Renal and Urinary Tract Flashcards

1
Q

A patient has a history of adenocarcinoma of the bladder. Which of the following is most correct?

  1. This is the most common form of bladder tumor
  2. While rare in adults it is the most common pelvic paediatric tumor
  3. Approximately 20 – 40% are associated with a urachal remnant.
  4. They suggest with a urachal remnant or chronic irritation (e.g. bladder calculus or chronic infection including schistosomiasis)
  5. It is most commonly due to “drop” metastasis from the upper urinary tract
A
  1. *Approximately 20 – 40% are associated with a urachal remnant.
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2
Q

You notice a thick walled urinary bladder which may reflect cystitis. Which of the following is LEAST accepted to be a cause of cystitis?

  1. Leishmaniasis
  2. Radiation therapy for cervical carcinoma
  3. Methotrexate chemotherapy
  4. Schistosoma haematobium
  5. Candida
A
  1. *Leishmaniasis
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3
Q

Which of the following statements concerning TCC of the bladder is LEAST correct?

  1. Morphologically TCC may appear flat
  2. The majority of tumors are low grade, with less than 10% of these showing deep invasion
  3. Due to the internal sphincter/ capsule, prostatic invasion is rare (<1% of invasive malignancies)
  4. About 40% of deeply invasive tumors metastasise to pelvic nodes
  5. Haematogenous spread is principally to lung and bone marrow
A
  1. *Due to the internal sphincter/ capsule, prostatic invasion is rare (<1% of invasive malignancies)
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4
Q

A patient on regular TCC follow up has a bladder biopsy which the pathologist says look like a “small cell carcinoma of the lung”. Which of the following is most correct?

  1. The setting and description are consistent with a small cell carcinoma of the bladder.
  2. The description strongly suggests metastatic disease
  3. The pattern is recognised post diathermy of the bladder
  4. The pattern suggests bladder pheochromocytoma
  5. The appearances can be seen with de-differentiated TCC.
A
  1. *The setting and description are consistent with a small cell carcinoma of the bladder.
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5
Q

What does analgesic nephropathy cause? (August 2014)

a. Renal papillary necrosis

A

Analgesic nephropathy is usually caused by excessive intake of a mixture containing phenacetin
o Interstitial nephritis begins two weeks post ingestion (Immunizing haptens)
o Drugs bind to the tubular cellular or matrix components and incite an IgE antibody and T-cell mediated response
- Tubular necrosis, inflammation and oedema

Clinical:

  • Renal papillary necrosis secondary to ischaemia: compression of blood vessels by markedly oedematous tissues (Haematuria and/or ureteric obstruction)
  • Fever, eosinophilia, rash, sterile pyuria, azotaemia, acute renal failure

ANSWER: Analgesic nephropathy causes renal papillary necrosis

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6
Q

Which causes papillary necrosis? (March 2017)

a. NSAIDs
b. Steroids
c. Warfarin
d. Streptokinase

A
Causes of renal papillary necrosis (POST CARDS):
o	Pyelonephritis
o	Obstruction
o	Sickle cell disease
o	Tuberculosis
o	Cirrhosis
o	Analgesic abuse (NSAIDs)
o	Renal vein thrombosis
o	Diabetes mellitus
o	Systemic vasculitis

ANSWER: NSAIDs are a recognized cause of papillary necrosis

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7
Q

Which condition does sarcoid not cause? (March 2016)

a. Chronic glomerulonephritis
b. Choroid retinitis
c. Splenomegaly
d. Non-caseating granulomas in the lungs

A
Sarcoid renal disease includes:
o	Abnormal calcium metabolism
o	Nephrolithiasis
o	Nephrocalcinosis
o	Acute interstitial nephritis (with or without granuloma formation)

ANSWER: Sarcoidosis does not cause chronic glomerulonephritis, it causes acute interstitial nephritis. Also does not cause choroid retinitis - causes anterior uveitis.

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8
Q

Which is false of polycystic kidney disease? (March 2015)

a. Fibrosis of the liver
b. Liver cysts
c. Caroli disease
d. Alagille syndrome

A

Autosomal dominant PCKD associated findings:
o Cerebral berry aneurysms
o Intracranial dolichoectasia: elongated and ectatic arteries
o Hypertension (80%)
o Colonic diverticulosis
o Bicuspid aortic valve
o Mitral valve prolapse
o Aortic dissection
o Multiple biliary hamartomas (von Meyerberg complexes)
o Cysts in other organs:
- Liver (75%), Ovaries, Spleen, Seminal vesicles (60%), Prostate, Pancreas (pancreatic cysts are more common in VHL)

Alagille syndrome:
o Most common cause of hereditary cholestasis
o Renal assoc most commonly is renal dysplasia (with or w/o cysts). Can be associated with cystic kidney disease, small echogenic kidneys and nephrocalcinosis

Caroli disease:
o	Associations:
	- Congenital hepatic fibrosis
	- Medullary sponge kidney
	- Autosomal dominant PCKD
	- Autosomal recessive PCKD

ANSWER: Alagille Sydrome

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9
Q

Which is true? (March 2015)

a. Proteus is associated with the formation of struvite stones
b. Multiple myeloma is associated with recurrent pyelonephritis

A
Renal stones:
o	Calcium oxalate and phosphate (70%)
- Hypercalciuria – idiopathic (50%)
- Hypercalcaemia w hypercalciuria (10%)
- Formed by nucleation of calcium oxalate crystals by uric acid in the collecting tubules

o Struvite (5-10%)

  • Formed after infection w urea splitting bacteria e.g. proteus, some staphylococcus
  • Convert urea to ammonia which causes precipitation of magnesium ammonium phosphate salts
  • Can form very large (staghorn) calculi

o Uric acid (5-10%)

  • Patients with hyperuricaemia - Gout or high cell turnover (leukaemia)
  • Half do not have an underlying hyperuricaemia

o Cysteine (1-2%)

  • Genetic defects in the renal absorption of amino acids
  • Stones form at low urinary pH

o Others/unknown (5%)

Multiple myeloma can be complicated by infections
o Pneumonia & pyelonephritis most common, especially in the months after commencing chemotherapy
o Pneumonia: pneumococcus, staph aureus and klebsiella
o Pyelonephritis: E. coli and other gram negatives

ANSWER: Both are true

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10
Q

Which is the most likely composition of renal stones in a patient with leukaemia? (March 2017)

a. Uric acid

A

ANSWER: Uric acid stones are most likely in a patient with leukaemia due to high cell turnover (increased purine metabolism)

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11
Q

Which is the most common presentation of angiomyolipoma? (March 2016)

a. Haematuria
b. Retroperitoneal haemorrhage
c. Obstruction

A
Presentation of angiomyolipomas:
o	Incidental findings when imaging for other reasons (most common)
o	Retroperitoneal haematoma (most common symptomatic)
o	Other:
	- Palpable mass
	- Haematuria
	- UTI
	- HTN
	- Renal failure

Epidemiology:
o 80% sporadic - Adults, more common in females (4:1)
o 20% associated w phakomatoses
- Tuberous sclerosis accounts for the majority
- Rarely seen w VHL & NF1

ANSWER: Most common presentation of AML is an incidental finding. The second most common presentation is w retroperitoneal haemorrhage, particularly in large lesions

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12
Q

Regarding the affects of RCC (March 2015)

a. Hypertension
b. Feminisation
c. Limbic encephalitis

A

Epidemiology:

  • Most common primary malignant renal tumour (80-90%)
  • 50-70 years, more common in men (2:1)
Clinical presentation:
	- Macroscopic haematuria (60%)
	- Flank pain (40%)
	- Palpable flank mass (30-40%)
	- Triad of these findings in 10-15%
•	More commonly RCC is an incidental finding

Paraneoplastic syndromes (25%):

- Hypercalcaemia (20%)
- HTN (20%)
- Polycythaemia
- Stauffer syndrome – hepatic dysfunction not related to metastases
- Feminisation
- Limbic encephalitis

ANSWER: All three options may be part of a paraneoplastic syndrome secondary to RCC

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13
Q

Which is associated with the highest risk for RCC? (March 2016)

a. Nephronopthisis
b. Medullary cystic disease
c. Acquired renal cystic disease
d. ARPKD
e. ADPKD

A
Risk factors for RCC:
o	Smoking
o	Dialysis related cystic disease
o	Obesity
o	Treatment w cyclophosphamide (chemotherapy)

ANSWER: Acquired renal cystic disease

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14
Q

Which is not associated? (April 2013)

a. Pyelocalyceal obstruction and xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
b. Horseshoe kidney and renal calculi
c. ARPKD with congenital hepatic fibrosis
d. Renal cell carcinoma and analgesic abuse
e. Schistosomiasis and bladder wall calcification

A

ANSWER: RCC is not associated w analgesic abuse

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15
Q

Regarding Wilms tumour, which is true? (September 2013)

a. Usually diagnosed before age 2
b. WAGR – the ‘a’ represents adrenal tumours
c. Carries a poor prognosis
d. If bilateral, is associated w nephrogenic rests -> both unilateral and bilateral are associated with rests, 40% in unilateral and 100% in bilateral
e. Is associated with a syndrome of deletion of the 11p chromosome

A

Wilms tumour
o Epidemiology:
- Most common paediatric renal mass (85%) of cases
- 6% of childhood cancers
- Early childhood (age range 1-11), peak age 3-4 years
• 80% before age five
• Occur earlier (2-24months) if associated with a syndrome
- No gender predilection, presentation may be slightly later in females

o Usually unilateral - 5% bilateral

- Bilateral lesions are assoc w nephrogenic rests (nephroblastomatosis) in 99%
- Assoc of nephroblastomatosis: Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome, hemihypertrophy, WAGR
- Types of rests: perilobar (90%) & intralobar (10%)
- Intralobar associated with Wilms tumour

o Clinical:

- Haematuria (20%)
- HTN due to increased renin production in 25%
- Acquired von Willebrand disease in 8%

o Associations (although >95% are sporadic):
- Overgrowth syndromes (WT2 gene, Chr 15p15):
• Beckwith-Wiedemann
• Perlman syndrome
• Simpson-Golabi-Behmel syndrome
• Sotos syndrome
- Non-overgrowth syndromes (WT1 gene, Ch 11p13):
• WAGR syndrome (Wilms, Aniridia, Genitourinary abnormalities, Retardation)
• Denys-Drash syndrome
- Isolated abnormalities:
• Cryptorchidism
• Hemihypertrophy
• Hypospadias
• Sporadic aniridia
• Renal fusion

o Pathology:

- Arise from mesodermal precursor cells of the renal parenchyma (metanephros)
- Well circumscribed macrolobulated cancers
- Haemorrhage & central necrosis common

o Imaging:

- Large lesions
- Usually solid but can be predominantly cystic

o Metastases:

- Lung – 85%
- Liver & local LNs
- May form tumour thrombus (renal vein, IVC, right atrium)

o Prognosis:

  • Treatment: combination of chemoTx & nephrectomy
  • Treatment is curative in 90%
  • Local recurrence can occur in the tumour bed or within the liver or lungs

Hemihypertrophy:

  • Asymmetry in size bw right & left side of the body, more than can be attributed by normal variation
  • Cells are hyperplastic rather than hypertrophied
Aetiology:
Sporadic or as part of a syndrome:
o	Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
o	Proteus Syndrome
o	Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome
o	NF1
o	Hemihyperplasia-multiple lipomatosis
o	McCune-Albright syndrome
o	Langer Giedeon
- 5% increased risk of malignancy, particularly Wilms tumour

ANSWER: Wilms tumour is associated w a deletion of 11p chromosome (WT1 gene – 11p13 deletion)

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16
Q

Which is Wilms tumour not associated with? (August 2014)

a. Denys-Drash
b. WAGR
c. Perlman
d. Hutchison
e. Beckwith-Wiedeman

A

ANSWER: Wilms tumour is not associated with Hutchison syndrome

17
Q

Which is true regarding pelviureteric junction obstruction? (March 2015)

a. Associated with contralateral renal agenesis
b. Associated with vesico-ureteric reflux
c. Associated with lower moiety
d. More common on the right
e. More common in girls

A

PUJ obstruction
o Can be congenital or acquired - Congenital PUJ obstruction is the most common cause of antenatal hydronephrosis (50%)
- Male predominance (2:1) in the paediatric population

Clinical:

- Recurrent UTIs
- Stone formation
- Palpable flank mass
- More susceptible to injury in trauma

Pathology

- Bilateral in ~30%
- More common on the left (2/3)

Congenital aetiology:
• Intrinsic: inadequate recanalization of the ureteric bud (~10-12 weeks)
• Extrinsic: Crossing vessel (40%), bands or kinks

Acquired aetiology:
• Renal pelvis trauma
• Obstructing renal calculus distal to VUJ
• Pyelitis with scarring
• Intrinsic malignancy (e.g. upper tract TCC)
• Extrinsic compression or encasement: (Fibrosis, Crossing vessel, Malignancy)

Associations:

- Renal duplication
- Multicystic dysplastic kidneys
- Horse-shoe kidney or cross fused ectopic
- 10% associated w VUR

ANSWER: Associated with vesicoureteric reflux (in 10%)

18
Q

What is not a risk factor for adenocarcinoma of the bladder? (March 2015)

a. Urachal remnant
b. Bladder exstrophy
c. Schistosomiasis
d. Chronic infection
e. Bladder calculi
f. Diverticuli
g. Aniline dye

A

Risk factors for bladder adenoCa:
o Persistent urachal remnant (most common risk factor)
o Cystitis glandularis
- Small focal polypoid bladder mucosal thickening & irregularities due to metaplasia of the urothelium
- Metaplastic cells become mucin producing goblet cells
- Proliferates into buds which grow down into the urothelium
- Commonly co-exists with cystitis cystica
- Occurs in the setting of chronic irritation of the bladder mucosa: Bladder outlet obstruction (pelvic lipomatosis, prostatic hypertrophy, bladder TCC); Chronic infection; Bladder calculi; Schistosomiasis
o Bladder exstrophy

Risk factors for bladder TCC:
o Cyclophosphamide
o Aromatic amines (Tobacco smoke, Aniline dye)
o Arylamines (rubber & plastic manufacturing)
o Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (industrial combustion)

ANSWER: Aniline dye is not a risk factor for bladder adenocarcinoma (RF for TCC)

19
Q

Calcified bladder in a Nigerian patient. Most likely malignancy? (March 2015)

a. SCC
b. Adenocarcinoma

A
DDx of bladder wall / lumen calcification:
o Common:
	- Bladder calculus
	- Schistosomiasis
	- TB

o Uncommon:

- Neuroblastoma or phaeochromocytoma
- Radiation 
- Alkaptonuria
- Amyloidosis
- Calculus within a urachal remnant
- Urachal carcinoma
- Carcinoma e.g. encrusted TCC

o Rare:

- Cystinuria
- Cystitis
- Drugs
- Foreign body
- Haematoma
- Hyperparathyroidism

ANSWER: Assuming this man has schistosomiasis, he would most likely have SCC

20
Q

Regarding the aetiology of bladder tumours, which is false? (September 2013)

a. Urachus and adenocarcinoma
b. Strongoloides and transmittal (?transitional)
c. Schistosomiasis and SCC
d. Calculi and SCC
e. Anyline dyes and TCC

A

ANSWER: Stongoloides (round worm) is not associated with TCC

21
Q

Regarding predisposing factors for urinary bladder maligancy, which is the least likely association? (March 2014)

a. Cystitis glandularis and …
b. Schistosomiasis and SCC
c. Aniline dye and adenocarcinoma
d. Bladder diverticula and …

A

Cystitis glandularis:
o Metaplastic transformation of the transitional cell epithelium of the urinary bladder
o Most common at the bladder trigone
o Diffuse vs focal:
- Focal more common
- Diffuse related to chronic irritative states such as paraplegia, bladder stones or permanent catheterisation
o Similar to cystitis cystica, which is also a result of chronic inflammation of the bladder

Pathology:
- Metaplasia of cells into goblet cell containing epithelium

Cystitis cystica:
Causes:
	- Chronic bladder outlet obstruction (Pelvic lipomatosis; BPH; Bladder TCC)
	- Chronic infection
	- Bladder calculi

Pathology:
- Metaplasia of cells into cystic deposits
o Associated with adenocarcinoma of the bladder

ANSWER: Aniline dye (aromatic amine) is assoc w bladder TCC, not adenocarcinoma

22
Q

A woman has umbilical discharge and a carcinoma of the dome of the bladder. What is the most likely diagnosis? (March 2016)

a. Adenocarcinoma
b. TCC
c. SCC
d. Metastases

A

ANSWER: Adenocarcinoma – the woman most likely has a urachal remnant

23
Q

Which two conditions are not associated? (March 2016)

a. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis & pelvicalyceal obstruction
b. Ureteric lesion & fibromatosis

A

Fibroepithelial polyp of the ureter aka ureteral fibroepithelial polyp:
o Benign mesodermal lesion w a hyperplastic fibroconnective stromal core & normal urothelial
- Most common benign epithelial tumour of the ureter
- No malignant potential

Imaging features:

  • Elongated, soft tissue density mass w/in lumen of the distal ureter
  • May protrude into the bladder

Clinical presentation:

  • Flank pain and haematuria
  • Flank pain usually transient, related to prolapse, torsion or intussuception

Epidemiology:

  • 20-40 years
  • Slight male predominance

Pathology:

  • Precise aetiology unknown, thought to relate to a mixture of chronic inflammation & genetics
  • Polypoid pink/tan lesion with a smooth surface

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis:
o Rare form of chronic pyelonephritis
- Chronic granulomatous disease which results in a non-functioning kidney

Epidemiology:

- Middle aged to elderly
- More common in diabetics
- Slight female predilection

Pathology:

  • Chronic but incomplete immune reaction
  • Pathogens: E. Coli, Proteus
  • Kidney replaced w a mass of reactive granulomatous tissue (diffuse form)
  • Surrounds an inciting struvite staghorn calculus in 90%
  • Hydronephrosis secondary to obstruction

Staging:
Stage 1: confined to the renal parenchyma only
Stage 2: involves the renal parenchyma as well as extension into the perirenal fat
Stage 3: disease extends into the perirenal and pararenal spaces or diffuse retroperitoneum

o Diffuse in 90% and focal in 10% (mimics other renal masses)

DDx:
Diffuse: renal TB
Focal: renal TB, renal abscess, RCC, fat poor AML

ANSWER: XGP is assoc w obstruction (staghorn calculus). Fibroepithelial polyps of the ureter are not assoc w fibromatosis, but thought to relate to chronic inflammation.

24
Q

Which is false regarding xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis? (April 2013)

a. Rarely bilateral
b. Less than 10% are associated with obstruction
c. Associated with gram negative infection
d. Can mimic a renal cell cancer on imaging

A

ANSWER: Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is often associated with a staghorn calculus, and therefore obstruction.