Renal Flashcards

1
Q

Dent disease

Presentation

Gene

A

Dent disease is also known as X-linked recessive nephrolithiasis.

Children with Dent disease present with polyuria, microscopic haematuria, proteinuria or kidney stones. 75% of patients develop kidney stones.

Most cases of Dent disease are caused by mutations in theCLCN5genethat inactivates a voltage-gated chloride transporter named CLC-5. Some cases are associated with mutations in theOCRL1gene, which is also the gene mutation associated with Lower oculocerebrorenal syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cystinosis

Presentation

Diagnosis

A

Cystinosis is a lysosomal storage disease. Cysteine accumulates in organs and tissues, leading to severe organ dysfunction.

Children appear normal at birth but present with renal problems at 3-6 months of age. They will often have vitamin D resistant rickets at presentation, secondary to phosphate wasting.

Diagnosis is confirmed by measuring high levels of cysteine in leukocytes or fibroblasts.

Homocystinuria is a different entity but is often confused with cystinosis because of the similar name. Children with homocystinuria have Marfanoid habitus and are prone to thrombotic events but do not usually have renal problems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Von Gierke disease

Clinical features

A

Von Gierke disease is also known as glycogen storage disease type 1a.

Clinical features include hepatomegaly, seizures (secondary to hypoglycaemia), renal calculi, poor growth and doll-like facies. It presents in infancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Wilson’s disease renal complications

A

A less well known clinical feature of Wilson disease is that is can lead to distal renal tubular acidosis which results in kidney stones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aldosterone.

Action in hypovolemia

A

Increases reabsorption of Na+ by acting primarily on principal cells in collecting ducts. Responsible for active sodium reabsorption and subsequent water conservation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Angiotensin II.

Action in hypovolemia

A

Produces arteriolar constriction and increases SBP and DBP. One of the most potent vasoconstrictors known. Also acts on adrenal cortex to increase secretion of aldosterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anti diuretic hormone

Action in hypovolemia

A

Causes retention of water by the kidney by increasing permeability of collecting ducts. Therefore urine becomes more concentrated and its volume decreases. Hence, osmolality of body fluid decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Prostaglandin I2

Action in hypovolemia

A

Unstable cyclooxcygenase metabolite found in vascular endothelial cells. Potent vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation.

During acute hypovolaemia, produces dilation of the renal afferent arteriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Thromboxane

Action

A

Promotes platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction. Activated in acute severe blood loss to contract bleeding vessels and form clot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of anaemia in chronic renal failure?

Which is the most common?

A
Decreased EPO production (MC) 
Iron deficiency
Folate deficiency
Vit B12 deficiency 
Decreased erythrocyte survival 

Recombinant human EPO therapy reduced need for transfusions
Should also be given Fe supplements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which embryonic structure develops into the kidney

A

Metanephros (the most caudal end of the nephrogenic cord)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Antihypertensive - renoprotective and decrease proteinuria

A

ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

UTI in females

Frequency

Bugs

A

3-5% of girls

first occurs by 5 years age, peak in infancy and during toilet training; 60-80% will develop a second UTI within 18 months.

E.coli, Klebsiella and Proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

UTI in boys

Frequency

Bugs

A

1% of boys
most occur during the first 12 months of life, more common if uncircumcised.

E.coli,also gram +ve organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Leading cause of renal artery stenosis (RAS)
Associations
Ix

A

fibromuscular dysplasia is the leading cause.

neurofibromatosis is at increased risk of renal artery stenosis (RAS)

renal arteriography as gold standard. Doppler renal ultrasound may be done as first line but is not as sensitive nor specific.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vesicoureteric reflux (grading)

A

1) limited to ureter
2) reflux up to renal pelvis
3) mild dilatation of ureter and pelvicalycael system
4) tortoise ureter with moderate dilatation + blunting of cornices but preserved papillary impressions
5) tortuous ureter with severe dilatation of ureter and pelvicalycael system + loss of cornices and papillary impressions

17
Q

Triad of nephrotic syndrome

A

Hypoalbuminemia
Oedema
Hyperlipidemia

Associated with large urinary loss of protein

18
Q

Prognosis of multicystic dysplastic kidney

A

Complete cyst regression by 7 in half of patients

15% contralateral VUR
5-10% contralateral hydronephrosis
0.2-1.2% HTN
0.3% Wilms

Most common cause of abdominal mass in newborn

19
Q

Most accurate measure of GRF

A

Cr EDTA clearance
(chromium-51 ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid)
(Less cumbersome that gold standard of inulin)

Patient receives IV Cr EDTA and blood radioactivity is measured at 2 and 4 hrs post

20
Q

Which of the following embryonic structures develops into the kidney?

A

The metanephros is the most caudal end of the nephrogenic cord and becomes the kidney.

21
Q

Renin release from juxtaglomerular cells is stimulated by:

A

Sodium depletion via macula densastimulates renin release.

22
Q

Where does aldosterone act and what does it do

A

Targets epithelial cells in distal colon and renal nephron to resorb Na and secrete K
It increases Ba resorption in distal tubule

23
Q

Formula for fractional excretion of sodium

A

FENa = (UNa X PCr) ÷ (PNa X UCr)

24
Q

Delineate cause of renal failure fro FENa

A

Prerenal <1%
Intrinsic >2% (1-2% probably intrinsic ATN)
Post renal >4%

25
Q

Horseshoe kidney

Frequency
Complications
Associations

A

Most common renal fusion anomaly. 1 in 10,000 births.
Occurs week 5-9

80% have hydronephrosis cause by vesicoureteric reflux, ureteropelvic junction obstruction, renal calculi, external compression
20% renal calculi
Increased risk of UTI due to urinary stasis but do not routinely require prophylaxis

Turners syndrome
Laurance-moon-biedl syndrome

26
Q

Causes of high and normal anion gap acidosis

A

High anion gap is caused by:

ketoacidosis (diabetic, alcohol, starvation)

lactic acidosis (Type A and B)

renal (uraemia)

toxins (including ethylene glycol and aspirin)

Normal anion gap acidosis is caused by:

renal (renal tubular acidosis, carbonic anhydrase inhibitors)

severe GI losses