Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

Regarding pituitary adenoma, which is false? (September 2013, March 2016)

a. Associated with MEN 2
b. Large macroadenomas tend to invade the cavernous sinus
c. Less likely to constrict the ICA than meningioma
d. Pituitary macroadenomas cause bitemporal hemianopia
e. Pituitary adenomas can cause galactorrhoea

A

Pituitary macroadenomas:
o Most common suprasellar mass in adults
o Defined as pituitary adenomas >10mm
o Twice as common as pituitary microadenomas

Clinical presentation:
 Local mass effect on structures e.g. the optic chiasm
 Hormonal imbalance
 Symptoms of hypopituitarism from compression
 Rarely: pituitary apoplexy

Optic chiasm compression

  • May be contacted, elevated or compression of the central part of the chiasm
  • Central chiasm covers the fibres for the nasal retina
  • In prefixed or postfixed chiasms (anterior or posterior to the pituitary fossa), there may be variable visual symptoms

Cavernous sinus invasion:
- Invasive growth & extension into the cavernous sinus seen w some adenomas
- More common in prolactin secreting tumours
• Circulating levels of prolactin increase when the adenoma gains access to the sinus
- Adenomas involving the sinus are difficult to resect
- Compression of cranial nerves: 1-14% - Most commonly occulomotor nerve
- Can encase the cavernous ICA
• <90 degrees of encasement suggests the cavernous sinus is not involved
• >270 degrees of encasement makes invasion almost certain

ANSWER: Pituitary adenomas are associated w MEN 1, not MEN 2a/b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the rarest presentation of a pituitary microadenoma? (March 2014)

a. Non-functioning
b. TSH secreting
c. ACTH secreting
d. FSH and LH secreting
e. Prolactin secreting

A
Incidence of functional status of a pituitary adenoma:
o Non functioning ~ 35%
o Functioning ~ 65%
	- Prolactin secreting – 30%
	- Growth hormone secreting – 15%
	- ACTH – 6%
	- TSH – 1%
	- FSH and LH - 10%

ANSWER: Thyrotroph microadenomas are the least common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the most common hormone secreted by pituitary microadenomas? (March 2017)

a. Prolactin

A

ANSWER: Prolactin is the most common hormone secreted by functioing pituitary microadenomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is most likely to be overproduced in an empty sella? (August 2016)

a. Prolactin
b. Growth hormone
c. ACTH
d. Thyrotropin

A

Empty sella
o Common incidental finding – sella largely empty of tissue and at least a little expanded. 20% of the population
o Associated w benign intracranial HTN

Pathology:
Primary -
• Herniation of the arachnoid space into the pituitary fossa through a deficient diaphragm
• More likely to occur in cases of intracranial HTN, however can be seen w/out
• More common in overweight females, or women w multiple pregnancies
• May cause visual symptoms or result in hyperprolactinaemia due to the interruption of inhibitory hypothalamic inputs

Secondary -
• Mass (e.g. pituitary macroadenoma) enlarges the sella & is then surgically removed or infarcts
• Causes a loss of pituitary function

ANSWER: Prolactin is most likely to be overproduced in an empty sella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Regarding craniopharyngioma, which is false? (September 2013)

a. Arises from the pituitary fossa
b. In a child, the lesion is lobulated and well defined
c. There are two peaks of incidence, in childhood and in mid-adulthood
d. It is usually calcified in childhood
e. Solid in adults

A

Craniopharyngioma
o WHO Grade I neoplasms which typically arise in the sellar/suprasellar region
- Can occur anywhere along the infundibulum, from the floor of the 3rd ventricle to the pituitary gland
- 75% have involvement of the sella & infrasellar spaces, however the lesions are predominantly suprasella in location (20% purely suprasella; <5% purely intrasella). Rare ectopic locations: intraventricular, nasopharynx, posterior fossa & extension down the cervical spine
o Derived from Rathke cleft (Rathke pouch remnants). Previously thought to derive from squamous cells of the craniopharyngeal duct

Adamantinomatous type (90%):

- Paediatric type, ages 10-14
- Equal M=F
- Visual symptoms less common at presentation (20%)

Pathology:
• Reticular epithelial cells which resemble the enamel pulp of developing teeth
• Single or multiple cysts filled w thick, proteinaceous fluid, blood products +/- cholesterol (machinery oil consistency) - Ameloblastomas of the suprasellar region
• Characterised by ‘wet keratin nodules’
• Calcification in 90%

Imaging features:
• Lobulated contour w multiple cystic lesions
• Solid components do not predominate
• 90% calcified
• May be large, extend into the 3rd ventricle and/or encase vessels - Often adherent to adjacent structures

Papillary (20%)

- Seen almost exclusively in adults
- Visual changes in 80% at presentation (more common)

Pathology:
• Formed of masses of metaplastic squamous cells - “Wet keratin’ is absent
• Cysts can form, but are not the predominant feature - More solid appearing tumour
• Calcification rare

Imaging features:
• Solid lesions – may contain a few cysts
• More spherical in contour
• Displace adjacent structures rather than encasing them

ANSWER: While paediatric craniopharyngiomas have a lobulated contour, they are usually poorly defined & may be adherent to adjacent structures and encase vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is true regarding craniopharyngioma? (March 2017)

a. Adamantinomatous is usually in adults
b. Papillary is usually in children
c. Craniopharyngioma usually has calcification and does not enhance

A

ANSWER: All options are false.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Precocious puberty is associated with all except: (March 2014)

a. Craniopharyngioma
b. Ovarian cyst
c. Adrenocortical carcinoma

A

Causes of precocious puberty:
o Central precocious puberty:
- Idiopathic
- Hypothalamic hamartoma
- Tumour: astrocytoma, cranipharyngioma, pituitary adenoma
- Congenital disorder: hydrocephalus, myelomeningocoele, arachnoid cyst
- Acquired: radiation, chemotherapy, post head trauma or post infection

o Peripheral precocious puberty:
- Ovarian tumour:
• Oestrogen secreting: granulosa cell, functional cyst
• Androgen secreting: sertoli-leydig cell, arrhenoblastoma (contrasexual)
- Adrenal cause:
• Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
• Cushing syndrome (contrasexual)
• Neoplasm: oestrogen or androgen secreting adenoma or carcinoma
- Exogenous sex hormones: contraceptives, skin creams, anabolic steroids
- McCune Albright syndrome
- Longstanding hypothyroidism
o Variants of normal pubertal development

ANSWER: All three options have been implicated in precocious puberty. The ovarian cyst would have to be a functional cyst. Adrenocortical carcinoma is very uncommon in children (peak age of onset 50 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Regarding tumours of the sella region, which is false? (September 2013)

a. Meningiomas are more likely to constrict the ICA than pituitary macroadenoma
b. Arachnoid cyst displaces the stalk anteriorly
c. A normal sized sella favours meningioma rather than a macroadenoma
d. Large macroadenomas invade the cavernous sinus

A

• Meningiomas of the cavernous sinus often constrict the cavernous ICA
o Pituitary macroadenomas can encase the ICA (>30% considered encasement), however do not typically cause narrowing
• Macroadenomas often expand the sella before growing superiorly into the suprasella recess

ANSWER: All options are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which will not result in diabetes inspidus? (March 2015)

a. Treatment with desmopressin
b. Head trauma
c. Sarcoid of the pituitary stalk
d. Lymphocytic hypophysitis
e. TB meningitis

A

Diabetes insipidus
o Deficiency (central/hypothalamic) or resistance (peripheral/nephrogenic) to ADH/vasopressin
- Causes polyuria and polydipsia

Causes of central diabetes insipidus:

- Trauma
- Neurosurgery
- Malignancy of the suprasellar region or stalk: craniopharyngioma, germinoma, metastases
- Autoimmune e.g. sarcoidosis, LCH, IgG4
- Infection e.g. tuberculosis
- Pregnancy
- Familial
- Idiopathic
- Lymphocytic hypophysitis of the posterior pituitary (rare). Anterior gland more commonly involved, mimics a pituitary adenoma

Causes of peripheral DI:

- Long term lithium use (15%)
- Metabolic (hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia)
- Chronic renal disease
- Pregnancy
- Congenital renal insensitivity to vasopression

Management:
- Desmopressin can be used to treat central DI

ANSWER: Treatment with desmopressin – this is the current standard management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most likely cause of post-partum pituitary dysfunction? (March 2016)

a. Lymphocytic hypophysitis

A

Lymphocytic hypophysitis:
o Non-neoplastic inflammatory condition of the pituitary gland
- Related to orbital pseudotumour and Tolosa-Hunt

Epidemiology:

- More common in women
- Post-partum or third trimester of pregnancy

Clinical presentation:
- Anterior pituitary (lymphocytic adenohypophysitis)
• Most common
• Mimics a pituitary adenoma
• Endocrine and hormone deficits
• Mass effect on the adjacent structures, including the optic chiasm

  • Posterior pituitary (lymphocytic infundibular panhypophysitis)
    • Rare
    • Diabetes insipidis

Associations:

- Auto-immune conditions: autoimmune thyroiditis, pernicious anaemia
- Monoclonal antibody drugs e.g. ipilmumab

Pathology:

  • Infiltration of the pituitary stalk w lymphocytes
  • Paucity of plasma cells & granulomas - Separate pathology to IgG4 disease & sarcoidosis

ANSWER: Lymphocytic hypophysitis is more common in females, particularly post partum or in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Regarding Hashimoto thyroiditis, which is true? (September 2013)

a. Rare cause of hypothyroidism
b. Rare cause of hyperthyroidism
c. Rare cause of goiter
d. Rarely malignant
e. No measurable antibodies

A

Hashimoto disease
o Autoimmune thyroiditis resulting in parenchymal destruction & progressive thyroid failure
- Most common cause of hypothyroidism in regions w/out endemic iodine deficiency
- Transient hyperthyroidism early in the disease course

Epidemiology:

- Most prevalent ages 45-65
- 10-20:1 female predominance

Pathology:
- Anti-thyroid antibodies
• Occurs secondary to a loss of self tolerance to thyroid antigen
• 40% concordance in monozygotic twins.
- Anti-bodies target thyroglobulin & thyroid peroxidase
- Injury mediated by CD8+ cytotoxic T cells
• Progressive loss of thyroid epithelium
• Mononuclear cell infiltration
• Fibrosis

Macro:
- Diffusely enlarged thyroid w pale parenchyma & an intact capsule
o Assoc w other autoimmune conditions such as DMI, autoimmune adrenalitis (Addison’s disease), SLE & Sjogrens

ANSWER: Hashimoto thyroiditis is rarely malignant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which is least likely concerning thyroid disorders? (March 2014)

a. Antibodies in Hashimoto thyroiditis are to TSH
b. Subacute thyroiditis has seasonal variation due to the association with viral infection
c. Patients with Grave disease have low TSH levels
d. Simple goitre is associated with cassava consuming population
e. Plummer syndrome is due to a toxic nodule in a multinodular goitre

A

Hashimoto disease
o Occurs secondary to loss of self tolerance to thyroid antigens (T cell response & protein tryosine phosphatase)
o Circulating autoantibodies to thyroglobulin & thyroid peroxidase - CD8+ activation
o Injury characterised by progressive thyroid epithelium depletion, mononuclear cell infiltration and fibrosis of the thyroid

Assoc populations w endemic simple goitre have higher levels of consumption of soy beans, cassava and cruciferous vegetables

A toxic nodule within a goitre is referred to as Plummer syndrome

ANSWER: Hashimoto disease is not assoc w TSH autoantibodies – antibodies are directed against thyroglobulin & thyroid peroxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which is true regarding Graves disease? (August 2014)

a. Most common in elderly women
b. TSH can distinguish between toxic adenoma and Graves disease
c. Associated with thyroglobulin antibody

A

Graves disease:
o Autoimmune thyroid disease
o Most common cause of thyrotoxicosis (85%)

Epidemiology:

  • Strong female predilection (5:1)
  • Middle age

Presentation:

- Thyrotoxicosis
- Pre-tibial myxedema (2%)
- Thyroid acropachy (1%)
- Graves opthalmopathy (20-25%)
- Encephalopathy assoc w autoimmune thyroid disease (EAATD) (rare)

Pathology:

- Antibody directed at the TSH receptor, causing overproduction of T3 and T4 - Thyroid receptor antibodies TSI, TGI, TBII
- Diffuse, fleshy glandular enlargement
- Micro: plump follicular cells hyperplastic follicles, evidence of colloid resorption. Scalloping of the apical membrane and variable follicle collapse/exhaustion

ANSWER: TGI (thyroglobulin antibody) is seen in 30% of patients w Graves disease. Both toxic adenoma & Graves disease have low TSH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer? (September 2013)

a. Papillary
b. Medullary
c. Anaplastic
d. Follicular
e. Hurthle cell

A
  • Papillary: 60-80%
  • Follicular: 10-20%
  • Medullary: 5%
  • Anaplastic: 1-2%
  • Lymphoma: 2-5%
  • Thyroid metastases: 1%

ANSWER: Papillary is the most common type of thyroid cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which subtype of thyroid carcinoma is most likely to have lymphadenopathy? (March 2016)

a. Papillary
b. Anaplastic
c. Medullary
d. Follicular

A

ANSWER: Papillary is most likely to have nodal metastases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which is true? (August 2016)

a. The most likely position for ectopic parathyroid is superior to the thyroid

A

Variant anatomy of the parathyroid glands:
o Supernumerary glands: 15%
o Fewer than four galnds: 3%
o Ectopic parathyroid glands – most commonly inferior to the inferior pole of the thyroid

ANSWER: No correct answer – ectopic parathyroid glands are most commonly inferior to the thyroid

17
Q

Regarding the effects of hyperparathyroidism: (March 2015)

a. All have defective dentogenesis
b. Primary is associated with lens calcification
c. Secondary is associated with cardiac calcification
d. Tertiary is associated with dental anomalies
e. It is exacerbated by vitamin D deficiency

A
Primary hyperparathyroidism
o Causes:
	Single adenoma (85%)
	Hyperplasia & multiple adenomas (15%)
	Carcinomas (0.5%)

o Clinical conditions:
MEN type I and IIa
Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia
Familial isolated primary hyperparathyroidism
o Exacerbated by vitamin D deficiency (which is commonly assoc)
o Females 2-3 times more common

o Features:
- Normal or high PTH, high serum calcium, low phosphate & high urine calcium and phosphate
- Clinical manifestations mimic hypercalcaemia:
• Renal: Nephrolithiasis; Nephrocalcinosis; Diabetes insipidis; Renal failure
• Musculoskeletal: Osteofibrosis cystica & Brown’s tumours; Osteoporosis; Osteomalacia; Arthritis; Muscle weakness; Floating teeth; Bone resorption (Subperiosteal, Subchondral, Subligamentous, Intracortical, Acro-osteolysis); Chondrocalcinosis; Metastatic soft tissue calcification
• Gastrointestinal: Constipation; Indigestion/Nausea/Vomiting; Peptic ulcers; Acute pancreatitis
• CNS: Lethargy/fatigue/depression; Memory loss; Psychosis/delirium; Coma
• Eyes: Band keratopathy – calcification of the cornea
• Cardiac: LVH; Aortic & mitral valve calcification
• Other: Itch

Secondary hyperparathyroidism:
o Causes:
- Chronic hypocalcaemia which causes parathyroid hyperplasia
•	Renal osteodystrophy (most common)
•	Malnutrition
•	Vitamin D deficiency

o Clinical:
- Low calcium, high PTH, high serum phosphate & low urine calcium and phosphate

o Features:
	- MSK features assoc w osteosclerosis of renal osteodystrophy:
•	Subperiosteal bone resorption
•	Osteopaenia
•	Osteosclerosis e.g. rugger jersey spine
•	Soft tissue calcification
•	Superscan on NM
•	Superior & inferior rib notching
	- Widespread vascular calcification

o Long term secondary hyperparathyroidism can lead to the parathyroid glands becoming autonomous w excessive hormone overproduction

- Tertiary hyperparathyroidism
- May require Tx w parathyroidectomy

ANSWER: All are exacerbated by vitamin D deficiency – all types benefit from supplementation

18
Q

Hypocalcaemia is associated with (March 2016):

a. Primary hyperparathyroidism
b. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
c. Tertiary hypoparathyroidism
d. Parathyroid adenoma
e. Parathyroid carcinoma

A

ANSWER: Secondary hyperparathyroidism is assoc w hypocalcaemia in the setting of renal osteodystrophy

19
Q

Which of the following is least likely?

a. Bone changes of primary hyperparathyroidism is due to osteomalacia
b. Vitamin D deficiency can exacerbate bone changes due to secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

ANSWER: Bone changes in primary hyperparathyroidism are primarily due to osteoporosis (osteoclast activation) and osteitis fibrosa cystica (brown tumours); osteomalacia may be seen in late disease but is not the primary pathology

20
Q

Which is false regarding parathyroid adenomas? (March 2017)

a. Most occur superior to the thyroid

A

Parathyroid adenomas are most commonly posterior/inferior to the thyroid gland

Adenomas are ectopic in 5%:
o	Mediastinum
o	Retroperitoneum
o	Carotid sheath
o	Intrathyroid

ANSWER: Most parathyroid adenomas occur posteroinferior to the thyroid gland

21
Q

What is more likely to occur in type II over type I diabetes? (March 2015)

a. Autonomic neuropathy
b. Peripheral neuropathy
c. Glaucoma
d. Glomerulosclerosis

A
  • Type II diabetes is a risk factor for glaucoma, however type I is not
  • Diabetic nephropathy is more likely to occur in type I over type II

ANSWER: Glaucoma

22
Q

Regarding the microangiopathic changes in diabetes mellitus, which is least likely? (March 2014)

a. Papillary necrosis
b. Glomerulosclerosis
c. Autonomic neuropathy
d. Sensory motor neuropathy
e. Macula oedema

A

ANSWER: Papillary necrosis is not assoc w diabetes mellitus

23
Q

Long term complications of Diabetes Mellitus

A

Chronic complications of diabetes:
o Macrovascular complications (accelerated atherosclerosis)
- Heart disease – MI
- Stroke
- Extremity gangrene
- Hyaline arteriosclerosis is more prevalent & severe

o Microvascular disease (capillary dysfunction)

- Nephropathy
- Retinopathy
- Neuropathy

o Diabetic microangiopathy

- Diffuse basement membrane thickening
- Affecting the capillaries of the skin, skeletal muscle, retina, renal glomeruli & renal medulla
- Capillaries become more leaky to plasma proteins
Basement membrane thickening can affect non-vascular structures:
•	Renal tubules
•	Bowman’s capsule
•	Peripheral nerves
•	Placenta
o Diabetic nephropathy
- Glomerular involvement:
•	Diffuse basement membrane thickening
•	Mesangial sclerosis
•	Nodular glomerulosclerosis
•	+/- exudative lesions
- Vascular effects:
•	Renal artery atherosclerosis & arteriosclerosis
•	Benign nephrosclerosis - (Symmetrical atrophy w reduced nephron mass. Rarely causes severe damage to the kidney. Minor functional impairment: mild GFR reduction, mild proteinuria)
•	Hypertension
- Increased incidence of infection

o Diabetic neuropathy:

  • Direct neural injury
  • Ischaemia
24
Q

Which is not a feature of diabetes mellitus? (March 2017)

a. Calcification of the vas deferens and/or seminal vesicles
b. Pancreatitis

A

ANSWER: Pancreatitis is a cause of diabetes mellitus, not a complication

25
Q

Which has the least malignant potential? (March 2015, August 2016)

a. Insulinoma
b. Mucinous neoplasm
c. IPMN
d. Pseudopapillary neoplasm
e. Pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasm

A

Incidence of malignancy in lesions:
o Insulinoma – 5-10%
o Mucinous neoplasm – 33%. Considered a premalignant or malignant lesion & always excised
o Main brain IPMN – 60%
o Side branch IPMN – 5%
o Pseudopapillary neoplasm – 15%
o Pancreatic intraepithelial neoplasm – rare

ANSWER: Provided IPMN refers to both side and main branch lesions, insulinoma would have the least malignant potential of this list

26
Q

What is expected in Conn Syndrome? (September 2013)

a. Hyperkalaemia
b. Hypercalcaemia
c. Hypotension
d. Single adrenal

A

Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)
o Condition of excess aldosterone production
o Occurs secondary to adrenal cortical adenoma (60-70%), bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (25-30%) or adrenal carcinoma (rare)
- Adrenal adenomas usually unilateral (95%)
- Excess aldosterone excretion can also be seen in renin related hypertensions

Presentation:

- Diastolic hypertension
- Metabolic alkalosis
- Hypokalaemia

o Primary vs secondary hyperaldosterosteronism:

- Primary: low renin
- Secondary: high renin

ANSWER: Unclear. “Single adrenal” may refer to a unilateral adrenal adenoma, which is the most common cause.

27
Q

Which is least likely to cause hyperaldosteronism? (March 2017)

a. Adrenal adenoma
b. Congenital adrenal hypoplasia

A

ANSWER: Congenital adrenal hypoplasia will produce hypoaldosteronism, not hyperaldosteronism

28
Q

Which is true regarding adrenal cortical carcinoma? (August 2014)

a. 11-hydroxylase
b. 17-hydroxlase
c. Can resemble adrenal hyperplasia

A

Adrenal cortical carcinoma
o Aggressive but rare neoplasm, may be hormonally active (30-40%) or inactive

Epidemiology:

- M=F
- Functioning tumours more common in females
- Females more likely to have an associated syndrome
- Affects all ages, peak age 50; Smaller peak in children, more likely to have functional tumours

Clinical manifestations of active tumours:

  • Cushings syndrome (most common): hypersecretion of cortisol
  • Virilisation or feminization: hypersecretion of androgens
  • Conn Syndrome: hyperaldosteronism

Associated syndromes:

- Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
- Li-Fraumeni syndrome
- Carney Complex
- MEN1

Morphology and imaging:

  • Large masses (usually >6cm), w areas of central necrosis & haemorrhage
  • Calcification in 30%
  • Heterogenous contrast enhancement
  • May look identical on imaging to phaechromocytoma

Pattern of spread:
- Local invasion: adrenal vein, IVC, kidney, retoperitoneum
• May cause tumour thromboemboli
- Metastases: liver (60%), regional LNs (40%), lungs (40%) peritoneal & pleural surfaces, bone, skin (anaplastic tumours) & retroperitoneum

High serum DHEA-S

Diagnosis:

  • Only can definitely classify as a malignancy in tumours which show local invasion or metastases
  • DDx adenoma

Prognosis:
- Slightly better prognosis in children w tumours <400g

Causes of congenital adrenal hypoplasia:
o	21-hydroxylase – 90-95%
o	11beta-hydroxylase – 5%
o	3beta-HSD - rare
o	17alpha-hydroxalase – rare
o	Lipoid – rare

ANSWER: No responses are true of adrenal cortical carcinoma. The two hydroxalases are implicated in congenital adrenal hypoplasia. Adrenal cortical carcinoma resembles adrenal adenoma, not hyperplasia, as it is mass like.

29
Q

Which is true about carcinoids and neuroendocrine tumours? (March 2015)

a. Carcinoid can transform into a large cell NET
b. Carcinoid usually presents with carcinoid syndrome
c. VMA is a marker for phaeochromocytoma / paraganglioma
d. Extra-adrenal phaeochromocytomas are less likely to be malignant
e. Patients experience intermittent hypertension attacks

A

Carcinoid syndrome:
o Spectrum of symptoms which results from excessive hormone secretion - Primarily serotonin

Symptoms:
	Diarrhoea
	Flushing
	Right heart failure
	Pain 
	Bronchospasm

o 8% of patients with a carcinoid tumour
o In the case of GI carcinoid, this implies the presence of hepatic metastases as serotonin is usually removed completely by 1st pass metabolism in the liver

Carcinoid blood markers:
o 5-HIAA – suggests functioning carcinoid tumour
o Chromogranin A – used in the Dx of neuroendocrine neoplasia in general

Phaeochromocytoma:
o 10% rule:
	10% extra-adrenal
	10% bilateral
	10% malignant
	10% paediatric
	10% familial
	10% not assoc w HTN
	10% contain calcification
o 0.1-0.6% of hypertensive adults
	- Majority have secondary uncontrolled hypertension
	- Minority have superimposed paroxysmal hypertensive crises (up to 50%)

Pathology:

- Type of paraganglioma
- Catecholamine secreting lesions, derived from chromaffin cells - Adrenal medulla in adrenal lesions
Associated conditions:
- MEN II (IIa and IIb):
•	3% of all phaeochromocytoma
•	Almost always w/in the adrenal gland
•	Almost always bilateral
- Von Hippel-Lindau disease
- NF1
- Sturge-Weber
- Carney triad: extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma, GIST, pulmonary chondroma
- TS
- Familial phaeochromocytoma
Extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma:
Locations:
•	Along the sympathetic chain
•	Urinary bladder
•	Organ of Zuckerkandl
•	Thoracic paragangliomas rare (1-2% of all cases) - More likely to be malignant & metastasize

Diagnostic tests:
- Plasma metanephrines
- 24 hour urinary catecholamines
- Urinary VMA (vanillylmandelic acid)
• By-product of noradrenaline metabolism (w normetanephrine)
• Elevated in cases of phaeochromocytoma / paraganglioma

ANSWER: A minority of patients w phaeochromocytoma experience paroxysms of HTN, elevated urinary VMA is used as a diagnostic test in the setting of phaeochromocytoma

30
Q

Regarding phaeochromocytoma, which is false? (September 2013)

a. MEN I
b. VHL
c. NF1
d. Sturge-Weber

A

ANSWER: MEN I is not assoc w phaeochromocytoma, but MEN IIa/b are

31
Q

Regarding phaeochromocytomas, which is true?

a. HMA/VMA can be used for screening and follow up

A

ANSWER: HMA/VMA can be used for screening and follow up

32
Q

What are the most likely features associated with phaeochromocytoma? (March 2016)

a. Usually less than 2cm at diagnosis
b. Can be detected with serum VMA

A

ANSWER: Both are false – phaeochromocytoma is usually >2cm at Dx & urine VMA is used to test for VMA and HMA

33
Q

Regarding neuroblastoma: (September 2013, March 2016, August 2016)

a. Metastatic disease in infants can regress
b. Most are amenable to surgical complete resection
c. Almost all arise from the adrenal glands
d. Gangliocytoma is more malignant than neuroblastoma

A

Neuroblastoma (stage 4S – special)
o <1 year old age
o Localised tumour (stage 1, 2A or 2B)
o Distant mets confined to the skin, liver and/or bone marrow
o Better prognosis, can spontaneously regress

Pathology of neuroblastoma:
o Tumours arise from primitive neuroectodermal cells or neural crest cells (adrenal medulla precursors)
- Similar histology to small round blue cell tumours
- Form Homer-Wright rosettes
o Chromosome 1p deletion & N-myc amplification
- TRK-A expression has a better prognosis

Location:
o	Adrenal glands – 35%
o	Retroperitoneum – 30-35% Organ of Zuckerkandl, Coeliac axis, Paravertebral sympathetic chain
o	Posterior mediastinum – 20%
o	Neck – 1-5%
o	Pelvis – 2-3%
Associations:
o	Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
o	Central failure of ventilation
o	DiGeorge syndrome
o	Hirschsprung disease
o	NF1

Gangliocytoma:
o Rare indolent tumours of the neuroaxis (WHO grade I)
- Typically cortical solid lesions w little assoc mass effect or oedema
- May have cyst formation & calcification
o Differ from gangliomas by the absence of neoplastic glial cells

ANSWER: Metastatic disease in infants can regress

34
Q

Which is true regarding neuroblastoma? (March 2017)

a. Metastatic disease can regress spontaneously in patients under 1 year old
b. Serum VMA is used in screening

A

ANSWER: Stage 4S can spontaneously regress in some circumstances. Urine VMA is used in screening.

35
Q

Which is not a feature of MEN I? (March 2017)

a. Phaeochromocytoma

A

MEN I – WERMER SYNDROME

  • Pituitary adenomas (30%) - Most frequently prolactinomas
  • Pancreatic endocrine tumours (50%) - Most commonly gastrinomas, then glucagonomas
  • Parathyroid hypoplasia (80-95%)
Other associations:
o	Lipomas
o	Angiofibromas
o	Adrenal cortical lesions: adenomas, adrenocortical hyperplasia, cortisol-secreting adenomas, adrenal carcinomas
o	Carcinoid tumours
o	Hepatic FNH
o	Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

MENIIa – SIPPLE SYNDROME

  • Phaeochromocytoma (50%)
  • Medullary thyroid cancer (100%)
  • Parathyroid hyperplasia (20%)

MENIIb – MUSCULAR NEUROMA SYNDROME

  • Phaeochromocytoma (50%)
  • Medullary thyroid cancer (100%)
  • Mucosal neuroma/ganglioneuroma
  • Marfanoid habitus

ANSWER: Phaeochromocytoma is not a feature of MEN I, however it is a feature of MEN IIa and IIb

36
Q

A patient has a constellation of features suggesting MEN syndrome. Imaging shows dense centrilobular nodules in the lungs. The nodules are hot on bone scan. Which is the most likely diagnosis? (March 2017)

a. Metastatic calcification
b. Alveolar microlithiasis

A
Metastatic calcification:
o Imaging:
	Fluffy, dense centrilobular nodules
	May not appear densely calcified on CT
	Hot on bone scan
o Causes:
	CRF (most common)
	Primary & secondary hyperparathyroidism
	Sarcoidosis
	Vitamin D intoxication
	IV calcium therapy
	Multiple myeloma
	Massive osteolysis from metastases

ANSWER: Metastatic calcification would be most likely, assuming the patient has primary hyperparathyroidism secondary to parathyroid hyperplasia (MEN I)