seen in several muscle disorders

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47
Q

What is myotonic dystrophy?

A

most common myotonia. Onset 20-30’s

Sx: muscle wasting in face, masseter, hands, pre-tibial muscles
- may also affect pharyngeal, laryngeal, diaphragmatic muscles
- cardiac conduction may be affected; 20% have MVP

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48
Q

What is myotonia congenita?

A

Milder form, involves theskeletal muscles only

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49
Q

What are myotonic dystrophies?

A

Myotonia
Myotonic dystrophy
Myotonia congenita
Central core disease

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50
Q

What is central core disease?

A

Rare. Core muscle cells lack mitochondrial enzymes
- Sx:Proximal muscle weakness & scoliosis

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51
Q

What are myotonic dystrophies triggered by?

Treatment?

A

Triggered by stress & cold temps

No cure. Sx managed w/Quinine, Procainamide (antiarrhythmic), Steroids

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52
Q

Pre anesthetic considerations of myotonic dystrophies

A
  • GI hypomotility-↑aspiration risk
  • High rx of endocrine abnormalities; look at thyroid & glucose levels
  • Keep patients warm to avoid flare-ups
  • Avoid Succinylcholine b/c fasciculations trigger myotonia
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53
Q

What are the 3 major dementia syndromes?

A

Alzheimer’s (70%), Vascular dementia (25%), Parkinsons (5%)

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54
Q
A
  • Potential aspirations rx (may be full stomach)
  • Review pre-op meds, which may affect anesthetic (AchE-I, MAOI’s, psych meds)
  • ↑risk for post-op delirium (consider TIVA)
  • Balance opioids to meet analgesic needs w/o exacerbating delirium
  • RA preferred over GA to ↓opioid requirements
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55
Q

What is Parkinsons?

A

Degeneration of dopaminergic fibers of basal ganglia
- Dopamine suppresses overstimulation of the extrapyramidal motor system
- motor neurons become over stimulated

Unknown cause

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56
Q

What is the biggest risk factor of Parkinson’s?

A

Advanced age

57
Q

Triad of symptoms in Parkinson’s

Other symptoms?

A

skeletal muscle tremor, rigidity, akinesia

Rhythmic “pill rolling,” facial rigidity, slurred speech, difficulty swallowing, respiratory difficulty, depression & dementia

58
Q

Treatment of Parkinson’s

A

Levodopa (crosses BBB), anticholinergics, MAOIs (inhibit dopamine degradation), deep brain stimulator

59
Q

Parkinsons anesthetic considerations

A
  • Review home meds, many may interact with our drugs (ex. MAOIs)
  • Aspiration risk (dysphagia, possible dementia)
  • PO Levodopa must be continued to avoid unstable extreme extrapyramidal effects s/a chest wall rigidity
  • Avoid Reglan, Phenothiazines, Butyrophenones
  • Avoid Demerol if on MAOI
  • Deep brain stimulators may need to be disabled to avoid interaction w/cautery
  • If cautery used, bipolar recommended as it reduces scattering of electro-currant
60
Q

Common symptoms of brain tumors

A

↑ICP
Papilledema
Headache
AMS
Mobilityimpairment
Vomiting
Autonomic dysfunction
Seizures​

61
Q

What is the most common CNS glial cell?

A

Astrocytes

62
Q

What are the 4 types of astrocytomas?

A

Gliomas
Pilocytic astrocytoma
Anaplastic astrocytomas
Glioblastoma multiforme

63
Q

Explain gliomas

A

Primary tumors, Least aggressive astrocytomas
- Often found in young adults w/new onset seizures

64
Q

Explain Pilocyctic astrocytomas

A

Children & young adults
- Mostly benign, good outcomes if resectable

65
Q

Explain Anaplastic astrocytomas

A

Poorly differentiated
- Usually evolve into Glioblastoma Multiforme

66
Q

Explain Glioblastoma Multiforme

A

Carry a high mortality
- Usually requires surgical debulking & chemo
- Life expectance is usually within weeks, even w/treatment

67
Q

Explain meningiomas

A

Usually benign. Arise from dura or arachnoid tissue​
- Good prognosis w/surgical resection

68
Q

Explain pituitary adenomas

A

Noncancerous, varying subtypes
- Transsphenoidalor open craniotomy for removal is usually curative

69
Q

Explain acoustic neuromas

A

Usually benign schwannomas involving the vestibular component of CN VIII within the auditory canal
- Good prognosis w/resection +/- radiation

70
Q

Explain metastatic carcinomas

A

can vary widely in origin &symptoms​
Outcomes are generally less favorable

71
Q

Brain tumor anesthetic consideration

A
  • Inquire about previous therapies, presenting symptoms & neurological deficits
  • Radiation damage may lead to lethargy and AMS
  • Chemotherapy may also have neurological effects
  • Pts are often on steroids to minimize cerebral edema
  • Anticonvulsants common (supratentorial lesions, closer to motor cortex)
  • Autonomic dysfunction may manifest on EKG, labile HR & BP’s
72
Q

Ischemic vs hemorrhagic stoke picture

73
Q

What is the leading cause of death and disability worldwide?

How are these characterized?

A

Strokes

ischemia (88% of cases)
hemorrhage (12% of cases)

74
Q

Blood is supplied to the brain from what 2 things?

These vessels join on the inferior surface of the brain to form the __________, providing collateral circulation to multiple areas of the brain

A

internal carotid arteries
vertebral arteries

Circle of Willis

75
Q

Picture of cerebellar vessels

76
Q

Clinical manifestation of regional stroke chart

77
Q

What is an ischemic stroke?

A

occlusion of a vessel that perfuses a region of brain, causing brain cell necrosis

78
Q

What is a TIA?

A

Transient ischemic attack: sudden focal vascular neurologic deficit that resolves within 24 hrs

79
Q

What fraction of TIA pts will subsequently suffer a stroke?

80
Q

Causes of Ischemic stroke are categorized according to the TOAST classification into what 5groups?

A
  1. Large artery atherosclerosis (e.g., carotid stenosis)
  2. Small vessel occlusion (e.g., lacunar stroke)
  3. Cardioaortic embolic (e.g., emboli from atrial fibrillation)
  4. Other etiology (e.g., stroke due to hypercoagulable states or vasculopathies)
  5. Undetermined etiology
81
Q

Ischemic CVA treatment

A
  • PO aspirin (initial)
  • tPA (IV/intra-arterial; 3-4.5 hr onset)
  • revascularization (IR)
82
Q

Pts with ischemic stroke often have CV risk factors such as what?

Why is this important?

A

HTN, DM, CAD, Afib, andvalvular disease

Could impact vasoactive drug choices and hemodynamic goal

83
Q

What is a Hemorrhagic CVA?

A

Bleeding inside the cranial vault that impairs perfusion of the brain

84
Q

Hemorrhagic stroke is 4x more likely to cause ____ than ischemic stroke

85
Q

The 2 most reliable predictors of outcome from hemorrhagic CVA are:

A

Blood volume
Change in LOC

86
Q

Subtypes of hemorrhagic strokes are defined based on what locations of blood?

A
  • Bloodwithin the brain: intraparenchymal hemorrhage
  • Blood in the epidural space: epidural hematoma
  • Blood in the subdural space: subdural hematoma
  • Blood in subarachnoid space: subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • Blood located in the ventricular system: intraventricular hemorrhage
87
Q

Treatment of hemorrhagic CVA

A
  • Conservative tx: reduction of ICP, BP control, sz precautions
  • Surgical tx: Evacuation of hematoma
  • ICU post op
88
Q

Protocol for cerebrovascular disease

A
  • New anticoagulant for thrombus=No elective cases within 3 months
  • Anticoagulants for CVA prophylaxis= consult prescriber to establish protocol
  • High rx pts that pause LA anticoags (Warfarin) will need SA anticoags (LMWH, IV unfractionated heparin) to bridge the gap
  • Close monitoring of coagulation status is required
  • If RA planned, d/c anticoagulants for sufficient time to safely perform block
89
Q

Cerebrovascular disease pre op consideration

A
  • Assess orientation, pupils, bilateral grip strength, LE strength
  • Ask about headaches, tinnitus, vision/memory loss, bathroom issues
  • Look at route cause of CVA: Vascular disease, embolic (a-fib, prosthetic valve, right to left shunt/PFO)
  • Imaging: Carotid U/S, CT/MRI head & neck, echocardiogram
  • Cerebral oximetry if possible
  • Aline,2 IVs and/or CVC
90
Q

Majority of cerebral aneurysms are _____ before rupture

A

Not diagnosed

91
Q

What fraction of aneurysm pts have sx before rupture?

92
Q

S/S of aneurysm

A

Headache, photophobia, confusion, hemiparesis, coma

93
Q

Risk factors of aneurysm

A

HTN, smoking, female, oral contraceptives, cocaine use

94
Q

Diagnosis of aneurysm

A

CT/angio, MRI, Lumbar puncture w/CSF analysis if rupture suspected

95
Q

Intervention of aneurysm should be performed within ____ of rupture for best outcomes

96
Q

Pre anesthesia consideration of aneurysm

A
  • CT/MRI, EKG, Echo, CBC, BMP, T&C w/blood available
  • BP control, mannitol? *aim is to avoid rupture
  • seizure prophylaxis
97
Q

Surgical tx of aneurysms

A

coiling, stenting, trapping/bypass (very large aneurysms)
- Neurosurgeon may be on standby in case of intra-op rupture/SAH

98
Q

How many days post op for SAH are you at risk for vasospasm?

99
Q

What causes a post-SAH vasospasm?

A

Freehgbtriggers inflammatory mediators, which reduce nitric oxide availability and increase endothelin 1, leading to vasoconstriction

100
Q

Aneurysm grading for prognosis chart

A

Just know that we have a grading chart

101
Q

Treamtent of POST-SAH vasospasm?

A

Triple H therapy (Hypertension, Hypervolemia, Hemodilution)
- To avoid complications of hypervolemia, HTN is the initial main treatment
- Interventional treatments s/a balloon dilation and direct injection of vasodilators relieve the spasm

102
Q

What is an AVM?

A

Arteriovenous malformation: arterial to venous connection w/o intervening capillaries
- creates an area of high flow, low resistance shunting
- believed to be congenital

103
Q

Symptoms of AVM

A

range from mass-effects to hemorrhage
- Majority are supratentorial

104
Q

Diagnosis of AVM

A

Angiogram, MRI

105
Q

Treatment of AVM

A

radiation, angio-guided embolization, surgical resection (higher mortality)

106
Q

Pre anesthesia for AVM

A

H&P, review meds, imaging, CBC, BMP, T&C, EKG, Echo
- BP control, mannitol?, seizure prophylaxis, CVC or 2 Lg bore IV’s, Aline

107
Q

AVM grading chart

A

Don’t need details

108
Q

What do congenital brain abnormalities result from?

A

defects in the development or structure of the CNS
- Often hereditary
- Disease processes may be diffuse, or confined to specific neuronal structures

109
Q

What are common congenital brain abnormalities?

A

Chiari Malformation
Tuberous Sclerosis
Von Hippel-Lindau Disease
Neurofibromatosis

110
Q

What is a chiari malformation?

A

Congenital displacement of the cerebellum
- separated into 4 types

111
Q

Explain the 4 types of chiari malformation

A

Type 1: downwarddisplacement ofcerebellum

Type 2 (Arnold Chiari):downwarddisplacementofcerebellar vermis, often assoc w/myelomeningocele

Type 3: Rare; occipital encephalocele w/downward cerebellar displacement

Type 4: cerebellar hypoplasia w/o displacement of posterior fossa contents
*Not compatible with life

112
Q

Symptoms of chiari malformation

A

headache, extending to shoulders/arms,visual disturbances, ataxia

113
Q

Treatment of chiari malformation

A

surgical decompression

114
Q

Pre anesthesia for chiari malformation

A

Review H&P, deficits, imaging, CBC, BMP, T&C
- May hyperventilate to ↓ICP, Lg bore IV x 2 or CVC, Aline

115
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis?

A

AKA Bourneville disease
- Genetic disease causing benign hemartomas, angiofibromas, and other malformations that can occur anywhere in the body

116
Q

Lesions of the brain in tuberous sclerosis include:

A

cortical tumors & giant-cell astrocytomas

117
Q

Tuberous sclerosis often involves co-exisiting tumors of what?

A

face,oropharnyx, heart, lungs, liver &kidneys

118
Q

Presentation of tuberous sclerosis includes:

A

Mental retardation
Seizure disorder

119
Q

Anesthetic consideration of tuberous sclerosis

A

Airway compromise
Cardiac/kidney involvement

120
Q

What is Von Hippel-Lindau Disease?

A

Genetic disease process involving formations of benign tumors of the CNS, eyes, adrenals, pancreas and kidneys

121
Q

Von Hippel-Lindau Disease may present with what?

A

Pheochromocytoma

122
Q

Important factor in Von Hippel-Lindau Disease anesthetic consideration

A

Exaggerated HTN (d/t pheo)

123
Q

What is neurofibromatosis?

A

Separated into 3 types
- Type 1 (most common)
- Type 2
- Schwannomatosis (rare)

Numerous disease presentations

124
Q

Anesthesia considerations for neurofibromatosis

A

account for increased ICP, airway issues, scoliosis, possibility of pheochromocytoma

125
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Excessive CSF accumulation, causing ↑ICP, leading to ventricular dilatation
- Accumulation of CSF is due to an imbalance btw CSF production and absorption

126
Q

Hydrocephalus can be characterized into what 2 groups?

A

Congenital
Acquired
- meningitis
- tumors
- trauma
- stroke

127
Q

What is treatment for hydrocephalus?

A
  • mainly consists of diuretics (furosemide & acetazolamide decrease CSF production)
  • Sx can be acute or chronic
  • Serial lumbar punctures as a temporizing measure
  • Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt or endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV)
128
Q

What is a VP shunt?

A

drain placed in ventricle of the brain andempties into peritoneum

129
Q

What is an ETV?

A

catheter placed into the lateral ventricle that drains into the peritoneal space, right atrium, or (rarely) the pleural space

130
Q

Shunt malfunction for hydrocephalus occurs most frequently in what year of placement?

A

1st year (high failure rate)

131
Q

TBIs are categorized into what 2 groups?

What is severity categorized by?

A

Penetrating
Non-penetrating
- depends on breech of dura

GCS

132
Q

What is “primary injury” and “secondary injuries” for TBI?

A

Primary injury: occurs at time of insult

Secondary injuries: neuroinflammation, cerebral edema,hypoxia, anemia, electrolyte imbalances, and neurogenic shock

133
Q

____ is required in severe TBI

A

Intubation (GCS <9, AW trauma, resp distress)

134
Q

______ can be used to control ICP

A

Mild hyperventilation

135
Q

What is a seizure?

A

transient, paroxysmal, synchronous discharge of neurons in the brain

136
Q

Seizures can be caused by transient abnormalities such as?

A

hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperthermia, intoxication

137
Q

Epilepsy is defined as:

A

recurrent seizures d/t congenital or acquired factors

138
Q

Antiepileptic drugs decrease what?

A

neuronal excitability/enhance inhibition

139
Q

What 3 seizure drugs are enzyme inducers?

Why is this important?

A

Phenytoin, Tegretol, Barbiturates
- Pts on these meds require higher doses of hepatically-cleared medications