Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BPT > Renal > Flashcards

Renal Flashcards

1
Q

What do urine dipstics struggle to pick up?

A

Non-albuminic proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

AIN - 5P’s

A

Pee - diuretic (part sulfur)
PPI
Pain - NSAIDs
Penicillins and cephalasporins
RifamPin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

3 criteria for brain death testing

A

GCS 3
No brainstem reflexes
APnoea test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Causes of high omsolar gap

A

Methanol, ethanol, sorbitol (alcohols)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mechanism of frusemide resistance

A

Increased Na absorption other sites in nephron –> called ‘braking’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Poor predictors in IgA nephropathy
- predict ESKD

A

Proteinuria > 1g/day
HTN
Cr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Moa of insulin in hyperkalaemia

A

Enhances Na/K pump in skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bartter’s site?

A

Thick Asc LoH - loop diuretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gittelman’s site

A

DCT - thiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bartter’s vs Gittelman’s differences

A

Bartter’s - nephrocalcinosis

Gittelman’s - hypercalcaemia, hypomagnesiaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Liddle syndrome
- features
- defect

A

Increased Na channel activity at distal collecting duct

Present’s as Conn’s but low aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment of Liddle

A

Traimterone or amiloride (distal Na channel blockers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tacrolimus benefits A/E over cyclosporin

A

Less acute rejection and graft loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Tacro A/E compared with cyclosporin

A

More diabetes
More hypomagnesiaemia
More HTN/PRES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cyclosporin A/E more than tacro

A

Gum hypertrophy
Hirsutism
Dyslipidaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Calciphylaxis management

A

Correction of CaPO4 product
Sodium thiosulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Linear IgG

A

Anti-GBM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

IgA and IgG, but IgA greater

A

IgA nephropathy or HSP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

IgG and C3 seen only - suggestive of?

Causes?

A

Immune complex

External to GBM = post-strep

Internal/mesangium = MPGN
- Autoimmune/cryo
- M protein/amyloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Full house - C1q, IgM, IgA, C3, IgG

A

Lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

No IgG or C3

A

Pauci immune

RPGN - ANCA vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Benefits of MMF over AZA

A

No drug interaction with xanthine oxidase

No TPMT testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A/E of MMF compared to AZA

A

More diarrhoea

Teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A/E of mTOR over CNI

A

Wound infection
Teratogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Benefits of mTOR over CNI

A

Less SCC/BCC
Less CMV infection (often used if high risk of reactivation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Triple phosphate

A

Struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Alkaline urine and stones

A

Struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Coffin lid shaped

A

Struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which stones to treat with urinary alkalinisation

A

Uric - 6.5-7
Cysteine - > 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Type 1 RTA associated with which stones?

A

Ca oxalate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Envelope shaped

A

Ca oxalate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Rhomboid shaped calculi

A

Uric acid

33
Q

Good to make make Ca and Oxalate soluble in urine

A

Citrate

34
Q

LM shows C3 but no IGG
- 2 options?

A

Dense deposit disease - have sausage waxy shaped

C3 glomerulopathy

35
Q

Monocytes/t cells in Bowman’s space on Light micrsocopy

A

Crescents –> RPGN

36
Q

PLA2R positive and proteinuria - when to biopsy?

A

Renal impairment

Any other doubt re diagnosis - other risk factors (diabetes, Hep etc)

37
Q

PLA2R negative but proteinuria

A

Needs kidney biopsy

Can have negative serum PLA2R in end stage disease

38
Q

Management of PLA2R Mem GN

A

< 3.5g proteinuria - monitor PCR and PLA2R

> 3.5g - initiate immunosuppressive therapy with ritux, CNI, or steroids and Cyclo

39
Q

All patients should also be investigated for? when diagnosed with memb GN

A

Age related malignancy

40
Q

Antibody which associated with progression to CKD

2/3 FSGS have elevated levels

A

SuPAR

41
Q

FSGS
- congenital and acquired
-primary

A

Congenital - supportive, no response to steroid

Primary - steroids

42
Q

Initial treatment of IgA

A

ACE/ARB
BP control - aim < 140
Salt and water restriction

43
Q

Who gets glucocorticoids in IgA

A

Those > 1g proteinuria per day
AFTER 6 months supportive therapy

44
Q

Oral C5a inhibitor

A

Avacopan
- Useful in ANCA vasculitis as adjunct

45
Q

Factors which restrain C3/complement activation

Deficiencies in this make patients susceptible to C3 glomerula disease

A

Factor H and I

46
Q

Granular casts

A

ATN

47
Q

Muddy brown casts

A

ATN

48
Q

Maltese crosses

A

Oval/lipid bodies - nephrotic syndrome

49
Q

SGLT-2 perioperative

A

Stop 3 days before surgery

Start when eating and drinking - for small cases after they return home

50
Q

Biggest predictor of progression of CKD

A

Proteinuria

51
Q

Effects of FGF-23 on
- Kidney
- GIT
- Parathyroids

A

Kidney - binds klotho co-receptor, reduces PO4 reasborption.

Reduces calcitriol production, so reduces intestinal PO4 absorption

Binds klotho receptor on parathyroids –> suppressed PTH

52
Q

Deficiency of klotho

A

Causes
- Reduce renal phosphate excretion
- No suppression of PTH

53
Q

1,25 hydroxyvitamin D - other name

A

Calcitriol

54
Q

Cholecalciferol other name

A

Vit D3

55
Q

Where is 25 hydroxyvitamin D made

A

Liver - from Vit D3 from skin/UV light and diet

56
Q

Target Hb level on dialysis and EPO

A

110-115

57
Q

Factor most predictive of effective haemodialysis

A

Time on haemodialysis

58
Q

Risk factors for ischaemic ATN post transplant

A

DCD - warm isch time higher

Higher ischaemic time

HDx

Age of donor

59
Q

Post renal Tx, 6 weeks with stent removal and subsequent Cr rise

A

Likely distal ureteric stenosis

60
Q

Decoy cells

A

BK virus

61
Q

UL97 mutation prevention activation of ganciclovir - what to do for CMV

A

Use foscarnet

62
Q

Most commo immunosuppression related malignancy

A

Skin

63
Q

Low Mg post Tx, cause?

A

2nd to tacrolimus

64
Q

WHere is urine acidified and alkalanised?

A

Collecting ducts - have highest proportion of a and b intercalated cellsq=

65
Q

Urine pH cutoff in RTA

A

5.5`

66
Q

Most common cause nephrotic syndrome adults

A

Membranous

67
Q

Biggest predictor renal failure in PCKD

A

Measured total kidney volume

68
Q

Collapsing glomerulosclerosis

A

HIV

69
Q

Most specific for GN in urine?

A

Red cell casts

Dysmorphic red cells can be seen by examining morphology, but not as specific

70
Q

Best negative predictive value for PCKD

A

U/S (or imaging) excluding cysts

71
Q

Which type of AIN usually doesn’t respond to steroids

A

NSAID induced

72
Q

Most common GN

A

IgA

73
Q

Causes of NAGMA

A

ABCD
Addison’s
Bicarb loss - GI (diarrhoea) or renal (RTA)
Chloride excess
Diuretic - acezatolamide

74
Q

Most severe histopath finding of T cell mediate rejection

A

Transmural arteritis

75
Q

Aminoglcyoside renal complication faetures

A

D5-7 rise in Cr
Urine output preserved
ATN rare

76
Q

Strep skin infections - which AB positive

A

Anti-DNA ase-B
(can have negative ASOT)

77
Q

Rhabdomyolysis vs acute AKI from sepsis - electrolyte differences

A

RHabdo - will have elevated phosphate and reduce Ca due to muscle breakdown

AKI - will have normal phosphate, FGF23 can increase to compensate and reduce phosphate levels (unless already have CKD)

78
Q

Pathophys of aminoglycoside ATN - which site of nephron?

A

Proximal tubule

BPT (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions