Remembrances Flashcards

1
Q

What prevents polyspermy?
- Capacitation
- Cortical reaction
- Acrosome reaction

A

Cortical reaction

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2
Q

(In the regulatory zone) What is the upstream DNA sequence that leads to increased transcription? (2021, 2022)

  • Coactivator
  • Coregulator
  • Enhancer
  • Inhibitor
A

Enhancer

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3
Q
  1. What do coactivators and corepressors bind to? (2007, 2011, 2012, 2018)
  • C region/domain of receptor
  • A/B region of receptor
  • TAF
  • E region of receptor
  • 3COOH
  1. What is the function of corepressors & coactivators? (2018 NIH)
  2. How do promoters and repressors exert activity? (2011)
    - Binding TAFs
    - Binding zinc fingers
    - Dimerizing hormones
A
  1. TAF
  2. Act on TAFs
  3. Binding TAFs
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4
Q

What is the binding site of corepressors and coactivators on hormone responsive genes? (2014, 2018 NIH)

  • 3’ untranslated region
  • CpG
  • 5’ upstream region
  • Hinge region
  • DNA-binding domain
A

5’ upstream region

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5
Q

What mediates differences in estrogen receptor alpha (ER-alpha) and estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta)? (2013, 2016, 2017, 2018)

A

Coactivators and corepressors

Presence of TAF-1 on ER-alpha (A/B region)

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6
Q

Where does binding on DNA occur with the hormone response element? (2011)

  • On mRNA
  • Upstream to 5’ transcription
A

Upstream to 5’ transcription

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7
Q

What enzyme converts progesterone to dihydroprogesterone? (2017, 2018, 2022)

  • 5-alpha-reductase
  • 7-alpha-hydroxylase (7-alpha-OH)
A

5-alpha-reductase

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8
Q
  1. A mutation in DAX1 most likely results in what? (2003, 2007, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2018, 2018 NIH, 2019, 2021)
  • Ovarian failure
  • Adrenal hypoplasia/failure
  • Delayed puberty
  • Failed testicular development
  • Failure to express SRY and SOX9
  • Sulfatase deficiency
  1. What happens in males with DAX1 inactivating mutations? (2014, 2016, 2017, 2018)
  2. What happens in females with DAX1 inactivating mutations? (2014, 2016, 2017, 2018)
A
  1. Adrenal hypoplasia/failure
  2. Adrenal hypoplasia
  3. Delayed puberty
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9
Q

What enzyme is the rate limiting step of steroid hormone synthesis? (2018 NIH, 2020)

  • StAR
  • P450scc
  • 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (17-beta-HSD)
  • Aromatase
A

StAR

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10
Q

What is the availability of gonadotropin beta subunits based on? (2020)

  • GnRH pulse amplitude
  • GnRH pulse frequency
A

GnRH pulse frequency

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11
Q

What is increasing sialic acid (residue) (silanization) content associated with? (2011, 2017, 2018, 2018 NIH, 2019)

  • Diminished half-life
  • Diminished clearance/excretion
  • Increasing pH
  • Decreased bioactivity
A

Diminished clearance/excretion

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12
Q

What is the biological effect of sialic acid residues? (2013, 2014)

  • Increase urinary vs. recombinant hormone
  • Increase pH
  • Decrease half-life
  • Increased during follicular phase
A

Increased during follicular phase

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13
Q

What setting do you see hyperglycosylated hCG? (2013)
- Pregnancy (first trimester)
- Male

A

Pregnancy (first trimester)

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14
Q

What setting do you see persistent hyperglycosylated hCG? (2018 NIH)
- Pregnancy
- Mole
- Pituitary small cell carcinoma
- Choriocarcinoma

A

Both mole and choriocarcinoma

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15
Q

What is the correct order of relative half-lives arranged from greatest to least? (2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2018 NIH)

  • hCG>FSH>GnRH>LH
  • LH>FSH>hCG>GnRH
  • hCG>FSH>LH>GnRH
  • FSH>hCG>LH>GnRH
A

hCG>FSH>LH>GnRH

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16
Q

What hormone receptor class uses phospholipase C (PLC)? (2007, 2011, 2018)
- FSH
- IGF
- TSH
- GnRH

A

GnRH

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17
Q

What is the least likely reason why hormones readily pass through the cell membrane? (2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • High polarity
  • Protein binding
  • Fat solubility
  • Small size
A

High polarity

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18
Q

What causes failure to iodinate a new protein? (2001, 2007, 2018, 2018 NIH)

  • Excess tyrosine residues
  • Increased TSH
  • No tyrosine residues available
  • Abnormal receptor binding
A

No tyrosine residues available

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19
Q

Where does the TAF act? (2009, 2018, 2018 NIH)

  • 5’ untranslated region
  • Initiation codon
  • 3’ end of DNA
  • DNA-binding domain
A

5’ untranslated region

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20
Q

Which is most true about SHBG? (2018, 2018 NIH)

  • Strongly binds progesterone
  • Each molecule binds to a single steroid molecule
  • Levels increased by IGF-1
A

Each molecule binds to a single steroid molecule

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21
Q

SHBG is best described by which of the following? (2011)

  • Forms a homodimer with binding of a single hormone
  • Binds estradiol in greater affinity than testosterone
A

Forms a homodimer with binding of a single hormone

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22
Q

What increases SHBG? (2003, 2018, 2018 NIH)

  • Insulin
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Obesity
  • Growth hormone
A

Hyperthyroidism

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23
Q

What decreases SHBG? (2003, 2018, 2018 NIH)

  • Estrogen
  • T4
  • IGF
  • Anorexia
A

IGF

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24
Q

What is necessary for prostaglandin production? (2018, 2018 NIH)

  • Lipolysis
  • Protein synthesis
  • Arachidonic acid
  • PGE2
A

Arachidonic acid

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25
Q

Which has the highest affinity for the corticotropin receptor? (2010, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2018 NIH)

  • Androstenedione
  • Progesterone
  • Mifepristone (RU-486)
  • Estrogen

What is the most potent glucocorticoid antagonist? (2016, 2017, 2018, 2018 NIH)

A
  1. Mifepristone (RU-486)
  2. Mifepristone (RU-486)
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26
Q

Which inhibits the progesterone receptor (PR) the most? (2009, 2010, 2018, 2018 NIH)

  • Estrogen
  • Progesterone
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Mifepristone (RU-486)
  • Danazol
A

Mifepristone (RU-486)

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27
Q

An orphan receptor (i.e. SF-1, DAX1) is defined by the lack of? (2011, 2018)

  • Known gene
  • Known ligand
  • Known antibodies
  • Known DNA-binding site
  • Location of gene is unknown
A

Known ligand

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28
Q

Which of the following is least likely to be an orphan receptor? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • SF-1
  • DAX1
  • IGF-1
A

IGF-1

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29
Q

Somatic cell response to androgens is determined by the gene that is present on what chromosome? (2011, 2012, 2014, 2018)

  • Xp
  • Xq
  • Y
  • 22
  • 13
A

Xq

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30
Q

What is the production rate of estradiol? (2018)

A

100-300ug/day

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31
Q

What is the production rate of androstenedione? (2018)

A

3 mg/day

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32
Q

How do nuclear receptors quickly exert actions? (2011)

  • Transcription of mitochondrial DNA
  • Duplication of DNA
  • Activating transcription of genomic DNA
  • Protein synthesis on ribosomes
A

Activating transcription of genomic DNA

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33
Q

What is the first event after insulin receptor binding? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2018, 2018 NIH)

  • (Tyrosine) Auto-phosphorylation of receptor
  • Conformational change of cytoplasmic domain of receptor
  • Kinase activation of receptor
  • Phosphatase activation of receptor
A

Conformational change of cytoplasmic domain of receptor

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33
Q

A nuclear receptor transmits its signal via? (2023 NIH)

  • Translation
  • Transcription
  • Opening of calcium channels
  • Protein kinase A (PKA)
A

Transcription

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34
Q

What does an insulin receptor defect cause? (2003)

A

Increased androgen secretion from the ovary

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35
Q

What is the immediate effect after a (steroid) hormone binds DNA? (2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

  • Dimerization
  • Ribosomal DNA transcription
  • Genomic DNA replication
  • mRNA translation
  • Genomic (mRNA) transcription
A

Genomic (mRNA) transcription

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36
Q

What does T3 use as its receptor? (2011, 2012)

  • Phospholipase C (PLC)
  • cAMP
  • Steroid receptor
A

Steroid receptor

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37
Q

Which of the following has a nuclear receptor? (2009, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2018 NIH, 2022)

  • T4
  • T3
  • FSH
  • GnRH
  • ACTH
  • TRH
A

T4
T3*** both are correct

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38
Q

Which of the following has a nuclear receptor? (2018 NIH)

  • Steroid hormones
  • Peptide hormones
A

Steroid hormones

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39
Q

Which of the following has an intracellular receptor? (2003, 2012)

  • T3
  • TSH
  • FSH
  • LH
  • hCG
  • GnRH
A

T3

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40
Q

Which of the following has the least number of amino acids? (2007)

  • GnRH
  • GHRH
  • Oxytocin
A

Oxytocin

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41
Q

The hormone binding domain is important for which of the following? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • HSP binding
  • Dimerization
  • Nuclear localization
A
  • HSP binding
  • Dimerization
    *** both are correct
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42
Q

Where is the least likely place to find synthesis of steroids? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • Mitochondrial membrane
  • Cytoplasm
  • Nucleus
  • Endoplasmic reticulum
A

Nucleus

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43
Q

Which of the following pairs do not act at the same type of receptor? (1999)

  • Growth hormone and prolactin
  • Insulin and IGF-1
  • Progesterone and levonorgestrel
  • Inhibin and TGF-alpha
A

Inhibin and TGF-alpha

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44
Q

Which of the following has a tyrosine kinase receptor? (1999)

  • Growth hormone
  • ACTH
  • FSH
  • GnRH
  • IGF-1
A

IGF-1

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45
Q

Where is the steroid receptor DNA-binding domain located? (2012)

A

5’ upstream region

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46
Q

What initiates the DNA-binding of the hormone receptor? (2001)

A

Enhancer region

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47
Q

Progesterone action on stromal cell
Where does the most androgen production take place in women? (2010)

  • Ovary
  • Adrenal
A

Ovary

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48
Q

What is one of the first events after ligand binding to a tyrosine kinase receptor? (2007)

  • G-protein activation
  • Phosphorylation
  • IP3
A

Phosphorylation

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49
Q

How are estrogen receptor alpha (ER-alpha) and estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta) different? (2013, 2015, 2017, 2018)

What is the difference in function of estrogen receptor alpha (ER-alpha) and estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta)? (2023 NIH)

  • Methylation
  • Dimerization
  • Co-Binding
  • Coregulator binding site
A

Co-regulators

Co-Binding
Coregulator binding site

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50
Q

The gene that binds to the steroid hormone receptor to cause transcription of the hormone-responsive gene is modulated by transcription factors that act where? (2003)

A

5’ upstream region

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51
Q

How is estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta) different from estrogen receptor alpha (ER-alpha)? (2019)

A

Estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta) lacks TAF-1

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52
Q

How are estrogen receptor alpha (ER-alpha) and estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta) the same (most homologous)? (2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2018)

  • Regulatory
  • DNA-binding domain
  • Hinge
  • Hormone binding domain
  • F region

Which domain is most highly conserved in estrogen receptors? (2023 NIH)

  • DNA-binding domain
  • Hinge
  • Ligand binding domain

Which part of the estrogen receptor alpha (ER-alpha) and estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta) are most homologous? (2018)
- A/B
- C
- D
- E
- F

A

DNA-binding domain

DNA-binding domain

C

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53
Q

Where are zinc fingers located? (2001, 2003, 2023 NIH)

  • DNA-binding domain
  • Hormone response element
  • Ligand binding domain
A

DNA-binding domain

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54
Q

What type of receptor do growth hormone and prolactin bind to? (2003)

  • Tyrosine kinase associated receptor
  • JAK/STAT (aka cytokine receptor)
A

JAK/STAT (aka cytokine receptor)

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55
Q

Which of the following tissues has the highest ratio of estrogen receptor alpha (ER-alpha) to estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta)? (2001, 2003, 2005, 2023 NIH)

  • Bone
  • Brain
  • Uterus
  • Ovary
A

Uterus

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56
Q

Which androgen is most produced by peripheral conversion? (2003, 2005, 2023 NIH)

  • Testosterone
  • DHEAS
  • Androstenedione
  • DHEA
A

Testosterone

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57
Q

ACTH acts by binding to which type of receptor? (2007)

  • G-protein, c-AMP
  • G-protein, IP3
  • Cytokine
A

G-protein, c-AMP

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58
Q

What does estrogen and progesterone priming lead to in progesterone receptor A (PR-A) and progesterone receptor B (PR-B) knockout mice? (2003, 2010, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Lordosis
  • Endometrial glandular hyperplasia
  • Breast development
A

Endometrial glandular hyperplasia

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59
Q

What does not happen in a mouse model with a progesterone receptor (PR) knockout? (2018)

A

Decidualization

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60
Q

What is the mechanism of action of progesterone receptor B (PR-B)? (2005, 2007)

  • Acts on progesterone elements
  • Modulation of estrogen receptor (ER)
  • Inhibition progesterone receptor A (PR-A) function by binding to progesterone receptor A (PR-A)
  • Inhibiting homodimer formation
  • Stimulate progestin-related actions
  • Other
A

Stimulate progestin-related actions

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61
Q

What works though a G protein using phospholipase C (PLC)? (2007)

  • GnRH
  • Dopamine
  • CRH
A

GnRH

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62
Q

Which is a decapeptide? (2023 NIH)

A

GnRH

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63
Q

What does CYP2R1 do in the liver? (2023 NIH)

A

Vitamin D conversion to 25-hydroxyvitamin D

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64
Q

What gene is associated with ovarian development (differentiation)? (2014, 2017, 2018, 2020)

  • FOXL2
  • HOXA 8/10 (HOX)
A

FOXL2

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65
Q

Which of the following genes are not involved in promoting ovarian development? (2018)

  • WNT4
  • RSPO1
  • DAX1
  • WT1
  • FOXL2
A

WT1

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66
Q

What happens in oocyte meiotic arrest? (2013)

  • Inhibiting factor from granulosa cells/functioning granulosa cells
  • Gap junctions
A

Inhibiting factor from granulosa cells/functioning granulosa cells

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67
Q

What happens during embryo development? (2018)

  • Demethylation of imprinted genes
  • Demethylation of non-imprinted genes
A

Demethylation of non-imprinted genes

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68
Q

What enzyme is the granulosa cell missing? (2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • 3-beta-hydroxylase (3-beta-OH)
  • 17-alpha-hydroxylase (17-alpha-OH)
  • 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (17-beta-HSD)
  • Aromatase
A

17-alpha-hydroxylase (17-alpha-OH)

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69
Q

What other malignancy do you check for in a patient with uterine and cutaneous fibroids? (2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2021)

  • Renal cell carcinoma
  • Colon cancer
  • Endometrial cancer
  • Medullary thyroid cancer
  • Ovarian cancer
A

Renal cell carcinoma

(HLRCC: Hereditary leiomyomatosis and renal cell cancer)

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70
Q

Patient has a 0.5cm fundal indentation and a 2cm portion of tissue extending from the interostial line into the cavity. What is the diagnosis? (2021)

  • Septum
  • Bicornuate
  • Arcuate
  • Didelphys
A

Septum

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71
Q

What is the least helpful in distinguishing a uterine septum from a bicornuate uterus? (2003, 2005, 2009, 2010, 011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Transvaginal ultrasound (US)
  • Sonohysterogram
  • HSG
  • MRI
  • Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
A

HSG

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72
Q

What is the most helpful in distinguishing a uterine septum from a bicornuate uterus? (2023 NIH)

  • Transvaginal ultrasound (US)
  • Sonohysterogram
  • HSG
  • MRI
  • Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy
A

MRI

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73
Q

What is the most common complication of a unicornuate uterus? (2001, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • First trimester pregnancy loss
  • Second trimester pregnancy loss
  • Preterm delivery
  • Preeclampsia
A

First trimester pregnancy loss

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74
Q

A patient is found to have a longitudinal vaginal septum. What is the best next step? (2020)

MRI
Hysteroscopy
Laparoscopy
Ultrasound (US)

A

Ultrasound (US)
MRI

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75
Q

What is least likely to occur with progesterone resistance? (2014, 2016)

  • Endometrial synechiae
  • Endometrial hyperplasia
  • Endometrial polyps

What is least likely to result from inadequate response to progesterone? (2023 NIH)

  • Synechiae
  • Polyps
  • Endometritis
  • Luteal defect

Which is the least likely to exhibit progesterone resistance? (2013, 2014)
- Endometriosis
- Endometritis
- Endometrial synechiae

A

Endometrial synechiae

Synechiae

Endometritis
Endometrial synechiae

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76
Q

What is true about leiomyosarcoma? (2015, 2023 NIH)

  • > 10 mitoses per 10 high power fields
  • Med 12 somatic mutation
  • Some gene mutation that I had never heard of
A

> 10 mitoses per 10 high power fields

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77
Q

What is true about ethnic differences in fibroids? (2015)

  • Black women have younger age of onset than white women
  • More aneuploidy in fibroid cells
A

Black women have younger age of onset than white women

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78
Q

What do you give for fibroids in patients who have bleeding despite OCPs? (2015)

  • Levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)
  • High dose progestin
  • Uterine artery embolization (UAE)
  • Rollerball ablation
A

Levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)

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79
Q

What happens at menses? (2015, 2016)

  • Vasoconstriction and coagulation
  • Stromal breakdown
A

Stromal breakdown

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80
Q

(Lateral) Fusion defects are due to fusion abnormalities of which of the following? (2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Mesonephric ducts
  • Paramesonephric ducts
  • Metanephric ducts
  • Wolffian ducts
  • Vaginal platea
  • Metanephric ducts
  • Urogenital sinus
A

Paramesonephric ducts

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81
Q

For which of the following conditions is an endometrial biopsy least useful for? (2007, 2012, 2023 NIH)

  • Chronic endometritis
  • RPL workup
  • Test for ovulation
  • PCOS
  • Thickened endometrium >12mm
  • Luteal phase deficiency
  • Infertility workup
A

RPL workup
Luteal phase deficiency
Infertility workup

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82
Q

What is the most likely cause of bilateral (proximal) tubal occlusion on HSG? (2011)

  • PID
  • Tuberculosis
  • Tubal spasm
  • Salpingitis isthmica nodosa (SIN)
A

Tubal spasm

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83
Q

Salpingitis isthmica nodosa (SIN) causes which of the following? (2011)

  • Hyperplasia of the mucosa
  • Inflammation of the tubal epithelium
  • Tubal scarring
A

Tubal scarring

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84
Q

Which of the following is the least useful test for salpingitis? (2010)

  • HSG
  • Mycoplasma
A

Mycoplasma

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85
Q

What is the mechanism of growth of fibroids? (2001, 2007, 2023 NIH)

  • Acquired genetic abnormality
  • TGF-beta dysregulation
  • Others
A

TGF-beta dysregulation

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86
Q

What has uterus didelphys been associated with? (2022)

  • Increased spontaneous miscarriage, increased preterm birth
  • Increased infertility, increase in preterm birth
  • Failure to progress, increase in preterm birth
  • Decreased spontaneous abortion, increased preterm birth
A

Increased spontaneous miscarriage, increased preterm birth

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87
Q

Which of the following gene mutations is associated with mullerian anomalies in genetic females? (2022)

  • HOXA13
  • WNT4
  • LIM1
  • MIS
A

MIS

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88
Q

What is a consequence of an uncorrected vaginal septum in a sexually-active woman discovered incidentally on routine pap testing? (2022)

  • Spontaneous miscarriage
  • Infertility
  • Endometriosis
  • Labor dystocia
A

Labor dystocia

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89
Q

What is the most common finding in conjunction with Mullerian agenesis? (2003)

  • Vertebral column abnormalities
  • Foot deformity
  • Pulmonary stenosis
A

Vertebral column abnormalities

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90
Q

Diethylstilbestrol (DES) exposure is least likely to cause which of the following? (2003, 2010)

  • Cervical dysplasia
  • Uterine septum
  • Ectopic pregnancy
  • Others
A

Uterine septum

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91
Q

What of the following has the highest likelihood of repair for the fallopian tubes? (2007)

  • Extensive ovarian adhesions
  • Hydrosalpinx involving 3cm of tube
  • Salpingitis isthmica nodosa (SIN)
  • Rugation of tubes on HSG
A

Extensive ovarian adhesions

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92
Q

What type of fallopian tube abnormality is easiest to correct? (2005)

  • Bilateral hydrosalpinges
  • Salpingitis isthmica nodosa (SIN)
  • Tubal rugae on HSG
A

Bilateral hydrosalpinges

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93
Q

An infertility patient has an 8cm fibroid that is partially submucosal and Hct 22%. What is the best plan of management? (2005)

  • Expectant management
  • Hysteroscopic myomectomy
  • GnRH agonist then abdominal myomectomy
  • Others
A

GnRH agonist then abdominal myomectomy

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94
Q

Which of the following has the worst prognosis? (2023 NIH)

  • Uterine septum
  • Adenomyosis
  • Unicornuate uterus
A

Uterine septum

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95
Q

Which receptor uses protein kinase C (PKC) as a second messenger? (2022, 2023 NIH)

  • CRH
  • GnRH
  • Activin
A

GnRH

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96
Q

What activates phospholipase C (PLC)? (2011)

  • Dopamine
  • GnRH
  • CRH
  • Insulin
A

GnRH

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97
Q

What is the first action after GnRH binding? (2018)

  • Autophosphorylation of the receptor
  • Conformational change in the receptor
  • GTP replaces GDP
  • Activation of the adenylate cyclase
A

GTP replaces GDP

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98
Q

Which occurs first when GnRH binds to its receptor? (2011)

  • Phospholipase C (PLC) activation
  • G protein binding
  • Others
A

G protein binding

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99
Q

What is the first action after GnRH binds its receptor? (2014, 2023 NIH)

  • Protein kinase C (PKC)
  • cAMP release
  • Phospholipase C (PLC)
  • IP3 and calcium release

What is initial action of GnRH binding to receptor (2015, 2018)
- Phospholipase C (PLC)
- Protein kinase C (PKC)
- Gq/G11

What is initial action of GnRH binding to receptor (2017)
- IP3/Ca
- Protein kinase C (PKC)
- Gq/G11

A

Phospholipase C (PLC)

Phospholipase C (PLC)

IP3/Ca vs Gq/G11

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100
Q

What is the intracellular immediate second messenger for GnRH? (2015, 2019)

  • Phospholipase C (PLC)
  • IP3
  • DAG
  • Protein kinase C (PKC)
  • Protein kinase A (PKA)
A

Phospholipase C (PLC)

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101
Q

What mediates rapid response in GnRH receptor signaling? (2012)

  • Protein kinase C (PKC)
  • Protein kinase A (PKA)
  • Calcium release
  • DAG inhibition
A

Calcium release

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102
Q

How is GnRH able to exert immediate effects? (2011)

  • cAMP
  • Nuclear binding
  • Calcium
  • IP3
  • Tyrosine kinase
A

Calcium

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103
Q

What is the immediate next step after GnRH binds its receptor? (2023 NIH)

A

Activation of Gq aka G11

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104
Q

What is most likely seen with LH pulses? (2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Highest pulse frequency in the early follicular phase
  • Lowest pulse frequency in the mid luteal phase
  • Highest pulse amplitude in the early luteal phase
  • Lowest pulse amplitude in the late luteal phase
A

Highest pulse amplitude in the early luteal phase

(Highest pulse frequency in late follicular phase)

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105
Q

What is the first action after FSH and LH bind to their receptor? (2003)

  • Autophosphorylation of the receptor
  • Conformational change in the receptor
  • GTP replaces GDP
  • Activation of the adenylate cyclase
A

Conformational change in the receptor

Speroff Ch 1 pg 39
Hormone-receptor interaction and binding change the a-subunit conformation

GTP replaces GDP on the a-subunit, freeing b- and gamma-subunits

Allows the GTP a-subunit to bind to the catalytic unit of adenylate cyclase, forming the active enzyme.

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106
Q

Which pattern of GnRH secretion is most likely to cause elevation in FSH? (2014, 2023 NIH)

  • Low amplitude, low frequency
  • Low amplitude, high frequency
  • High amplitude, high frequency
  • High amplitude, low frequency
A

High amplitude, low frequency

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107
Q

What is the pattern of GnRH frequency seen in the luteal phase? (2005, 2015, 2023 NIH)

  • Low amplitude, low frequency
  • Low amplitude, high frequency
  • High amplitude, high frequency
  • High amplitude, low frequency
A

High amplitude, low frequency

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108
Q

How does LH pulsatile secretion in the luteal phase compare to the follicular phase? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Increased pulse frequency and increased amplitude
  • Decreased pulse frequency and decreased amplitude
  • Increased pulse frequency and decreased amplitude
  • Decreased pulse frequency and increased amplitude
A

Decreased pulse frequency and increased amplitude

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109
Q

What controls FSH secretion? (2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • GnRH pulse amplitude
  • GnRH pulse frequency
  • Estradiol pulses
  • GnRH-LH interaction
A

GnRH pulse frequency

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110
Q

How does the frequency of LH in the early follicular compare to the late follicular and early luteal? (2017)

A

Increase in late follicular, decrease in late luteal

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111
Q

What do you measure in a patient with a pituitary adenoma and large feet and hands? (2018)

  • ACTH
  • FSH
  • IGF-1
  • TSH
A

IGF-1

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112
Q

A woman presents with galactorrhea and is found to have a 2cm mass and prolactin 87ng/mL. What is most likely increased? (2023 NIH)

  • Growth hormone
  • IGF-1
  • TSH
  • DHEAS
A

GH

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113
Q

A patient presents with a 10mm adenoma and is found to have hyperprolactinemia. What test will you order next? (2009)

  • IGF-1
  • TSH
  • Cortisol
  • FSH
  • Alpha subunit

A woman presents with a 2 cm adenoma and prolactin 40 ng/mL. What is an appropriate lab test to order? (2007)

  • Growth hormone
  • IGF-1
  • Big prolactin
  • Something with cortisol
A

IGF-1

Speroff: ~10% of adenomas that secrete prolactin also secrete GH, leading some to recommend measuring the serum IGF-1 concentration, even in women with microadenomas.

Women with pituitary macro-adenomas require additional evaluation (to hCG, TSH, prolactin, FSH, estradiol), including a serum FT4, IGF-1, and AM cortisol level.

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114
Q

What happens with hyperprolactinemia and hypothyroidism? (2016)

  • Block GnRH release
  • Modify sensitivity
A

Block GnRH release

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115
Q

What does hyperprolactinemia increase? (2003, 2011)

  • Estrogen
  • Testosterone
  • DHEAS
  • DHEA
A

DHEAS

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116
Q

A pregnant patient has a 7mm mass, bilateral peripheral vision loss, elevated prolactin, and severe headache. How do you manage these findings? (2007, 2011, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018)

  • Bromocriptine
  • C-section and transsphenoidal surgery
  • Transsphenoidal surgery now
A

Bromocriptine

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117
Q

A 32wk pregnant woman presents with a 7mm prolactinoma and visual disturbances. Steroids (dexamethasone) were given for fetal lung maturity. What is the next step? (2009, 2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • C-section and transphenoidal resection
  • Transphenoidal resection
  • Bromocriptine
  • C-section and bromocriptine
A

Bromocriptine

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118
Q

A 28yoF who is not trying to conceive presents with amenorrhea, prolactin 45ng/mL, and no galactorrhea. What is the most appropriate treatment? (2007, 2011)

  • Bromocriptine
  • OCPs
  • No treatment
  • HRT
A

OCPs

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119
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metoclopramide? (1999)

  • Aromatase inhibitor
  • 18-hydroxylase (18-OH) (aldosterone synthase) inhibitor
  • 17-hydroxylase (17-OH) inhibitor
  • Dopamine antagonist
A

Dopamine antagonist

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120
Q

What medication does not increase prolactin? (2011)

  • Valium
  • Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
  • Metoclopramide (Reglan)
  • Methyldopa

What is least likely to be associated with hyperprolactinemia? (2011, 2023 NIH)

  • Diazepam
  • Chlorpromazine
  • Estradiol
  • Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
A

Levothyroxine (Synthroid)

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121
Q

What is the most potent glucocorticoid? (2013)

  • Cortisone
  • Progesterone
  • Dexamethasone
  • Prednisone
A

Dexamethasone

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122
Q

A woman presents with a pituitary adenoma. She has a normal TSH and prolactin 35ng/mL (normal 5-30ng/mL). What is the most likely diagnosis? (2014, 2015)

  • Non-functioning pituitary adenoma
  • Craniopharyngioma
A

Non-functioning pituitary adenoma

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123
Q

What happens if a large pituitary tumor that extends to the left to the cavernous sinus is resected? (2015)

  • Hypopituitarism
  • CSF rhinorrhea
  • Cavernous sinus thrombosis
  • Hyperprolactinemia
A

Hypopituitarism

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124
Q

Ablation of which nucleus causes hypernatremia? (2009, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Optic nucleus
  • Arcuate nucleus
  • Supraoptic nucleus
  • Paraventricular nucleus
  • Preoptic nucleus
  • Ventromedial nucleus
  • Mediolateral nuclues
A

Supraoptic nucleus

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125
Q

GnRH secretion is most impacted with ablation of which nucleus? (2014)

  • Preoptic nucleus
  • Paraventricular nucleus
  • Ventromedial nucleus
  • Arcuate nucleus
A

Arcuate nucleus

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126
Q

What is least likely to be required to be replaced in panhypopituitarism? (2009, 2011, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • TSH
  • Growth hormone
  • Glucocorticoids
  • Gonadotropins
  • Estradiol
  • Mineralocorticoids
A

Mineralocorticoids

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127
Q

A woman adopts a child and wants to breastfeed. Which of the following, along with nipple stimulation, is most likely to induce lactation? (2014, 2015)

A

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

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128
Q

What is pituitary feedback conducted via? (2015)

  • Portal circulation
  • Systemic circulation
A

Systemic circulation

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129
Q

A woman presents with a pituitary mass and is found to have elevated FSH 42mIU/mL, normal LH, and increased alpha subunits. What is the diagnosis? (2007, 2011, 2012)

  • Prolactinoma
  • Thyrotroph adenoma
  • Gonadotroph adenoma/Non-functioning adenoma
  • FSH-oma
  • POI
  • Pregnancy
A

Gonadotroph adenoma/Non-functioning adenoma

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130
Q

What is an increased FSH:LH ratio most likely due to? (2005, 2011)

  • Increased GnRH pulse frequency
  • Decreased GnRH pulse frequency
  • Increased GnRH pulse amplitude
A

Decreased GnRH pulse frequency

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131
Q

A patient presents with a 12 mm adenoma, galactorrhea, normal cycles, and prolactin 35ng/mL. What is the most likely cause? (2007)

  • Non-functioning adenoma
  • Empty sella syndrome
  • Craniopharyngioma
A

Non-functioning adenoma

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132
Q

A woman’s pituitary stalk is transected. What hormone will increase because of this? (2003, 2007)

Ablation of the median eminence (pituitary stalk) will create a rise in which hormone? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • TSH
  • FSH
  • Prolactin
  • Oxytocin
A

Prolactin

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133
Q

The ultrashort feedback loop works because of which of the following? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • Retrograde flow
  • Capillary fenestrations
  • CSF fluid in 3rd ventricle

What is the explanation for the rapid feedback mechanism for pituitary hormones? (2023 NIH)

  • Retrograde flow in the portal system
  • Brain barrier
  • Axo-neuronal transport of hormones
A

Retrograde flow

Retrograde flow in the portal system

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134
Q

How do pituitary hormones feedback on the hypothalamus? (2023 NIH)

  • Systemic circulation
  • Pituitary portal vessels
  • Tanycytes
A

Pituitary portal vessels

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135
Q

Which of the following is a typical finding of craniopharyngioma on imaging? (1999)

  • Intracranial calcifications
  • Suprasellar extension
  • Unilateral lesion
  • Sellar erosion
A

Intracranial calcifications

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136
Q

Where is vasopressin made? (2007, 2023 NIH)

A

Supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei in hypothalamus

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137
Q

Which of the following is least likely to increase prolactin secretion? (2003)

  • Sleep
  • Exercise
  • Suckling
  • Others
A

Others

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138
Q

Ablation of which nucleus leads to changes in ADH? (2011)

  • Preoptic nucleus
  • Paraventricular nucleus
  • Ventromedial nucleus
A

Paraventricular nucleus

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139
Q

Prolactin secretion is increased by which of the following? (2003)

  • Estrogen
  • Progesterone
  • T4
  • Others
A

Estrogen

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140
Q

IGF-1 works through which type of receptor? (2003)

A

Tyrosine kinase

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141
Q

Which of the following does not cause elevated prolactin? (2005)

  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Chronic renal failure
  • Cushing disease
  • Hypothyroidism
A

Hyperthyroidism

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142
Q

A 22yo F has an elevated prolactin level and an 8mm pituitary adenoma noted on MRI. What additional test should you order? (2007)

  • Growth hormone
  • IGF-1
  • Cortisol
  • TSH
A

Growth hormone

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143
Q

What causes histamine release? (1999, 2003)

  • GnRH antagonists
  • GnRH agonists
  • Cyproterone acetate
  • Spironolactone
  • Insulin
A

GnRH antagonists

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144
Q

What is the most likely to cause hypernatremia if ablated? (2007)

  • Amygdala
  • Oxytocin cell
  • Periventricular nucleus
A

Periventricular nucleus

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145
Q

What is the most likely to cause a decrease in gonadotropins if ablated? (2007)

  • Amygdala
  • Arcuate nucleus
A

Arcuate nucleus

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146
Q

Dopamine inhibits which of the following in vivo? (2003)

  • GnRH
  • FSH
  • LH
  • TSH
A

GnRH

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147
Q

What causes the transition from preantral/secondary to antral follicle? (What is required for antral progression (antrum progression)?) (2001, 2003, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2022, 2023 NIH)

  • FSH
  • GDF-9
  • c-KIT
  • Kit ligand
  • Inhibin
  • BMP15
  • AMH
  • LH
A

FSH

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148
Q

What directs development from the primary to preantral/secondary follicle? (2005, 2007, 2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • GDF-9
  • FSH
  • Inhibin
  • AMH
  • LH
A

GDF-9

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149
Q

What is the role of the granulosa cells in the primordial follicle? (2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2021, 2023 NIH)

  • Secrete GDF-9
  • Prevent atresia of the oocyte
  • Secrete inhibin
  • Secrete activin
  • Secrete AMH
  • To make kit ligand
A

Prevent atresia of the oocyte

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150
Q

In a primordial follicle, the oocyte is surrounded by which of the following? (2003)

  • Single layer of granulosa cells
  • Multiple layers of granulosa cells
  • Others
A

Single layer of granulosa cells

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151
Q

What is connexin 37 used for communication between? (2020)

  • Granulosa and oocyte
  • Theca interna and externa
  • Theca cell to granulosa cell
A

Granulosa and oocyte

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152
Q

When is peak estradiol in the menstrual cycle? (When is the ovary making the most estradiol?) (2019, 2023 NIH)

  • Early follicular
  • Late follicular
  • Early luteal
  • Midluteal
  • Late luteal
  • Menses
A

Late follicular

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153
Q

When is the maximum expression of the progesterone receptor (PR) during the menstrual cycle? (2023 NIH)

  • Menses
  • Late follicular
  • Late luteal
A

Late follicular

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154
Q

What is a progesterone >5ng/mL most associated with? (2014)

  • Ovulation
  • Receptive endometrium
  • Ectopic
A

Ovulation

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155
Q

What progesterone level is most consistent with ovulation? (2015)

  • 1.5ng/mL
  • 3 ng/mL
  • 5 ng/mL
  • 10 ng/mL
A

10 ng/mL

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156
Q

What phase of the menstrual cycle has the highest concentration (maximum expression) of progesterone receptors (PR)? (2001, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2018)

  • Early follicular/proliferative
  • Late follicular/proliferative
  • Early luteal/secretory
  • Mid luteal/secretory
  • Late luteal/secretory
A

Late follicular/proliferative

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157
Q

What hormone decreases during luteolysis (regression of the corpus luteum)? (1999, 2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • FSH
  • Inhibin A
  • Inhibin B
  • Activin
  • PGF2-alpha
A

Inhibin A

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158
Q

What peaks in the luteal phase? (2015, 2016, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Inhibin A
  • Inhibin B
A

Inhibin A

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159
Q

What is least important for oocyte (follicular) development? (2011, 2013, 2014, 2023 NIH)

  • BMP15
  • GDF-9
  • c-KIT
  • Follistatin
A

Follistatin

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160
Q

What is the action of P4 on the endometrium at the start of menses? (2014, 2015)

A

Withdrawal leads to endometrial breakdown

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161
Q

What is the first event after IGF-1 binds to its receptor? (2007)

A

Tyrosine kinase phosphorylation

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162
Q

What is the most reliable marker of ovulation? (2016)

  • Basal body temperature
  • Urinary LH surge
  • Progesterone > 3ng/mL 1wk before menses
A

Progesterone > 3ng/mL 1wk before menses

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163
Q

When does the zona pellucida first form? (2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Primordial follicle
  • Primary follicle
  • Preantral follicle
  • Antral follicle
A

Preantral follicle

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164
Q

What agent is responsible for theca interna development? (2007, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • GDF-9
  • Inhibin
  • Activin
  • FOXL2
  • FSH
  • IGF-1
A

GDF-9

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165
Q

Which enzyme is lowest in theca cells? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • Aromatase
  • All other enzymes in steroidogenesis
A

Aromatase

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166
Q

What enzyme is most likely involved with ovulation/follicular rupture? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • PIP2
  • BMP15
  • Collagenase
  • Decrease in PGE2
  • Decrease in PGF2-alpha
  • Proteinase
  • Cumulus hyaluronidase

Which of the following is most likely to cause of follicular rupture? (2007, 2023 NIH)
- Increase in proteoglycan
- Increase in collagenase
- Increase in follicular pressure

A

Collagenase

Increase in collagenase

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167
Q

What events occur at ovulation? (2018)

  • Decrease in plasminogen activator
  • Increase in plasminogen activator inhibitor
  • Increase in plasminogen activator
  • Decrease in matrix metalloproteinases
A

Increase in plasminogen activator

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168
Q

Granulosa cells in the follicular phase use which enzyme the least? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • Aromatase
  • 17-hydroxylase (17-OH)
  • P450scc
A

17-hydroxylase (17-OH)

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169
Q

At what stage does the follicle develop a blood supply? (2011)

  • Primordial follicle
  • Preantral follicle
  • Antral follicle
  • Atretic follicle
A

Preantral follicle

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170
Q

What happens to the follicle immediately prior to ovulation? (2014, 2015, 2016)

  • Oocyte maturation inhibitor expressed
  • Resumption of meiosis II
  • Increase in prostaglandin
A

Increase in prostaglandin

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171
Q

At what stage does vascularization of the follicle start? (2009)

  • Primary follicle
  • Secondary follicle
  • Antral follicle
A

Secondary follicle

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172
Q

What precursor must you have when going from cholesterol to estradiol? (2023 NIH)

  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Testosterone
  • Pregnenolone
  • Progesterone
A

Testosterone

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173
Q

Which of the following is most likely in regard to the menstrual cycle? (2023 NIH)

  • Progesterone in mid-cycle augments estradiol; feedback on LH
  • Estradiol in early follicular phase increases GnRH receptors at pituitary
A

Progesterone in mid-cycle augments estradiol; feedback on LH

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174
Q

Where is the spindle most likely to be after extrusion of the 2nd polar body? (2021)

  • Near 2nd polar body
  • Opposite 2nd polar body
  • Degraded
  • Outside oocyte
A
  • Near 2nd polar body
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175
Q

When does the cortical reaction occur? (2018)

  • Sperm bind ZP2
  • Sperm binds ZP3
  • Sperm fusion to oocyte membrane
A

Sperm fusion to oocyte membrane

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176
Q

During implantation and uterine invasion, what cell gets replaced in trophoblast invasion? (2013, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018)

  • Vascular endothelium
  • Endometrium
  • Myometrium
A

Vascular endothelium

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177
Q

In pregnancy, trophoblast replaces which of the following? (2005, 2014, 2015)

  • Glandular epithelium
  • Luminal epithelium
  • Stroma
  • Endometrial glands
A

Luminal epithelium

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178
Q

What does the cytotrophoblast/trophoblast replace? (2007, 2009)

  • Stroma
  • Endothelium
  • Decidua
  • Myometrium
A

Endothelium

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179
Q

What is a progesterone receptor-regulated (PR-regulated) gene essential for implantation and decidualization? (2018)

A

HOXA8, HOXA10

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180
Q

How many chromosomes in an MI oocyte? (2009)

  • 46 double chromatids
  • 46 double chromosomes
A

How many chromosomes in an MI oocyte? (2009)

46 double chromosomes

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181
Q

How many chromosomes are there in prophase of meiosis I? (2003)

  • 23 single-stranded chromosomes
  • 23 double-stranded chromosomes
  • 46 single-stranded chromosomes
  • 46 double-stranded chromosomes
  • 92 single-stranded chromosomes
A

46 double-stranded chromosomes

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182
Q

How many chromosomes are in an MI oocyte? (2018, 2023 NIH)

  • 23
  • 46
  • 92
  • Depends on which stage in meiosis I
A

46

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183
Q

How many chromatids are in an MII oocyte? (2007, 2010, 2023 NIH)

23
46
92

A

46

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184
Q

What is the number of chromatids present in a metaphase II oocyte? (2007)

  • 23 single
  • 46 single
  • 23 double
  • 46 double
A

46 single

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185
Q

What is the chromosome number of a euploid MII oocyte? (2007, 2023 NIH)

22
23
45
46

A

23

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186
Q

What is the number of chromosomes when an oocyte is arrested in meiosis I? (2009)

23 double stranded
46 double stranded

A

46 double stranded

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187
Q

What is the number of chromosomes in the primary oocyte? (2001)

  • 23
  • 46
  • 92
A

46

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188
Q

What is the number of chromatids present in the oocyte immediately after ovulation? (2005, 2023 NIH)

  • 23
  • 46
A

46

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189
Q

What is the number of chromosomes present in the oocyte just prior to ovulation? (2005, 2023 NIH)

  • 23 double
  • 46 double
A

46 double

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190
Q

When does the oocyte complete meiosis II? (2018)

  • Ovulation
  • LH surge
  • Fertilization
  • Acrosome reaction
  • Cortical granule reaction
A

Fertilization

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191
Q

What least characterizes the inner cell mass (ICM)? (2010, 2011, 2012, 2018)

  • Proliferation
  • Pluripotency
  • Apoptosis
  • Exponential growth
  • hCG production
A

hCG production

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192
Q

Mesenchymal stem cells are? (2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Totipotent
  • Pluripotent
  • Multipotent
  • Unipotent
A

Multipotent

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193
Q

What sugar is used when the embryonic genome turns on (is activated)? (What is the preferred nutrient when the maternal genome is not longer governing the development of the oocyte) (2007, 2010, 2012)

  • Glucose
  • Lactate
  • Pyruvate
A

Glucose

Precompaction (Day 1-3) prior to embryonic genome activation, primary energy source is anaerobic with lactate and pyruvate

Post compaction (Day 4-6) after embryonic genome activation, embryo switches to aerobic with increased glucose utilization

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194
Q

What is the first step in sex determination? (What is the first embryonic event leading to the development of a male phenotype?) (Which is the earliest requirement for normal male gonadal development?) (1999, 2003, 2005, 2010, 2012)

  • Y chromosome
  • SRY (TDF) gene expression/activation
  • Testosterone production
  • AMH
A

SRY (TDF) gene expression/activation

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195
Q

Which hormone most likely keeps immune suppression down for implantation? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • ACTH
  • Cortisol
  • Progesterone
  • Estrogen
A

Progesterone

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196
Q

The oocyte is in which of the following stages just prior to fertilization? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2023 NIH)

  • Prophase I
  • Prophase II
  • Metaphase I
  • Metaphase II
A

Metaphase II

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197
Q

What is the first thing that happens in human embryos at implantation? (2023 NIH)

  • Apposition
  • Invasion
  • Adhesion
A

Apposition

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198
Q

Which least accurately characterizes maternal thyroid physiology? (2003)

  • Increased TSH secretion
  • Decreased T4 secretion
A

Decreased T4 secretion

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199
Q

What enzyme does the fetus lack? (2013, 2015, 2017, 2019, 2022)

  • 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (3-beta-HSD)
  • 17-alpha-hydroxylase (17-alpha-OH)
A

3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (3-beta-HSD)

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200
Q

What enzyme does the placenta lack?

A

17-alpha-hydroxylase (17-alpha-OH)

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201
Q

Rank corticosteroids in order of increasing potency

A

“Cold Hands Palpate My Dead Body”

Cortisone
Hydrocortisone
Prednisone
Methylprednisone
Dexamethasone
Betamethasone

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202
Q

Which hormone decreases mid-gestation/second trimester in a male fetus? (2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019)

  • LH
  • TSH
  • Prolactin
  • Estrogen
  • Testosterone
  • ACTH
  • Prolactin
  • Growth hormone
  • hPL
  • E2
A

LH

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203
Q

Which hormone is least likely to decrease mid-gestation/second trimester? (2007)

  • LH
  • ACTH
  • CRH
  • Prolactin
A

Prolactin

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204
Q

All of the following will rise in pregnancy except? (1999, 2012, 2013, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • hPL
  • CRH
  • ACTH
  • Estriol
  • Progesterone
  • Growth hormone
  • Prolactin
  • Cortisol
  • T4
A

Growth hormone

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205
Q

Where is estetrol made? (2014, 2018)
- Fetal adrenal
- Fetal ovary
- Fetal liver
- Placenta

A

Fetal liver

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206
Q

Where is proopiomelanocortin (POMC) found? (2014, 2018)

Placenta

A

Placenta

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207
Q

What makes (increases) maternal (serum) CRH in pregnancy? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Maternal hypothalamic activity
  • Maternal pituitary activity
  • Fetal hypothalamic activity
  • Placental function
  • Decidua
A

Placental function

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208
Q

What doesn’t come from POMC? (2015)

  • Enkephalin
  • Beta lipotropin
  • Beta endorphin
  • ACTH
  • MSH
  • Melatonin
A

Melatonin

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209
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of high estriol? (2018)

  • Acute fetal hypoxia
  • Multiple gestation
  • Risk for preterm labor/pending labor
  • CAH
A

Multiple gestation
CAH

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210
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of low estriol? (2018)

  • Impending or present fetal demise
  • Adrenal hypofunction
  • ACTH deficiency
  • Placental sulfatase deficiency
  • Placental aromatase deficiency
  • Drug-related effects (material corticoid therapy)
  • Anencephaly
A
  1. Best answer per MFM: anencephaly
  2. Next best answer: present fetal demise
  3. 3rd best answer: placental sulfatase deficiency
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211
Q

What allows increased communication between cells at the time of delivery? (2014, 2017)

  • Increased gap junctions
  • Increased P4
A

Increased gap junctions

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212
Q

What happens at parturition? (2015)

  • Functional depletion of progesterone receptors (PR)
  • Increased estradiol in myometrium
  • Decreased cortisol
A

Functional depletion of progesterone receptors (PR)

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213
Q

What triggers parturition? (2015)

  • Fall in P4 and E2
  • Depletion of progesterone receptor B (PR-B)
A

Depletion of progesterone receptor B (PR-B)

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214
Q

What causes virilization of a female fetus? (2023 NIH)

A

Danazol

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215
Q

What is the most common cause of maternal virilization in the first trimester? (2003, 2005, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2018, 2022)

  • Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
  • Hyperreactio luteinalis (theca-lutein cysts)
  • Luteoma of pregnancy
  • Aromatase deficiency
  • SHBG decrease
  • PCOS
  • Exogenous androgens
A

Luteoma of pregnancy

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216
Q

A pregnant woman has a testosterone (androgen) producing tumor. What is the most likely phenotype for a female fetus? (2005, 2011, 2012, 2015, 2018)

  • Normal
  • Virilized fetus
  • Ambiguous genitalia
  • Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
A

Normal

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217
Q

A woman has a twin pregnancy and develops hirsutism, what is the most likely cause? (2003, 2005, 2018)

  • Nonclassical CAH
  • Luteoma of pregnancy
  • Hyperreactio luteinalis (theca-lutein cysts)
  • Aromatase deficiency
A

Hyperreactio luteinalis (theca-lutein cysts)

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218
Q

A woman with hyperthecosis is least likely to have which of the following? (2009)

  • Hypertension
  • Dyslipidemia
  • Acanthosis nigricans
  • Virilization
A

Hypertension

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219
Q

The placenta synthesizes progesterone from what precursor? (2012, 2018)

  • Maternal LDL
  • Maternal HDL
  • Acetate
  • Fetal DHEAS
A

Maternal LDL

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220
Q

On a molar basis (In a molar pregnancy), what androgen does the theca cell produce the most? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Androstenedione
  • Testosterone
  • DHEAS
  • DHEA
A

Androstenedione

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221
Q

What is the least likely to cross placenta? (2005, 2018)

  • T4
  • TSH
  • TRH
  • Propylthiouracil (PTU)
  • Thyroid antibody
A

TSH

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222
Q

What substances do not cross placenta? (2018)

  • Glucose
  • Amino acids
  • Ketones
  • Insulin
  • IGF-1
A

Insulin

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223
Q

What is the best test to diagnose Addison disease in pregnancy? (2005, 2012, 2018)

  • ACTH stimulation test
  • Metyrapone test
  • Insulin tolerance test (ITT)
  • Glucose tolerance test (GTT)
A

ACTH stimulation test

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224
Q

What is the least likely mechanism of AIS at the receptor level? (2013, 2018)

A

Altered bioactivity of testosterone

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225
Q

What does a defect in the androgen receptor result in? (2015)

  • AIS
  • Klinefelter syndrome
  • SMA
  • 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency (17-alpha-OHD)
A

AIS

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226
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of AIS? (2013, 2020, 2021, 2022)

  • Autosomal dominant
  • Autosomal recessive
  • X-linked dominant
  • X-linked recessive
A

X-linked recessive

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227
Q

What is the most important requirement (principal determinant) for Wolffian duct differentiation? (2007, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2018)

  • Testosterone
  • SRY
  • Y chromosome
  • Androstenedione
  • AMH
  • DHT
A

Testosterone

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228
Q

What are the internal structures of a 46,XY individual with 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency (17-alpha-OHD)?

A

No internal structures (Unless testes is an option then pick that because these individuals will have some kind of cryptorchidism)

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229
Q

What is the pattern of Wolffian and Mullerian structures in complete AIS? (2014, 2015, 2017, 2018)

Normal Wolffian structures
Normal Mullerian structures
Both Wolffian and Mullerian structures
No Wolffian or Mullerian structures

A

No Wolffian or Mullerian structures

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230
Q

What is the gene loci responsible for androgen resistance? (2011)

  • 46,XX
  • 46,XY (13/15)
  • 46,XY (11)
  • 46,XY (t5)
A

46,XY (11)

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231
Q

Abnormality on which chromosome can cause (clinical features of AIS)? (2013, 2014)

  • X
  • Y
  • 13
A

X

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232
Q

What chromosome is the androgen receptor gene located? (2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Xq
  • Xp
A

Xq

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233
Q

A 27yoF postpartum presents with fatigue and constipation, yellow coloring, TSH normal 1mIU/mL, T4 0.3mcg/dL. What is the best next step (2007)

  • TRH stimulation test
  • Prolactin
  • Check T3 resin uptake
  • MRI
A

Check T3 resin uptake

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234
Q

What causes most of insulin resistance in pregnancy? (2007)

A

hPL

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235
Q

What changes in fetal hormones in the third trimester? (2011)

  • TSH can’t remember if it was increase or decrease
  • Decreased FSH***
  • Increased LH
  • Cortisol can’t remember if it was increase or decrease
A
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236
Q

When is the soonest thyroid levels should be checked after an increase in levothyroxine (Synthroid) dose? (2012)

  • 1wk
  • 2wk
  • 4wk
  • 8wk
A

6-8 weeks

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237
Q

What is the earliest time to make a possible change in thyroid medication doses in pregnancy? (2014)

  • 1wk
  • 2wk
  • 4wk
  • 8wk
A

Should initiate as soon as pregnancy diagnosed, but increased need for T4 by 5 weeks

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238
Q

What are the normal changes to maternal thyroid function in the first trimester of pregnancy? (2010, 2012, 2014)

Increase in TSH, increase in T4
Increase in TSH, decrease in T4
Decrease in TSH, decrease in T4
Decrease in TSH, increase in T4

A

Decrease in TSH, increase in T4

(Due to mimicry of hCG)

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239
Q

What is the most likely cause of increased maternal urinary estriol? (2014)

  • Placental sulfatase deficiency
  • Fetal P450c17 deficiency
  • Fetal 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)
  • Fetal 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency (11-beta-OHD)
A

Fetal 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)

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240
Q

What causes high estriol in pregnancy? (2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018)

  • Sulfatase
  • Aromatase
  • 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)
A

21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)

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241
Q

What is the immediate precursor to estradiol in pregnancy? (2018)

  • Testosterone
  • DHEAS
  • 16-hydroxy-dehydroepiandrosterone-sulfate (16-OH-DHEAS)
  • 16-hydroxy-androstenedione (16-OH-androstenedione)
  • Estriol
A

Testosterone

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242
Q

A pregnant woman at 16wk presents with low estriol levels on screening. What is the best next step? (2021)

  • Check sulfated estriol
  • Amnio for 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP) level
  • cffDNA
  • CVS
  • Ultrasound (US)
A

Ultrasound (US)

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243
Q

What enzyme does the placenta lack? (1999, 2001, 2003, 2005, 2007, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2015, 2018, 2019, 2020, 2022)

  • 17-alpha-hydroxylase (17-alpha-OH) and 17,20-lyase
  • 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (17-beta-HSD)
  • 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (3-beta-HSD)
  • Aromatase
  • Sulfatase
  • 11-beta-hydroxylase (11-beta-OH)
A

17-alpha-hydroxylase (17-alpha-OH) and 17,20-lyase

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244
Q

Which is a fetal enzyme needed for production of estriol? (2018)

  • 15-alpha-hydroxylase (15-alpha-OH)
  • 16-alpha-hydroxylase (16-alpha-OH)
  • 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (3-beta-HSD)
  • 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (17-beta-HSD)
  • 17-alpha-hydroxylase (17-alpha-OH) and 17,20-lyase
A

16-alpha-hydroxylase (16-alpha-OH)

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245
Q

What enzyme is exclusively produced by the fetal adrenal? (2018)

  • 16-alpha-hydroxy-dehydroepiandrosterone-sulfate (16-alpha-OH-DHEAS)
  • 16-alpha-hydroxy-dehydroepiandrosterone (16-alpha-OH-DHEA)
  • Estriol
  • Others
A

16-alpha-hydroxy-dehydroepiandrosterone-sulfate (16-alpha-OH-DHEAS)

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246
Q

What does a defect in the androgen receptor result in? (2015)

  • AIS
  • Klinefelter syndrome
  • SMA
  • 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency (17-alpha-OHD)
A

AIS

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247
Q

What is the least likely mechanism of AIS at the receptor level? (2013, 2018)

A

Altered bioactivity of testosterone

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248
Q

What is the likely mechanism of complete AIS? (2018)

  • Mutation in androgen receptor gene
  • Mutation in 5-alpha-reductase enzyme
  • Failure of SF-1 to interact with SRY
  • Dysgenesis of gonad
A

Mutation in androgen receptor gene

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249
Q

Translocation of the SRY from the Y to the X chromosome is due to the fact that the SRY is most closely located near which of the following? (2021, 2022)

  • Pseudoautosomal region
  • AZFa
  • AZFb
  • AZFc
A

Pseudoautosomal region

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250
Q

When should gonads be removed in AIS?

A

In patients with complete AIS, gonadectomy generally is best delayed until after puberty is completed (approximately age 16–18) because pubertal development generally proceeds more smoothly in response to endogenous hormone production and because the overall risk for tumor development is quite low (5–10%), particularly before puberty.

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251
Q

What is the pseudoautosomal region?
Where is it located?
Why is it significant?

A

The “pseudoautosomal” region constitutes only approximately 5% of the entire Y chromosome and is the only region that normally pairs and recombines during meiosis.

A single copy of the one gene most critical to testis differentiation, SRY (Sex-determining Region on Y), is located on the distal short arm of the Y (Yp11.3), immediately adjacent to the pseudoautosomal region.

Because it is so close to the SRY gene, translocation of SRY to the X chromosome is more likely

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252
Q

An infant presents with a 46,XX karyotype, (right) labioscrotal mass, and ambiguous genitalia. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? (2005, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2022)

  • 46,XX, ovotesticular DSD (true hermaphroditism)
  • 46,XX, testicular DSD (sex reversal; de la Chapelle syndrome)
  • 46,XX, aromatase deficiency
  • 46,XX, AMH deficiency
  • Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
  • Complete AIS
A

46,XX, ovotesticular DSD (true hermaphroditism)

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253
Q

An infant presents with ambiguous genitalia. There is no labioscrotal mass on exam. What is the MOST likely diagnosis if the karyotype is 46,XX? (2013, 2018)

  • CAH
  • Finasteride exposure during pregnancy
  • Luteoma during pregnancy
  • 46,XX, testicular DSD (sex reversal; de la Chapelle syndrome)
  • 46,XX, ovotesticular DSD (true hermaphroditism)
A

CAH

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254
Q

An infant presents with ambiguous genitalia and a labioscrotal mass. What is the LEAST likely diagnosis if the karyotype is 46,XX? (2007, 2013, 2014, 2018)

  • 5-alpha-reductase deficiency
  • 46,XX male
  • 46,XX, ovotesticular DSD (true hermaphroditism)
  • CAH
A

CAH

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255
Q

A woman presents with fatigue, increased pigmentation, weight loss, and no androgen excess. What is the diagnosis? (2011, 2012, 2018)

  • Autoimmune disease
  • Diabetes
  • Late onset 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)
A

Autoimmune disease

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256
Q

A young man presents with hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. What is the most likely etiology? (2014, 2015)

  • Autoimmune disease
  • 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (3-beta-HSDD)
  • 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (11-beta-HSDD)
  • Sjogren disease
A

Autoimmune disease

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257
Q

What is the most likely phenotype in an activating LH receptor defect (LH receptor activating mutation, constitutive activation of the LH receptor)? (2003, 2005, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2020, 2021, 2022)

  • Female with PCOS and elevated FSH
  • Normal female
  • Normal puberty
  • Precocious puberty in a male (with low FSH and arrested spermatogenesis)
  • Isosexual precocious puberty in female
  • Precocious female puberty
A

Precocious puberty in a male (with low FSH and arrested spermatogenesis)

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258
Q

What is the risk of mortality from aortic dissection in pregnancy and postpartum in patients with Turner syndrome? (2018)

  • 2/10
  • 2/100
  • 2/1000
  • 2/10000
A

2/100 (2%)

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259
Q

What is the gene defect causing short stature in Turner syndrome (46,X, or 46,X/46,XX mosaic, or 46,X/46,XY mosaic)? (2018)

  • SHOX
  • SRY
  • FMR1
  • Anosmin-1
  • AR (androgen receptor)
A

SHOX

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260
Q

A patient presents with primary amenorrhea and short stature. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2010)

A

Turner syndrome

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261
Q

An 18yoF with Tanner stage 5 breast development, pubic hair development, and primary amenorrhea. What is the best first test? (2005, 2020)

  • Testosterone
  • FSH
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Karyotype
A

FSH

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262
Q

What is the most likely phenotype in an AMH receptor defect? (2019)

  • Persistence of Mullerian structures
  • POI
  • Precocious puberty
A

Persistence of Mullerian structures

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263
Q

An adolescent girl with primary amenorrhea is found to have Mullerian agenesis and a 1cm vaginal dimple. Which is the most appropriate treatment when she is ready to become sexually active? (2003, 2010)

  • Frank dilators
  • Ingram procedure
  • McIndoe procedure
  • Vecchietti procedure
A

Frank dilators

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264
Q

What is least likely with an 11beta-hydroxylase (11-OH) deficiency mutation? (2014)

  • Hypertension
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypernatremia
A

Hyperkalemia

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265
Q

What do you find in male newborn with 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)? (2012)

  • Scrotal testes
  • Hypospadias
  • Café-au-lait spots
  • Ambiguous genitalia
A

Scrotal testes

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266
Q

What is the mechanism of complete AIS? (2009, 2014, 2015)

  • Hormone cannot bind receptor (decrease biologic activity)/Delta-5 androgens do not bind to receptor
  • Receptor cannot bind to DNA?
  • Other things about the receptor but nothing about a receptor defect
A

Hormone cannot bind receptor (decrease biologic activity)/Delta-5 androgens do not bind to receptor

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267
Q

What is an activating receptor mutation most likely to cause? (2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Kallmann syndrome
  • AIS
  • CAH
  • MEN2
  • Myotonic dystrophy
A

MEN2

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268
Q

A 5yo African American girl presents with has pubic hair, Tanner stage 1 breasts, and growth 60th percentile. What do you do next? (2003, 2012, 2021)

  • Estradiol level
  • DHEA
  • Testosterone
  • Bone age
A

Bone age

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269
Q

A 5yoF presents with Tanner stage 3 pubic hair (pubarche). What is the next step? (2005, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2018)

  • Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) (Depo-Provera)
  • Depot GnRH
  • Check testosterone level
  • Check 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Pelvic ultrasound (US)
  • Pituitary MRI
A

Check 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)

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270
Q

A child presents with isolated precocious adrenarche. What is the best test to order? (2012)

17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)

A

17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)

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271
Q

What level do you need to optimize in the follicular phase of a patient with 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)? (2021)

  • Progesterone
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • DHEAS
  • Testosterone
A

Progesterone

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272
Q

What is most likely to cause a false positive 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)? (2005, 2009, 2011, 2010, 2012, 2018)

  • Not fasting/Postprandial
  • Recent LH surge/Recent ovulation
  • Pulsing of 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Luteal phase
    Diurnal variation
A

Luteal phase

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273
Q

A 12yo presents with complete ovarian failure (POI). How do you supplement hormones? (2023 NIH)

  • Slow incremental estrogen
  • Estrogen and progesterone
  • Growth hormone
A

Slow incremental estrogen

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274
Q

What is the cause of Turner mosaicism? (2020)

  • Postzygotic mitotic error
  • Oocyte mitotic error
  • Maternal meiotic error
  • Paternal meiotic error
A

Postzygotic mitotic error

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275
Q

Where does the error occur in mosaic Turner 46,X/46,XX? (2018, 2022)

  • Meiosis II (paternal)
  • Meiosis II (maternal)
  • Mitosis after fertilization
A

Mitosis after fertilization

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276
Q

17yo presents with amenorrhea, normal electrolytes, and Tanner stage 3 breasts. Where is the most likely defect? (2007)

5-alpha-reductase
Androgen receptor

A

Androgen receptor

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277
Q

A young girl is found to have elevated FSH and progesterone. What else do you expect to find on evaluation? (2013)

A 17yo with primary amenorrhea and female external genitalia is found to have FSH 50mIU/mL, and progesterone 25ng/mL. What else do you expect to find on evaluation?
(2007, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Hypercortisolism
  • Hypertension
  • Absent uterus
A

Hypertension

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278
Q

What is the most likely way to diagnose 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency (17-alpha-OHD) in a child? (2019)

  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypokalemia
  • Premature adrenarche
  • Salt wasting
A

Hypokalemia

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279
Q

What is most likely to be seen in a teenager with 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency (17-alpha-OHD)? (2011)

  • Hypertension
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hirsutism
A

Hypertension

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280
Q

What is the least likely way to diagnose 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency (17-alpha-OHD) in a child? (2005, 2011)

  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypokalemia
  • Hypertension
  • Premature adrenarche
  • Salt wasting
A

Hyponatremia/salt wasting

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281
Q

What enzyme deficit will not cause salt wasting? (2014, 2015, 2018)

  • 17-alpha-hydroxylase (17-alpha-OH)
  • 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency (11-beta-OHD)
A

17-alpha-hydroxylase (17-alpha-OH)

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282
Q

What enzyme deficiency is least likely to cause precocious puberty? (2013, 2014, 2023 NIH)

  • 17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD)
  • 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (3-beta-HSDD)
  • 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (13-beta-HSDD)
  • Aromatase deficiency
A

17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD)

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283
Q

What is the best management of long-term amenorrhea in nonclassical CAH? (2016, 2017, 2018)

  • OCPs
  • Hydrocortisone
A

OCPs

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284
Q

What is the order of hormone repletion in thyroid and adrenal disorders? (2007, 2009, 2013, 2015, 2016, 2018)

  • Glucocorticoid then mineralocorticoid and last thyroid replacement
  • Mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids; then thyroid
  • Thyroid, then mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
  • Glucocorticoids, then thyroid, then mineralocorticoids
  • Only glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

What do you first treat in a patient with both adrenal insufficiency and hypothyroidism? (A patient is diagnosed with both Addison disease and Hashimoto thyroiditis. What is the next best step in treatment?) (2003, 2005, 2007, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2023 NIH)

  • Replace all three at once
  • Thyroid and cortisol then watch see if mineralocorticoid replacement is needed
  • Thyroid then watch and see if others require replacement
  • Replace glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids then thyroid
A

Glucocorticoid
then mineralocorticoid
and last thyroid replacement

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285
Q

How do you monitor mineralocorticoid activity? (2015, 2017)

How do you monitor and titrate someone on mineralocorticoid replacement (for adrenal insufficiency)? (2011, 2013, 2014)

  • Plasma renin level
  • Sodium
  • Potassium
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
A

Plasma renin level

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286
Q

What are patients with 46,XY complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome) most likely to have? (2014)

  • Normal breast development
  • Vagina
  • Low FSH
  • Normal sperm
  • High P4
A

Vagina

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287
Q

What is the most likely etiology of a 46,XX male? (2005, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2017)

  • Recombination or translocation
  • Inversion
  • Nondisjunction
  • Deletion

What type of event causes a 46,XX male? (2018)

  • Chromosomal substitution
  • Abnormal recombination event during embryonic development
  • Abnormal recombination/translocation during male meiosis
  • Developmental mutation
A

Recombination or translocation

Abnormal recombination/translocation during male meiosis

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288
Q

What region on the Y chromosome is most likely affected by crossover? (2013, 2014, 2018)

  • Pseudoautosomal region
  • SRY
  • Yp
  • AZF region
A

Pseudoautosomal region

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289
Q

A patient presents with hirsutism and 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP) >800. What test would you do next? (2016, 2017)

  • Cosyntropin stimulation test
  • 24-hour urinary cortisol
  • CRH stimulation
A

Cosyntropin stimulation test

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290
Q
A
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291
Q

What is the effect of flutamide in pregnancy? (2018)

  • Teratogen – abnormalities in male fetus
  • Teratogen – decreased estrogens in female fetus
  • No effect
  • Teratogen – abnormal prostate function later in life
A

Teratogen – abnormalities in male fetus

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292
Q

What is the first determinant of male development? (2009, 2018)

  • Differentiation of Leydig cells
  • Sertoli cell development from SF-1 and SRY
  • Peritubular myoid cell development
  • Testicular formation
A

Sertoli cell development from SF-1 and SRY

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293
Q

What is the next step when streak gonads are found during an appendectomy? (2018)

  • Removal
  • Sequence AR gene
  • Sequence SRY gene
  • Karyotype
A

Karyotype

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294
Q

What is the most common chromosomal abnormality in gonadal dysgenesis? (2003, 2018)

  • 46,XY complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome)
  • 46,X, Turner syndrome
  • 46,XXY, Klinefelter syndrome
  • 46,X, 46,XY Turner mosaic
A

46,X Turner syndrome

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295
Q

Which has the highest risk for tumor formation? (2018)

  • Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
  • 46,XY complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome)
  • 45,X/46,XY (Turner mosaic)
  • AIS
  • 45,X
A

46,XY complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome)

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296
Q

What genetic mutation can cause abnormal female structures in 46,XX? (2012, 2018)

  • SRY
  • SOX9
  • FGF-9
  • GDF-15
  • FOXL2
A

FOXL2

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297
Q

How do you clinically define 46,XX DSD? (2018)

  • SRY and cell expression
  • Absence of Mullerian ducts and presence of Wolffian ducts
  • Presence of ovarian tissue (follicles) and testicular tissue (seminiferous tubules)
A

Presence of ovarian tissue (follicles) and testicular tissue (seminiferous tubules)

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298
Q

Picture of ambiguous genitalia, with a 46,XY karyotype. What is the least likely diagnosis? (2018)

  • 46,XY complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome)
  • CAH
  • AMH deficiency
  • AIS
  • 5-alpha-reductase deficiency
  • Testicular regression syndrome
  • 17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD)
  • 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (17-beta-HSDD)
A

CAH

Usually normal male at birth

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299
Q

What do you find in male newborn with 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)? (2012)

  • Scrotal testes
  • Hypospadias
  • Café-au-lait spots
  • Ambiguous genitalia
A

Scrotal testes

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300
Q

What are you most likely to see with 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)? (2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Decreased progesterone and 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Decreased deoxycorticosterone (DOC) and 11-deoxycortisol
  • Increased aldosterone
  • Low cortisol
A

Decreased deoxycorticosterone (DOC) and 11-deoxycortisol

Low cortisol

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301
Q

What test is best for diagnosing nonclassical 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)? (2015)

  • ACTH stimulated 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • ACTH stimulated 17-hydroxypregnenolone
  • 17-hydroxypregnenolone
A

ACTH stimulated 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)

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302
Q

What is most important for testosterone production in the male fetus after 20wk? (2014, 2018)

  • Maternal androstenedione production
  • Fetal LH
A

Fetal LH

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303
Q

What is least likely to be seen in 11-beta-hydroxylase deficiency (11-beta-OHD)? (1999, 2003, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2018)

  • Hypertension
  • Elevated 11-deoxycortisol
  • Elevated ACTH
  • Salt wasting
  • Hypokalemia
  • Precocious puberty
  • Virilization
  • Anovulation
  • Irregular cavity with adhesions
A

Salt wasting

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304
Q

What is the inheritance pattern in 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency (17-alpha-OHD)? (2018)

A

Autosomal recessive (AR)

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305
Q

Why is ACTH elevated (in 17 alpha hydroxlase deficiency)? (2018)

A

Cortisol is a much stronger glucocorticoid than corticosterone or deoxycorticosterone (DOC)

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306
Q

What class of steroids are produced in excess in 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency (17-alpha-OHD)? (2018)

  • Mineralocorticoids
  • Glucocorticoids
A

Mineralocorticoids

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307
Q

A 17 yo patient presents with primary amenorrhea, 95th percentile growth, Tanner stage 1 breasts, and Tanner stage 1 pubic hair. What is the enzyme defect ? (2018, 2023 NIH)

A

17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency (17-alpha-OHD)

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308
Q

A 16yo presents with Tanner stage 1 hair and breasts, FSH 35 mIU/mL, progesterone 23 ng/mL. What is the most likely etiology? (2011)

  • Isolated gonadotropin deficiency
  • FSH receptor defect
  • Turner syndrome
  • 17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD)
A

17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD)

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309
Q

A 17 yo F presents with Tanner stage 1 everything, 90th percentile height and weight, a small uterus, and no adnexal masses. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2010, 2023 NIH)

  • Isolated gonadotropin deficiency
  • DAX1 mutation
  • AIS
A

DAX1 mutation

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310
Q

A 16 yo presents with Tanner stage 1 everything, 90th percentile height, a uterus, and a cervix. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2023 NIH)

A

46,XY complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer’s)

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311
Q

A 16yo presents with primary amenorrhea, 90th percentile height, Tanner stage 1 pubic hair and Tanner stage 1 breasts, cervix, and small uterus. What is the enzyme deficiency? (2007, 2011, 2012, 2018)

  • CYP17
  • CYP21
  • 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (3-beta-HSDD)
A

CYP17

  • AR inheritance
  • Chromosome 10
  • Delayed puberty, primary amenorrhea, hyper hypo, HTN (increased mineralocorticoids)
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312
Q

A 16yo presents with primary amenorrhea, elevated FSH, and elevated progesterone 25ng/mL? What condition does she have? (2012, 2018)

  • 45,X
  • 46,XY, complete gonadal dysgenesis
  • CYP21 deficiency
  • CYP17 deficiency
A

CYP17 deficiency

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313
Q

Where is the CYP17A1 enzyme located? (2015)

  • Mitochondria
  • Endoplasmic Reticulum
A

Endoplasmic Reticulum

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314
Q

How is CYP21 inherited? (2018)

A
  • Chromosome 6
  • Autosomal Recessive (CYP21A1 pseudogene, CYP21A2 gene)
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315
Q

What is 17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD) most associated with? (2020)

  • Hyponatremia
  • Hypotension
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Ambiguous genitalia
A

Ambiguous genitalia

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316
Q

List the CAH enzyme deficiencies in order of most common to least common. (2018)

A
  1. 21-hydroxylase (21-OH)
  2. 11-hydroxylase (11-OH)
  3. 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (3-beta-HSD)
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317
Q

46,XX, ambiguous genitalia most common condition? (2018)

  • Ovotesticular DSD (true hermaphroditism)
  • Testicular DSD (sex reversal; de la Chapelle syndrome)
  • CAH
A

CAH

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318
Q

(Image of an infant with a small phallus, opening on underside of phallus, scrotal mass on the right) Karyotype is 46,XX. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2014, 2015)

  • Ovotesticular DSD (true hermaphroditism)
  • 5-alpha-reductase deficiency
  • Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
  • AIS
  • CAH
A

Ovotesticular DSD (true hermaphroditism)

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319
Q

(Image of an infant with a small phallus, opening on underside of phallus, scrotal mass on the right) Karyotype is 46,XY. What is the least likely diagnosis? (2014, 2015)

A

CAH

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320
Q

A baby is born with ambiguous genitalia including a phallus with a urogenital sinus at its base and a unilateral palpable inguinal mass. Karyotype 46,XX. What is the most likely diagnosis? (1999, 2003, 2010)

  • CAH
  • 46,XX male
  • 5-alpha-reductase deficiency
  • Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
A

46,XX male

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321
Q

What is least likely with an 11beta-hydroxylase (11-OH) deficiency mutation? (2014)

  • Hypertension
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Hypernatremia
A

Hyperkalemia

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322
Q

All but which of the following will not result in ambiguous genitalia? (2012)

  • CYP11 deficiency
  • CYP17 deficiency
  • CYP21 deficiency
  • 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (3-beta-HSDD)
A

CYP17 deficiency

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323
Q

How do you monitor a 14yo on glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement? (2007)

  • Cortisol
  • ACTH
  • ACTH stimulation test
  • ACTH after CRH stimulation test
  • Renin/angiotensin
A

Renin/angiotensin

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324
Q

An adolescent girl with primary amenorrhea is found to have Mullerian agenesis and a 1cm vaginal dimple. Which is the most appropriate treatment when she is ready to become sexually active? (2003, 2010)

  • Frank dilators
  • Ingram procedure
  • McIndoe procedure
  • Vecchietti procedure
A

Frank dilators

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325
Q

What is the least common finding in Turner syndrome? (2003)

  • Hypothyroidism
  • Diabetes
  • Fragment of Y chromosome
A

Fragment of Y chromosome

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326
Q

What excludes the diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD) in a patient with new onset hirsutism at puberty? (2005)

  • ACTH stimulation test
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
A

17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)

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327
Q

A 22yo is 60in tall with a broad/wide/shield chest, breast development, and menstrual irregularities. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2005, 2007, 2023 NIH)

  • 45,X
  • 45,X/46,XX
  • 45,X/46,XY
  • 46,XX
A

45,X/46,XX

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328
Q

What is the most likely karyotype for a patient with gonadal dysgenesis? (2003, 2007)

  • 45,X
  • 45,X/46,XX
  • 47,XYY
A

45,X/46,XX

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329
Q

What is the most likely phenotype in an AMH receptor defect? (2019)

  • Persistence of Mullerian structures
  • POI
  • Precocious puberty
A

Persistence of Mullerian structures

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330
Q

How do you calculate the expected adult height of a child based on parental heights in centimeters? (2010)

A

Add height of both parents +/-5 depending on sex / 2

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331
Q

What is the correct order of pubertal events in girls? (2010, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2016, 2018)

  • Maximal growth, thelarche, pubarche, menarche
  • Thelarche, menarche, pubarche, maximal growth
  • Thelarche, pubarche, maximal growth, menarche
  • Pubarche, thelarche, maximal growth, menarche
A

Thelarche, pubarche, maximal growth, menarche

AG-BPM

Adrenarche
Growth spurt
Breast
Pubarche
*final growth spurt
Menarche

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332
Q

What is the first hormone to rise during adrenarche? (2011, 2018)

  • DHEAS
  • Androstenedione
  • Testosterone
  • Estradiol
  • ACTH
A
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333
Q

What is the first hormone to rise during puberty? (2018)

  • Estrogen
  • LH
  • FSH
  • Androstenedione
A

LH

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334
Q

What is the change in LH seen as the first sign of puberty? (2009, 2012, 2018)

  • LH in daytime
  • LH in nighttime
  • LH while asleep
A

LH in nighttime

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335
Q

What test do you order from isolated precocious adrenarche? (2011, 2018)

  • DHEAS
  • Androstenedione
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • FSH
  • E2
A

17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)

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336
Q

What is the first change seen in adrenarche? (2018)

  • Increase in testosterone
  • Increase in DHEA
  • Increase in androstenedione
  • Increase in ACTH proportional to reticularis growth
A

Increase in DHEA

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337
Q

What hormone is highest in adrenarche? (2018)

  • DHEA
  • Androstenedione
  • Total testosterone
A

DHEA

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338
Q

What best describes adrenarche? (2011)

  • Increased ACTH with enlargement of the zona reticularis
  • Increased DHEAS at 6-7 yo
A

Increased DHEAS at 6-7 yo

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339
Q

What is the first sign of male puberty? (2007, 2018)

  • Hair growth around testicles
  • Testicle enlargement
  • Phallus enlargement
A

Testicle enlargement

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340
Q

What is the most common presentation in the setting of an inactivated alpha subunit GPCR? (2021)

  • Delayed puberty
  • Precocious puberty
  • Ambiguous genitalia in a male
  • Ambiguous genitalia in a female
A

Delayed puberty

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341
Q

What is the most common cause of delayed puberty and primary amenorrhea in females? (2011, 2012, 2017, 2018, 2022)

  • (Stress induced) Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (hyper-hypo)
  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)
  • MRKH
  • Constitutional delay
  • Cushing syndrome
  • Craniopharyngioma (CNS tumors)
  • Turner syndrome
  • Prolactinoma
A

(Stress induced) Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (hyper-hypo)

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342
Q

What is the most common cause of delayed puberty in females? (2015, 2021)

  • Eugonadal/Constitutional
  • Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (hyper-hypo))
  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)
A

Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (hyper-hypo))

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343
Q

What is the most common cause of primary amenorrhea? (2003, 2010, 2011, 2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

  • Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism (hyper-hypo)
  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)
  • Mullerian agenesis
  • 46,XY, complete gonadal dysgenesis
  • CAH
  • AIS
  • Hyperprolactinemia
A

Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism (hyper-hypo) per 2003, 2010, 2014, 2023 NIH

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344
Q

A patient presents with anosmia and amenorrhea. Where is the defect most likely located? (2007, 2023 NIH)

A

KAL

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345
Q

What gene causes autosomal dominant Kallman syndrome? (2013, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2022, 2023 NIH)

  • FGFR1
  • KAL1
  • KAL2
  • PROK
  • KISS
A

FGFR 1 = KAL2

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346
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Kallmann syndrome with KAL1? (2021)

  • X-linked recessive
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Autosomal recessive
A

X-linked recessive

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347
Q

All of the following are associated with the KAL1 gene except? (1999)

  • Guides gonadotroph cell migration
  • Is found on the distal end of the X chromosome
  • Is sometimes associated with congenital short stature
  • Is adjacent to region encoding for congenital ichthyosis
A

Is sometimes associated with congenital short stature

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348
Q

In a woman with Kallmann syndrome picture (hypo-hypo and anosmia) what is the most likely mutation? (2021)

  • KAL1
  • KAL2
  • FGFR1
  • PROK2
A

KAL2 = FGFR1

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349
Q

What is the most likely inheritance of KAL2? (2015, 2018)

  • Autosomal dominant
  • Autosomal recessive
  • X-linked
A

Autosomal dominant

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350
Q

What is the most common transmission of Kallmann syndrome? (2011, 2012, 2013, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • X-linked
  • Autosomal recessive
  • Autosomal dominant
  • Sporadic mutation
A

X-linked (anosmin, KAL1)

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351
Q

Kallmann syndrome is a disorder of what? (2005, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Neuronal synthesis
  • Neuronal migration
  • Olfactory placode tumor
  • GnRH synthesis
A

Neuronal migration

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352
Q

A 16yo F presents with delayed puberty. What is the best first test? (2021)

  • FSH
  • E2
  • Testosterone

A 16yo F presents with delayed puberty. Thyroid testing and prolactin are normal. What is the best next test? (2003)

  • FSH
  • E2
  • Testosterone
A

FSH

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353
Q

A 15yo F with male build, new onset clitoromegaly. Most likely diagnosis? (2019, 2021)

A

5-alpha-reductase deficiency

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354
Q

A 15yo presents with primary amenorrhea, has Tanner stage 1 breasts, clitoromegaly, no uterus, and a male body habitus. What test is most likely elevated? (2016, 2017, 2022)

  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • T/DHT ratio
  • 11-deoxycorticosterone (11-DOC)
  • FSH
  • DHEAS/androstenedione ratio
A

T/DHT ratio (5 alpha reductase deficiency)

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355
Q

What are the internal and external structures of a patient who is 46,XY with 17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD)? (2013, 2016, 2018)

  • Internal male, external male
  • Internal male, external female
  • Internal female, external male
  • Internal female, external female
A

Internal male, external female

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356
Q

A 5yoF with a pigmented lesion that does not cross the midline presents with vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely cause? (2011, 2021)

  • GnRH pulsatility
  • CAH
  • Ovarian cysts

A 5yoF with skin spots that don’t cross the midline presents with precocious puberty and 90th percentile for height. What is the most likely cause? (2003, 2007)

  • GnRH pulsatility
  • CAH
  • Ovarian cysts
A

Ovarian cysts (McCune Albright)

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357
Q

What is likely seen in a GNAS activating mutation? (2023 NIH)

What does an error in the GNAS gene lead to? (2018)

A

Increase in protein kinase A (PKA)

McCune-Albright syndrome

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358
Q

What is being overproduced in McCune-Albright syndrome? (2009, 2010, 2015)

  • Protein kinase C (PKC)
  • Protein kinase A (PKA)
  • DAG
A

Protein kinase A (PKA)

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359
Q

What occurs in McCune-Albright syndrome? (2011)

  • Cytochrome P450 enzyme activation
  • Protein kinase A (PKA) activation
  • Others
A

Protein kinase A (PKA) activation

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360
Q

What is the most effective treatment of McCune-Albright syndrome? (1999)

  • GnRH analog
  • GnRH agonist
  • Testolactone
  • Ketoconazole
  • Spironolactone
A
  • Testolactone is no longer available
  • Use anastrozole, though loses effect over time
  • GnRH agonist may work if GnRH independent > dependent
  • Other: tamoxifen
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361
Q

A patient presents with café-au-lait spots, bone lesions, and precocious puberty. Which of the following is most likely to be activated? (2005)

Protein kinase A (PKA)
Cytochrome P450
Others

A

Protein kinase A (PKA)

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362
Q

A young girl presents with precocious puberty, café au lait spots, and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia. These findings are most likely caused by which of the following? (2003)

  • Hypersecretion in multiple endocrine organs
  • A lesion leading to constitutive activation of adenylate cyclase
A

A lesion leading to constitutive activation of adenylate cyclase

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363
Q

What is AMH in patients with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)? (2020)

  • High
  • Low
  • Normal
A

Normal

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364
Q

What is the most common autosomal dominant genetic defect for hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)? (2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • KAL1 mutation
  • FGFR1 mutation
  • Androgen receptor mutation
  • SRY mutation
  • AZF mutation
A

FGFR1 or KAL2 for Kallman

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365
Q

What is the best way to establish a diagnosis in a patient with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo) and anosmia? (2020)
- MRI
- Gene sequencing

A

Gene sequencing

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366
Q

A female patient has Kallman syndrome. What mutation is most likely to affect 50% of her offspring? (2019)

  • KAL2
  • FGFR2
A

KAL2 or FGFR1 (AD)

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367
Q

What hormone “turns on” the HPO axis in puberty? (2019)

  • Kisspeptin
  • Leptin
  • GABA
A

Kisspeptin

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368
Q

What is the most important signal for the initiation of GnRH pulses to start puberty? (2023 NIH)

  • Leptin
  • Kisspeptin
A

Kisspeptin

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369
Q

Which substance is not responsible for the rise in GnRH with puberty? (2012, 2014, 2018)

  • GABA
  • Leptin
  • Kisspeptin
  • Endogenous opioids
  • Glutamate
A

GABA

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370
Q

What will a mutation in the kisspeptin receptor most likely cause? (2015, 2023 NIH)

  • Decreased LH/Failure of LH release
  • Elevated TSH
  • Elevated LH
  • Elevated GnRH
A

Decreased LH/Failure of LH release

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371
Q

What is most likely associated with the onset of puberty? (2011, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018)

  • Kisspeptin
  • Leptin
  • Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
A

Kisspeptin

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372
Q

What is the most likely mechanism of precocious puberty at 6yo with pigmented skin lesions? (2019)

A

Constitutively active GPCR

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373
Q

What is the treatment for McCune-Albright syndrome? (2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2019)

  • Aromatase inhibitor
  • OCPs
  • Progesterone
  • Estradiol
A

Aromatase inhibitor

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374
Q

A patient presents with precocious puberty and is found to have bone and hyperpigmented skin lesions. What would you treat this patient with? (2003, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2012)

  • Anastrozole
  • Flutamide
  • GnRH agonist
  • Ketoconazole
  • Progestin
  • Testolactone
A

Testolactone (no longer available)
Anastrozole

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375
Q

A young female presents with advanced bone age. What is the single best test to determine activation of the HPO axis? (2015)

  • LH
  • Estrogen
A

LH (GnRH stim testing)

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376
Q

What is the most common cause of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo) boys? (2017)

  • Constitutional delay
  • Kallmann syndrome
A

Constitutional delay

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377
Q

What is the most common mutation in familial hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)? (2016, 2018)

A

Kisspeptin loss of function

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378
Q

A male patient presents with signs of hypogonadism. What is the best test for evaluation? (2015)

  • Serum total testosterone
  • Serum total free testosterone
  • FSH
  • LH
A

Serum total testosterone

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379
Q

What is the most common cause of GnRH dependent precocious puberty? (2015)

  • Idiopathic
  • McCune-Albright syndrome
A

Idiopathic

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380
Q

A patient presents with precocious puberty and elevated gonadotropins. How is this treated? (2018)

  • Aromatase inhibitors
  • Danazol
  • GnRH antagonists, daily preparations
  • GnRH agonists, depot preparations
A
  • GnRH agonists, depot preparations

This is GnRH-dependent precocious puberty (McCune Albright has low gonadotropins due to elevated sex steroids)

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381
Q

What are the indications for treatment of precocious puberty? (2018)

  • Thelarche
  • Pubarche
  • Progression to the next stage in 3-6 months
  • Current isolation from friends
A

Progression to the next stage in 3-6 months

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382
Q

A 5yoF presents with precocious puberty and an ovarian cyst. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2014, 2018)

  • Granulosa cell tumor
  • Theca cell tumor (thecoma)
A

Granulosa cell tumor

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383
Q

Which of the following can be used to monitor for recurrence of a granulosa cell tumor? (2003)

  • Inhibin B
A

Inhibin B

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384
Q

What is the best tumor marker for a granulosa cell tumor? (2003, 2005, 2023 NIH)

  • Estradiol
  • Inhibin B
  • AFP
  • hCG
  • CA125
A

Inhibin B

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385
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis of a patient presenting with precocious puberty and delayed bone age? (2009, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017)

  • Hypothyroidism
  • McCune-Albright syndrome
A

Hypothyroidism

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386
Q

A patient presents with isolated precocious pubarche. What lab should be ordered next? (2007)

A

17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)

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387
Q

What is the mechanism of action of McCune-Albright syndrome? (2009, 2012, 2015, 2016, 2018)

  • Constitutive protein kinase A (PKA)
  • Phospholipase C (PLC)
  • IP3/DAG
A

Constitutive protein kinase A (PKA)

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388
Q

What is the mechanism of action of McCune-Albright syndrome? (2011, 2012)

  • G inhibitory stimulation
  • GsAlpha stimulation
  • GPR40 mutation
  • Gq stimulation
  • PLC
A

GsAlpha stimulation

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389
Q

What is responsible for McCune-Albright syndrome symptoms? (2009, 2012)

  • Increased cytochrome P450 enzyme activities
  • Increased protein kinase A (PKA)
  • Decreased protein kinase C (PKC)
A

Increased protein kinase A (PKA)

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390
Q

What is the mechanism of McCune-Albright syndrome? (2007, 2018)

  • Inactivating mutation of the LH receptor
  • Activating mutation of the beta subunit of the G-protein
  • Constitutively active adenylate cyclase due to somatic mutation alpha subunit of the G-protein GNAS1 gene
  • Inactivating mutation of the alpha subunit of the G-protein
A

Constitutively active adenylate cyclase due to somatic mutation alpha subunit of the G-protein GNAS1 gene

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391
Q

What is the best (most sensitive) test for growth hormone deficiency? (2014, 2015, 2017, 2023 NIH)

  • Insulin tolerance test (ITT)
  • Glucose stimulation test
  • IGF-1 level
A

IGF-1 level

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392
Q

What is the best hormonal evaluation in puberty? (2016)

  • LH:FSH ratio <1 in a prepubertal patient
  • LH <1 during GnRH stimulation test
  • AMH undetectable in a prepubertal patient
  • Inhibin undetectable in a prepubertal patient
A

LH <1 during GnRH stimulation test

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393
Q

What does the presence of breasts indicate? (2016, 2018)

  • Estrogen exposure at some point
  • Testosterone
A

Estrogen exposure at some point

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394
Q

Children with sexual precocious puberty at most risk for which of the following? (2016)

  • Sexual molestation
  • Depression and behavior disorders
  • Short stature
A

Depression and behavior disorders

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395
Q

Why has the age at puberty decreased in the United States? (2014, 2015)

  • Increased health
  • Increased fat mass
A

Increased fat mass

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396
Q

How do you give HRT to patients with delayed puberty? (2015, 2016, 2017)

  • E2 slowly increase over 1-2yr
  • E2 and P4
  • E2 plus growth hormone
A

E2 slowly increase over 1-2 yr

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397
Q

What condition can be seen as virilization at puberty? (2005, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2018)

  • 5-alpha-reductase deficiency
  • Complete AIS
  • 46,XY complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome)
  • 17-beta-hydroxylase deficiency (17-beta-OHD)
  • FSH activating receptor
A

5-alpha-reductase deficiency

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398
Q

What adrenal enzyme deficiency is least likely to cause virilization at puberty? (2011)

  • 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (17-beta-HSD)
  • 17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD)
  • Aromatase deficiency
A

17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD)

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399
Q

A 14 yo presents with primary amenorrhea, Tanner stage 4 pubic hair, Tanner stage 5 breasts, 2 cm blind vagina with dimple, normal hymen, no bulging, and no pain. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2012, 2018)

  • Androgen insensitivity
  • Imperforate hymen
  • Transverse vaginal septum
  • Mullerian aplasia
A

Mullerian aplasia

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400
Q

A 14yo presents with amenorrhea, Tanner stage 4 breasts, Tanner stage 5 pubic hair, 2cm vaginal dimple, no bulge, no pain, and 63in height. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2023 NIH)

  • Mullerian anomaly
  • AIS
  • Imperforate hymen
A

Mullerian anomaly

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401
Q

A 14 yo presents with primary amenorrhea, Tanner stage 4 breasts, 2cm vaginal dimple, no bulge, no pain, and 63in height. What is the best test to make the diagnosis? (2023 NIH)

  • MRI
  • Serum testosterone level
A

Serum testosterone (to distinguish from AIS)

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402
Q

A 17yo presents with amenorrhea, Tanner stage 4 breasts, Tanner stage 5 pubic hair, normal external genitalia, intact hymen, and 2cm vaginal pouch (vaginal dimple). What is the best next step? (2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Vaginoscopy
  • Exam under anesthesia
  • Pelvic ultrasound (US)
  • CT scan of pelvis
A

Pelvic ultrasound (US)

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403
Q

A patient presents with labs consistent with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo). What is the least likely cause? (2009)

  • DAX1
  • FMR1
  • Leptin
A

FMR1

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404
Q

An 18 yo 46,XY female presents with new onset breast (and pubic hair) development. What is the most likely cause? (2009, 2011, 2018)

  • Dysgerminoma
  • Gonadoblastoma
  • Activating LH mutation
  • Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
  • Seminoma
  • Granulosa cell tumor
  • Theca-lutein cyst
A

Gonadoblastoma

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405
Q

A 30yo 46,XY female presents with new onset breast and pubic hair development. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2011)

  • Gonadoblastoma
  • Seminoma
  • Granulosa cell tumor
A

Gonadoblastoma

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406
Q

What is the most likely cause of cancer before 30yo in a phenotypic female with a genotype of 47,XY? (2009)

  • Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
  • 46,XY, complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome)
  • 46,XX, ovotesticular DSD (true hermaphroditism)
  • 46,XY, gonadal dysgenesis
  • Complete AIS
  • Incomplete AIS
A

46,XY, complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome)

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407
Q

Which of the following is the most likely to develop a gonadoblastoma (before 30yo)? (2005, 2011)

  • Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
  • 46,XX, ovotesticular DSD (true hermaphroditism)
  • 46,XY, gonadal dysgenesis
  • Complete AIS
  • Incomplete AIS
A

46,XY, gonadal dysgenesis

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408
Q

Which of the following is the most likely to develop gonadal cancer? (2009)

  • 46,XY complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome)
  • Mixed gonadal dysgenesis
  • AIS
  • 45,X
A

46,XY complete gonadal dysgenesis (Swyer syndrome)

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409
Q

What is the least important in the work-up of small testes? (2018)

  • Karyotype
  • Prolactin
  • LH/FSH
  • Testosterone
  • DHEAS
A

DHEAS

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410
Q

A patient presents with labs consistent with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo). What is the most common cause? (2011)

  • Increased endogenous opioids leading to GnRH suppression
  • Hyperprolactinemia
  • Increased cortisol
A

Hyperprolactinemia

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411
Q

A 2yo has a bone age of 4.5 yo and breast development. What is the best test to determine if there has been premature activation of the HPO axis? (2014, 2015)

  • LH
  • GnRH
  • Estradiol
A

LH

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412
Q

A young girl presents with vaginal bleeding, Tanner stage 3 breasts, and 90th percentile for height and weight. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2011, 2014, 2015)

  • Exogenous hormone ingestion
  • Ovarian cyst
A

Ovarian cyst

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413
Q

A 23 yo F presents with new onset of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo). What is the most likely etiology? (2011, 2015)

  • Pituitary tumor
  • Hyperprolactinemia
  • Hypothalamic tumor
  • Idiopathic
A

Hyperprolactinemia

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414
Q

A woman is found to have hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo) with a normal prolactin and TSH. What do you do next? (2011, 2012, 2023 NIH)

  • GnRH stimulation test
  • MRI
  • ACTH stimulation test
A

MRI

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415
Q

A woman recently finished tuberculosis treatment and now has weight loss, hyper-pigmented lesions, and fatigue. What is the best next test? (2011)

  • 24hr urine free cortisol
  • ACTH stimulation test
  • Dexamethasone suppression test
A

ACTH stimulation test (for adrenal insufficiency)

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416
Q

A patient recently had transsphenoidal surgery for a growth hormone tumor. She now has weight loss, hyperpigmented lesions, and fatigue with a normal TSH and ACTH. What do you do next? (2009)

  • IGF with cortisol
  • ACTH stimulation test
  • Dexamethasone suppression test
A

ACTH stimulation test

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417
Q

A patient presents with bilateral adrenal cysts and an elevated ACTH after high dose dexamethasone suppression test. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2011)

  • Pituitary tumor
  • Adrenal tumor
  • Ectopic ACTH production
A

Ectopic ACTH production

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418
Q

What is the most common location of ectopic ACTH production? (2009)

  • Lung
  • Liver
  • Ovary
  • Kidney
A

Lung

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419
Q

A (receptor inactivating) mutation in which of the following is most likely to have increased ovarian androgen production? (2009, 2023 NIH)

  • Insulin receptor
  • IGF-1 receptor
  • Leptin
  • 21-hydroxylase (21-OH)
A

Insulin receptor
(IGF-1 promotes androgen production, Leptin inhibits, 21-hydroxylase does not exist in ovary)

Primary pathology in women with HAIR-AN and hyperthecosis is severe insulin resistance, resulting in grossly elevated insulin levels that stimulate ovarian androgen production in theca cells (via insulin, IGF-1, and hybrid receptors) and markedly decrease hepatic SHBG production, thereby greatly increasing the amount of circulating free androgen.

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420
Q

What causes abnormal puberty? (2009)

  • Craniopharyngioma
  • Prolactinoma
  • Hamartoma
A

Hamartoma

Craniopharyngioma > hypo hypo > delayed puberty

Prolactinoma > hypo hypo > delayed puberty

Hypothalamic hamartomas, congenital malformations composed of a heterotropic mass of nerve tissue usually located on the floor of the 3rd ventricle or attached to the tuber cinereum, are a common etiology of precocious gonadarche.

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421
Q

An 18yoF comes to the office prior to going to college. While she has had normal breast development, she has never had a period. She has been a swimmer throughout middle and high school and was told this prevented her periods from starting. Given she swims every day, she hasn’t cared about not having a period but her mother wants this evaluated prior to her starting college. Which of the following is least likely to be the etiology of her amenorrhea? (2022)

  • Hypothalamic dysfunction
  • POI
  • Mullerian agenesis
  • AIS
  • Delayed puberty
A

Delayed puberty

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422
Q

A physical exam on the 18yoF with primary amenorrhea after being a competitive swimmer through middle and high school reveals normal breast development but no uterus. Which lab evaluations would be the most appropriate next step? (2022)

  • FSH, LH, estradiol
  • FSH, TSH, prolactin
  • TSH, prolactin, testosterone
  • Testosterone, karyotype
A

Testosterone, karyotype

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423
Q

A 30yoF comes to the office to begin treatment for infertility. She had menarche at 14yo and regular menstrual cycles until starting OCPs at 21yo. She has continued OCPs until 6mo ago and has not had menses since. What is the least likely diagnosis? (2022)

  • Post-pill amenorrhea
  • POI
  • PCOS
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hyperprolactinemia
A

Post-pill amenorrhea

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424
Q

In a patient with amenorrhea, presence of breasts and a uterus, with a normal laboratory evaluation (FSH, TSH, prolactin), which of the following would be most helpful in determining the etiology? (2022)

  • Presence of PCOS on ultrasound (US)
  • Estrogen status
  • History of bleeding while on OCPs
  • Patient weight
A

Estrogen status

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425
Q

A 17yoF presents with normal thelarche and adrenarche and primary amenorrhea. What will serum estradiol levels most likely reveal? (2022)

  • Elevated levels of estradiol due to tissue resistance
  • Very low (menopausal) levels of estradiol
  • Levels in the normal range for a 17yoF
  • Undetectable levels due to inhibitor antibodies
A

Levels in the normal range for a 17 yo F (Mullerian agenesis)

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426
Q

A 17 yo F presents with normal thelarche and adrenarche and primary amenorrhea. What will serum testosterone levels most likely reveal? (2022)

  • Levels in the normal range for a 17yoF
  • Levels in the normal range for a 17yoM
  • Elevated levels due to mutation of the androgen receptor
  • Low levels due to increased aromatase
  • Low levels due to gonadal failure
A

Levels in the normal range for a 17 yo F (Mullerian agenesis)

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427
Q

A 17yo presents with primary amenorrhea, normal secondary sexual characteristics, and a blind vaginal pouch on pelvic exam. What is the most appropriate next step? (2022)

  • Office cystoscopy
  • CT scan of the pelvis
  • Serum testosterone
  • MRI of the olfactory bulbs
  • Office hysteroscopy
A

Serum testosterone (to distinguish between AIS and Mullerian anomaly)

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428
Q

A 17 yo presents with primary amenorrhea, normal secondary sexual characteristics, a blind vaginal pouch, and a uterus but no cervical tissue on MRI. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure? (2022)

  • Laparoscopic resection of the non-functioning uterine remnants
  • Robotic resection of the non-functioning uterine remnants
  • Laparoscopic resection of all uterine and ovarian structures to avoid neoplasia
  • Laparoscopic resection of any functional uterine remnants
A

Laparoscopic resection of any functional uterine remnants

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429
Q

What is the first steroid hormone to increase in a pubertal girl? (2003)

DHEAS
17-beta-estradiol

A

DHEAS

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430
Q

Which is least likely to be seen in the ovaries of a prepubertal girl? (2003)

  • Antral follicles
  • Corpus albicans
A

Corpus albicans

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431
Q

A 15yo F presents with primary amenorrhea and is phenotypically prepubertal on exam. What do you evaluate first? (2003, 2023 NIH)

  • FSH
  • Prolactin
  • MRI
  • Bone age
A

Bone age

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432
Q

A 6yoF has growth hormone deficiency. She would be most expected to have which of the following additional consequences (2003)

A

Pubertal delay

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433
Q

A 16 yo F has primary amenorrhea and anosmia. What is the most likely cause of her problem? (2003)

A

Mutation of the X chromosome Interfering with migration of neurons

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434
Q

Which null mutation is most likely to result in hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (hyper-hypo)? (2005)

  • LH receptor
  • FSH receptor
A

LH receptor

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435
Q

A young patient presents with Tanner stage 1 adrenarche, Tanner stage 3 breasts, and a blind vagina. What is the most likely genetic defect? (2005)

  • AMH
  • Androgen receptor
A

androgen receptor

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436
Q

18yo boy presents with delayed puberty and hypothalamic hypogonadism. What intra-cellular effect would likely be found in his GnRH neurons? (2024)

  • Increased cAMP activity
  • Decreased Ca
  • Decreased protein kinase A (PKA)
  • Decreased tyrosine phosphorylation
A

Decreased Ca

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437
Q

A 5 yo African American girl presents with has pubic hair, Tanner stage 1 breasts, and growth 60th percentile. What do you do next? (2003, 2012, 2021)

  • Estradiol level
  • DHEA
  • Testosterone
  • Bone age
A

Bone age

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438
Q

What is the least likely to cause amenorrhea? (2023 NIH)

  • Hypothyroid
  • Elevated prolactin
  • PCOS
  • Hypopituitarism
A

Hypothyroid

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439
Q

What percentage of adolescents with POI and secondary amenorrhea have an abnormal karyotype? (2023 NIH)
- 50%
- 13%

A

13%

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440
Q

Patients with Sheehan syndrome or pituitary apoplexy are most likely to have which hormone is affected? (2018, 2022)

  • FSH/LH
  • ACTH
  • Growth hormone
  • TSH
A

GH

*Anterior pituitary defect: Prolactin, GH, and GnRH deficiencies are most common with Sheehan, but ACTH and TSH also possible.

Oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH) are not compromised

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441
Q

Sheehan syndrome least associated with deficiency in? (2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Oxytocin
  • Growth hormone
  • Prolactin
  • ACTH
  • TSH
  • Estrogen
  • FSH
  • LH
A

Oxytocin

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442
Q

What is least likely to be affected in Sheehan syndrome? (2011)

  • Growth hormone
  • Prolactin
  • TSH
  • ACTH
A

TSH

Most common deficiencies in Sheehan: GH, prolactin

Less common deficiencies: ACTH > TSH (corticotrophs are more sensitive to ischemia)

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443
Q

What is the first sign of postpartum pituitary apoplexy? (2013, 2015)

A

Severe headaches

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444
Q

How will a woman with Sheehan syndrome present? (2015)

  • Decreased breastfeeding with little pubic hair
  • Decreased breastfeeding with hypercalcemia
A

Decreased breastfeeding with little pubic hair

*Sheehan a/w hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypophosphatemia

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445
Q

How will a woman with Sheehan syndrome present? (2015)

  • Galactorrhea and hypermenorrhea
  • Amenorrhea, difficulty nursing, and hypercalcemia
  • Amenorrhea, difficulty nursing, and decreased pubic hair
A

Amenorrhea, difficulty nursing, and decreased pubic hair

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446
Q

Described large postpartum hemorrhage. What would you expect to see as a consequence? (2023 NIH)

  • Failed lactation
  • Failed nursing, amenorrhea, loss of pubic hair
  • Failed nursing alone
  • Galactorrhea, amenorrhea, HTN
A

Failed nursing, amenorrhea, loss of pubic hair

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447
Q

What is least likely to cause bilateral hemianopsia 3wk postpartum? (2003, 2010, 2012, 2023 NIH)

  • Sheehan syndrome
  • Lymphocytic hypophysitis
  • Rathke pouch cyst
  • Craniopharyngioma
A

Sheehan syndrome

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448
Q

A 32wk pregnant patient with prolactinoma and visual changes, how do you treat? (2014, 2019, 2021)

  • Bromocriptine
  • Transsphenoidal surgery
  • Deliver then transsphenoidal surgery
A

Bromocriptine

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449
Q

A 32wk pregnant woman gestation with a known 12mm prolactinoma from before pregnancy. Her prolactin is 35ng/dL and she now has headache and bitemporal hemianopsia. What is the best course of action? (2014)

  • Delivery and then transsphenoidal surgery
  • Transsphenoidal surgery
  • Bromocriptine
A

Bromocriptine

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450
Q

When you give bromocriptine to a pregnant woman what happens to prolactin? (2003, 2005, 2009, 2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Increased maternal prolactin
  • Increased fetal prolactin
  • Decreased fetal prolactin
  • Altered/Decreased in amniotic fluid
  • Decreased maternal TSH
  • Decreased placental prolactin
A

Decreased fetal (and maternal) prolactin

(Amniotic fluid prolactin is not altered)

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451
Q

What is the most common side effect of cabergoline? (2021, 2022, 2023 NIH)

  • GI upset
  • Headache
  • Cardiac valvulopathy
A

GI upset

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452
Q

What steroid is most likely to be increased with elevated prolactin? (2005, 2014, 2015)

  • DHEAS
  • Androstenedione
A

DHEAS

*Some women with hirsutism also have mild hyperprolactinemia. Elevated serum prolactin concentrations can be associated with increased serum DHEA-S levels. Prolactin receptors have been identified in the human adrenal, and prolactin can increase adrenal DHEA production in vitro. Although DHEA-S is a weak androgen, it can be converted in the periphery to potent androgens such as testosterone and DHT. Prolactin stimulation of adrenal androgen production, excessive ovarian androgen production due to the chronic anovulation that often results from hyperprolactinemia (discussed in Chapter 4), and increased free testosterone levels consequent to anovulation may all be relevant to causation of hirsutism in women with chronic hyperprolactinemia.

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453
Q

An increased prolactin is associated with which of the following? (2019, 2020)

  • DHT
  • Testosterone
  • Androstenedione
  • DHEA
  • DHEAS
A

DHEA-S

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454
Q

What do you check next in a patient who has prolactin 30ng/dL (upper limit of normal 24ng/dL)? (2021)

  • Repeat prolactin
  • TSH
  • FSH
  • LH
A

Repeat prolactin

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455
Q

What hormone is most likely to be also elevated with a prolactinoma? (1999, 2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2010, 2012, 2019, 2021)

  • Cortisol
  • FSH
  • Inhibin
  • Growth hormone
  • ACTH
  • T4
  • TRH
A

Growth hormone

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456
Q

What hormone is most likely to be affected after a pituitary infarction? (2016, 2019, 2021)

  • Growth hormone
  • TSH
  • ACTH
  • FSH
  • Gonadotropins
A

GH

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457
Q

What type of WBC most commonly infiltrates the ovary in autoimmune oophoritis? (2021)

  • Lymphocyte
  • Neutrophil
  • Eosinophil
  • Macrophage
A

Lymphocyte

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458
Q

What is the most important test in suspected autoimmune oophoritis? (2014, 2015)

  • Anti-21-hydroxylase (21-OH) antibodies
  • Antithyroid antibodies
  • Antiovarian antibodies
A

Anti-21-hydroxylase (21-OH) antibodies

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459
Q

Most important test in suspected autoimmune oophoritis? (2023 NIH)

  • Adrenal antibodies
  • Ovarian antibodies
  • Thyroid antibodies
A

Adrenal antibodies

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460
Q

What antibody is most highly associated with POI? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2010, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Antithyroid antibodies
  • Antiadrenal antibodies
  • Antiovarian antibodies
  • Antinuclear antibodies
A

Anti-thyroid abs (more common)

Anti-adrenal abs (help confirm diagnosis)

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461
Q

Having a positive finding of which of the following antibodies would be most related to autoimmune POI? (2011, 2012)

  • Antithyroid antibodies
  • Antiadrenal antibodies
  • Antiovarian antibodies
A

Anti-adrenal antibodies

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462
Q

The most likely cause of POI? (2021)
- 45,X
- 45,X/46,XX
- FGFR1
- FMR1

A

45,X/46,XX

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463
Q

What is most likely to be found on evaluation of a 22 yo F with POI? (2014, 2015)

  • Increased number of CGG repeats in FMR1
  • Antiovarian antibodies
  • Karyotype 46,XX
  • Karyotype 46,X
A

Karyotype 46,XX

*Idiopathic POI is most common

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464
Q

A 22 yo F presents with POI. What is the most likely cause? (2014, 2020)

  • FOXL2 mutation
  • FMR1 premutation
  • FSH receptor mutation
  • LH receptor mutation
A

FMR1 pre-mutation

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465
Q

What is the most common abnormality with POI? (2007, 2011, 2023 NIH)

  • Adrenal crisis
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Insulin resistance
  • Ovarian antibodies
A

Hypothyroidism

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466
Q

What is most likely to be abnormal in a female with galactosemia? (2012, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2019)

  • AMH
  • TSH
  • Prolactin
  • Glucose
A

AMH

Galactosemia:
- Very rare
- Autosomal recessive
- Deficiency of galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase
- Toxicity of galactose metabolites in primordial follicles (decreased)

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467
Q

A 30 yo F presents with galactosemia. What else is she at risk for? (2023 NIH)

A

POI

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468
Q

What is the least likely cause of amenorrhea? (2013, 2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

  • Swimming
  • Biking
  • Running
  • Ballet
  • Gymnastics
A

Swimming

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469
Q

What is the most likely to cause anovulation? (2013)

A

PCOS

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470
Q

What is the most likely to cause anovulation? (2011)

  • Hyperprolactinemia
  • Hyperandrogenism
  • Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)
  • Hypothyroidism
A

Hyperprolactinemia

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471
Q

What hormone do you measure in a patient with a prolactin secreting macroadenoma? (2013, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • TSH
  • Cortisol
  • IGF-1
  • Alpha subunit
  • FSH
A

IGF-1

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472
Q

What hormone level is most important to check after transsphenoidal surgery for a macroadenoma? (2016, 2022)

  • Cortisol
  • ACTH
  • TSH
  • FSH
A

Cortisol

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473
Q

Which test is least useful in evaluation of a macroadenoma? (2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Prolactin
  • FSH
  • Alpha subunit
  • IGF-1
  • Cortisol
A

FSH

Gonadotrophs may secrete alpha-subunit instead of undetectable FSH

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474
Q

What do you expect to happen if polyethylene glycol (PEG) is added to a pretreatment serum sample of a patient with macroprolactinemia? (2023 NIH)

  • Monomer
  • Monomer <40%
  • Polyethylene glycol (PEG) not the appropriate test
  • Others
A

Precipitation of macroprolactin to allow appropriate measurement of free prolactin

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475
Q

A G2P0020 presents following two D&Cs with new onset hypomenorrhea. TVUS with a sagittal view of the uterus shows adhesions. What is the best next step? (2023 NIH)

  • HSG
  • Hysteroscopy
  • Serum hCG
A

Hysteroscopy

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476
Q

How do you diagnose macroprolactinemia? (2023 NIH)

A

Pretreat the serum with polyethylene glycol (PEG)

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477
Q

A woman has experienced 9 mo of amenorrhea while nursing. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2005, 2023 NIH)

  • Lactational amenorrhea
  • Sheehan syndrome
  • Prolactinoma
A

Lactational amenorrhea

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478
Q

What is the most likely karyotype in a patient with Turner syndrome presenting with secondary amenorrhea? (2005)

  • 45,X
  • 46,XX/45,X
A

46,XX/45,X

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479
Q

What antibody is most associated with POI? (2013, 2014, 2017)

  • 21-hydroxylase (21-OH)
  • Anti-TPO
A

Anti-TPO (commonly associated but not diagnostic)

21-hydroxylase (diagnostic)

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480
Q

What is most diagnostic of immune mediated POI? (2018)

  • 21-hydroxylase (21-OH)
A

21-hydroxylase (21-OH)

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481
Q

A woman is found to have a mutation in a gene. What gene would her father need to be concerned about in terms of delayed disease? (2011)

  • FMR1
  • CFTR
  • NCQV
  • GnRH
A

FMR1

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482
Q

How many repeats are in Fragile X premutations? (2017)

  • 5-36
  • 38-54
  • 55-200
  • > 200
A

55-200

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483
Q

A woman has a brother with Fragile X syndrome. She has 100 CGG repeats on testing. What are the chances of her having POI? (2018)

  • 0%
  • 10%
  • 20%
  • 50%
  • 100%

If a woman has a son or brother with mental retardation and negative work-up for Fragile X but she herself has 100 CGG repeats on FMR1 testing. What are the chances of her having POI? (2007, 2011)

  • 10%
  • 20%
  • 40%
  • 90-100%
A

20%

15% have pre-mutations in familial POI
1-7% have pre-mutations in sporadic POI

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484
Q

25 yo F has a son with mental retardation and a negative work-up for Fragile X. She gets screened and has 100 triplet repeats. What does this mean clinically? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • The son does have Fragile X
  • The patient is at risk for POI
A

The patient is at risk for POI

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485
Q

A female patient is found to have a Fragile X pre-mutation. Which of the following is most likely to be true? (2011)

  • 20% risk of POI
  • Mental retardation
  • Skeletal abnormalities
  • Renal aplasia
A

20% risk of POI

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486
Q

What is the least common product in a hormonally active pituitary adenoma? (2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

  • Growth hormone
  • ACTH
  • Alpha subunit
  • TSH
A

TSH

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487
Q

What genes are not involved with pituitary development? (2015)

  • PIT-1
  • PROP-1
  • HESX1
  • PTX (LHX)
  • BMP15
A

BMP15

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488
Q

What gene is most associated with pituitary development? (2016, 2017)

  • PIT-1
  • PROP-1
  • HESX1
  • PTX (LHX)
  • BMP15
A

PROP-1

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489
Q

What is the least likely congenital malformation in pituitary disease (2015)

  • PROP-1
  • PIT-1
  • HOX genes
  • BMP15
  • Others
A

BMP15

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490
Q

What is most associated with POI/gonadal failure? (2003, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Galactosemia
  • Blepharophimosis inversus syndrome (FOXL2)
A

Galactosemia

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491
Q

A woman presents with elevated FSH, normal LH, increased alpha subunit, and a pituitary mass. What is the diagnosis? (2018)

  • Prolactinoma
  • TSH secreting adenoma
  • Non-functional pituitary tumor
  • FSH secreting adenoma
A

Non-functional pituitary tumor

80-90% of nonfunctional pituitary tumors derive from gonadotrophs.

FSH tumors are rare (high FSH, low LH)

Gonadotroph tumors may secrete large amounts of the a subunit

Gonadotroph tumors affect HPO axis via stalk compression
- interrupting GnRH
- blocking dopamine > increasing prolactin

LH/FSH secreted by same cell
Common a subunit (LH, FSH, TSH, hCG), different b subunit

GnRH stimulates common a and different b subunits vi g protein second messenger, calcium dependent system
Rate limiting step is synthesis of b subunits of each gonadotropin (prior question; remember, alpha subunits are common and secreted with non-functional tumors)

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492
Q

A patient presents in the third trimester of pregnancy with a new onset headache and prolactin 126ng/mL. What is the next step? (2005, 2012, 2018)

  • Bromocriptine
  • Neurosurgery consult
  • MRI brain
  • TSH level
A

MRI brain

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493
Q

Which is least likely to cause hypothalamic amenorrhea? (2003)

  • Weight training
  • Aerobic exercise
  • Eating disorders
A

Weight training

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494
Q

A 25yoF is 9mo postpartum and breastfeeding. She has not had a menstrual cycle since before pregnancy. What is the least likely cause of her secondary amenorrhea? (2003)

  • POI
  • Sheehan syndrome
A

Sheehan syndrome

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495
Q

Which of the following is most likely to lead to amenorrhea with long term use? (2003)

  • Fluoxetine
  • Chlorpromazine
A

Chlorpromazine (anti-psychotic causing hyperprolactinemia)

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496
Q

A 30yoF presents with 3mo amenorrhea, FSH 35mIU/mL, LH 3mIU/mL, prolactin 15ng/mL, TSH 4mIU/L, and excess alpha subunit. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • POI
  • Gonadotroph adenoma
A

Gonadotroph adenoma

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497
Q

How is bleeding induced in secondary amenorrhea? (2010)

A

Medroxyprogesterone (Provera)

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498
Q

A 37yoF presents with secondary amenorrhea for 3mo. She is found to have FSH 3mIU/mL, LH 54mIU/mL, and prolactin 18ng/mL. What do you check next? (2007

A

Pregnancy test

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499
Q

Which substance inhibits prolactin? (2018, 2023 NIH)

  • GABA***
  • TRH
  • Glutamate
  • VIP
  • Angiotensin II
  • Estrogen
A

GABA

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500
Q

Which of the following will increase prolactin? (2005, 2007, 2023 NIH)

  • GABA
  • CRH
  • Angiotensin II per 2023 NIH
  • Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
  • Vasopressin
A

Angiotensin II

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501
Q

Which of the following most inhibits (most potent inhibitor of) prolactin release? (2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2023 NIH)

  • VIP
  • Angiotensin
  • TRH
  • Oxytocin
  • GABA
A

GABA

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502
Q

A 30yoF has secondary amenorrhea after using OCPs for the past 9yrs and discontinuing them 6mo ago. Her exam revealed the presence of a normal uterus and breasts but low local estrogen in the vagina. Which lab evaluations would be the most appropriate diagnostic evaluation? (2022)

  • FSH, LH, estradiol
  • FSH, TSH, prolactin
  • TSH, prolactin, testosterone
  • Testosterone, karyotype
A

FSH, TSH, prolactin

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503
Q

A 30yoF has secondary amenorrhea after using OCPs for the past 9 yrs and discontinuing them 6mo ago. Her exam revealed the presence of a normal uterus and breasts but low local estrogen in the vagina. Labs demonstrate FSH 68mIU/mL, TSH 5.2mIU/L, and prolactin 2.5 ng/mL. What is the most appropriate next step? (2022)

  • Repeat FSH and TSH in 4 wk
  • Pituitary MRI
  • Begin treatment of hypothyroidism
  • Discuss oocyte donation
A

Repeat FSH and TSH in 4 weeks

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504
Q

A 30yo F has secondary amenorrhea after using OCPs for the past 9 yrs and discontinuing them 6 mo ago. Her exam revealed the presence of a normal uterus and breasts but low local estrogen in the vagina. Labs demonstrate FSH 68mIU/mL, TSH 5.2mIU/L, and prolactin 2.5ng/mL. Repeat FSH 4wk later is 75mIU/mL.

Which of the following is inappropriate to perform at this time? (2022)

  • Antiadrenal and antiadrenal antibodies
  • TSH, free T4, calcium, phosphate, CBC, fasting blood sugar
  • Fragile X screening
  • Ovarian biopsy
A

Ovarian biopsy

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505
Q

A 30yoF comes to the office to begin treatment for infertility. She had menarche at 14yo and regular cycles until starting OCPs at 21yo. She continued OCPs until 6mo prior to today’s visit. She has had no menses since. Lab evaluations reveal FSH 2.5mIU/mL, TSH 13mIU/L, and prolactin 52ug/L. What is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation? (2022)

  • Repeat prolactin mid-morning
  • Pituitary MRI
  • Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) (Provera) withdrawal
  • Treatment with thyroid replacement
  • Treatment with bromocriptine
A

Treat with thyroid replacement

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506
Q

Which of the following has the lowest risk for a young patient with POI treated with estrogen replacement, compared to women her age who are still cycling regularly? (2022)

  • Breast cancer
  • Endometrial cancer with unopposed estrogen
  • Infertility
  • Depression
A

Breast cancer

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507
Q

What is the best treatment for an infertile patient with hypothalamic amenorrhea with normal prolactin levels? (2003)

  • Bromocriptine
  • Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
  • hMG
A

hMG

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508
Q

What is the most common cause of oligo-ovulation? (2016, 2023 NIH)

  • Weight loss/anorexia
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hyperprolactinemia
A

Hyperprolactinemia

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509
Q

A 24 yo F with PCOS and a BMI 24 kg/m2 wants to get pregnant. What is the best way to do this? (2007, 2011)

  • Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
  • Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) and metformin
  • Metformin
  • IVF
A

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)

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510
Q

A 30 yo F with PCOS has infertility. What is the most appropriate therapy? (2011)

  • Gonadotropins
  • Metformin
  • IVF
  • Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
  • Letrozole
A

Letrozole

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511
Q

A woman with PCOS desiring fertility, fails clomiphene citrate (Clomid) therapy. What is the best next step? (2018)

  • Ovarian drilling
  • Gonadotropins
  • Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) and -metformin
  • Extended clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
A

Clomid + metformin

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512
Q

What test is least accurate for assessing insulin resistance? (2007)

  • Fasting glucose:fasting insulin ratio
  • HbA1c
  • Euglycemic clamp
  • 2hr oral glucose tolerance test (GTT)
  • Fasting glucose
A

Fasting glucose

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513
Q

What is the best test to screen for insulin resistance? (2005, 2018)

  • Frequently sampled IV glucose tolerance test
  • Insulin tolerance test (ITT)
  • Oral glucose tolerance test (GTT)
  • HOMA-IR
  • QUICKI
A

OGTT

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514
Q

What is the best/most accurate clinical test for glucose tolerance? (2003, 2005, 2010, 2011)

  • Euglycemic clamp
  • 2 hr oral glucose tolerance test (GTT)
  • Fasting insulin:glucose ratio
A

Euglycemic clamp

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515
Q

What is the most accurate way to diagnose insulin resistance in PCOS? (2011)

  • Insulin:glucose ratio
  • HbA1c
  • Oral glucose tolerance test (GTT)
  • Fasting insulin
A

OGTT

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516
Q

What is the best test to evaluate glucose intolerance in PCOS? (2011)

  • Fasting glucose
  • 1hr glucose tolerance test (GTT)
  • 2hr glucose tolerance test (GTT)
  • HbA1c
A

2 hour GTT

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517
Q

What is the best screening for insulin resistance in PCOS? (2023 NIH)

  • 2hr oral glucose tolerance test (GTT)
  • Fasting glucose:insulin ratio
  • HbA1c
A

2 hour OGTT

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518
Q

What causes increased insulin resistance in theca cells in women with PCOS? (2012, 2018)

  • Decreased serine phosphorylation of insulin receptor
  • Increased serine phosphorylation of the insulin receptor
  • Increased tyrosine phosphorylation of the insulin receptor
  • Decreased number of insulin receptors
A

Increased serine phosphorylation of the insulin receptor

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519
Q

What causes increased insulin with insulin resistance? (2012, 2014, 2015)

  • Decreased number of insulin receptors
  • Abnormality in insulin receptor
  • Serine phosphorylation of insulin receptor cascade
A

Serine phosphorylation of insulin receptor cascade

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520
Q

What is the mechanism of hyperinsulinemia in PCOS? (2013, 2015, 2017, 2018)

  • Increased serine phosphorylation of insulin receptor
  • Insulin receptor polymorphism
  • Insulin receptor defect
A

Increased serine phosphorylation of insulin receptor

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521
Q

A patient is on metformin. Which of the following is the best reason to stop it 24hr in advance? (2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • MRI
  • HSG
  • Intravenous pyelogram (IVP)
  • VOR
A

IVP

Contrast dye can cause renal failure, which results in build up of lactic acidosis (restart metformin 48 hours after dye)

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522
Q

What is least likely to occur if ovarian drilling is performed on a patient with PCOS? (2014, 2015)

  • Drop androstenedione
  • Decrease dopaminergic inputs
  • Decrease LH
  • Decrease LH/FSH ratio
A

Decrease dopaminergic inputs

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523
Q

How does insulin primarily increase androgen production in the ovary? (2010, 2012, 2018)

  • Insulin action on IGF-1 receptors of theca cells
  • Insulin action on insulin receptors in theca cells
  • Insulin action on androgen receptor
  • Insulin upregulates CYP17 enzymes
A
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524
Q

Insulin acts via which of the following to increase androgen production in theca cells? (2023 NIH)

  • Insulin receptor
  • Stimulation of CYP17 transcription
  • IGF-1 receptor
A

Insulin receptor

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525
Q

What causes hyperinsulinemia with insulin resistance in PCOS? (2018)

  • Less insulin receptors
  • Intrinsic abnormality in the receptor
  • Defects in the post-receptor signaling pathway
A

Defects in the post-receptor signaling pathway

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526
Q

What is least useful in diagnosis of PCOS? (2007, 2011, 2012, 2018)

  • LH:FSH ratio
  • Ultrasound (US)
  • Ovarian volume
  • Serum androgen levels
  • Ferriman-Gallwey scores
  • Menstrual history
A

LH:FSH ratio

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527
Q

PCOS patients are at increased risk for which of the following? (2012, 2018)

  • Ovarian cancer
  • Breast cancer
  • Colon cancer
  • Renal cancer
A

Breast cancer

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528
Q

What is the most common abnormality in PCOS? (2014)

  • Elevated free testosterone
  • Elevated total testosterone
  • Elevated DHEA
  • LH:FSH ratio >3
A

Elevated free testosterone

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529
Q

A college student has PCOS. What is the most appropriate therapy? (2011)

  • Progestins
  • Dexamethasone
  • Metformin
  • OCPs
A

OCPs

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530
Q

A first year college student has BMI 34, oligomenorrhea, and hirsutism. What is the best first treatment? (2023 NIH)

  • OCPs
  • Metformin
  • Cyclic progesterone
A

OCPs

531
Q

What is metformin least likely to do? (2003, 2007)

  • Increase triglycerides
  • Decrease HDL
  • Increase insulin sensitivity
  • Decrease serum testosterone
  • Increase testosterone clearance
  • Decrease serum insulin
A

Increase testosterone clearance

532
Q

What circulating androgen has the biggest impact on hair growth? (2018)

A

DHT

533
Q

Which of the following drugs is most likely to result in abnormal liver function tests? (2013, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2021, 2023 NIH)

  • Finasteride
  • Flutamide
  • OCPs
  • Spironolactone
  • Cyproterone acetate
  • Fulvestrant

Which antiandrogen therapy has the greatest risk of affecting liver enzymes (hepatotoxicity)? (2003, 2013, 2014, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2023 NIH)
- Finasteride
- Flutamide
- OCPs
- Spironolactone

A

Flutamide

534
Q

What is the weakest antiandrogen therapy? (2010)
- Finasteride
- Flutamide
- Cimetidine
- Spironolactone
- Cyproterone acetate

A

Cimetidine

535
Q

What is the most potent antiandrogen? (2023 NIH)

  • Levonorgestrel
  • Drospirenone
  • Norethindrone
A

Drospirenone

536
Q

What drug inhibits 5-alpha-reductase? (2005, 2013, 2019)

  • Spironolactone
  • Cyproterone acetate
  • Flutamide
  • Finasteride
A

Finasteride

537
Q

Which drug does not inhibit the androgen receptor? (1999, 2009, 2011, 2023 NIH)

  • Flutamide
  • Spironolactone
  • Finasteride
  • Cyproterone acetate
  • Danazol

Which of the following is least likely to bind the androgen receptor? (2023 NIH)

  • Flutamide
  • Cyproterone acetate
  • Spironolactone
  • Finasteride
A

Finasteride

538
Q

What is the mechanism of action of finasteride? (1999, 2009)

  • Androgen receptor antagonist
  • Aromatase inhibitor
  • 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor
  • 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (17-beta-HSD) inhibitor
A

5-alpha-reductase inhibitor

539
Q

What is not a mechanism of spironolactone? (2003, 2005, 2011, 2012, 2018)
- Aldosterone antagonist
- Androgen receptor antagonist
- Inhibits ovarian and adrenal androgen synthesis
- Inhibits 5-alpha-reductase activity
- Decrease aromatase activity
- Increase aromatase activity

A

Increase aromatase activity
Decrease aromatase activity

540
Q

Which is the least effect of spironolactone? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • Androgen receptor complete inhibition
  • Increased aromatase
  • Decreased P450scc
A

increased aromatase

541
Q

Which has the greatest binding affinity for the androgen receptor? (2015, 2023 NIH)

  • Flutamide
  • Finasteride
  • Danazol
  • Drospirenone
A

Flutamide
(Danazol also picked)

542
Q

What binds the androgen receptor best? (2012, 2015, 2016)

  • Flutamide
  • Testosterone
  • DHEA
A

Testosterone

543
Q

What has the strongest affinity for the androgen receptor? (2023 NIH)

  • Flutamide
  • DHT
  • Testosterone
  • DHEAS
A

DHT

544
Q

A 50yoF with new onset hirsutism is suspicious for an androgen secreting tumor. What do you check? (2014, 2015, 2018)

  • Testosterone
  • Free testosterone
  • Androstenedione
  • DHT
  • DHEAS
A

Testosterone

545
Q

What pattern of hair growth would make you most suspicious for an androgen secreting tumor? (2017)

  • Areolar hair
  • Pubic hair extending up to the umbilicus
  • Chin, upper and lower lip
  • Balding
A

Balding

546
Q

A 60 yo F presents with male pattern balding and a deepening voice. What is happening to hormones? (2013, 2018)

  • Testosterone
  • Free testosterone
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Androstenedione
  • DHT
A

Testosterone

547
Q

A 60yoF presents with male pattern balding and a deepening voice. What test do you order next? (2014)

  • Testosterone
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Androstenedione
  • DHT
A

Testosterone

548
Q

What is the best test to discriminate to determine if a 60yoF has an ovarian androgen secreting tumor? (2018)

  • Testosterone
  • Free testosterone
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Androstenedione
  • DHT
A

Testosterone

549
Q

A 60 yo F presents with hyperandrogenism. What test do you order? (2013, 2014, 2016, 2018)

  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Total testosterone
  • Free testosterone
  • Androstenedione
A

Total T

550
Q

A 60 yo F presents with new onset hirsutism. What is the best test to order? (2014)
- Ultrasound (US) of ovaries
- MRI

A

US of ovaries

551
Q

A 60 yo with presents with virilization, acanthosis, and other symptoms suggestive of hyperthecosis versus androgen secreting tumor. What is the best test to confirm ovarian androgen source? (2023 NIH)

  • Free T4
  • Total T4
  • Androstenedione
  • DHEAS
A

Total T4

552
Q

What is the best test for an ovarian tumor found in 50yoF? (2014, 2015, 2016, 2018)

  • Total testosterone
  • DHT
  • Free testosterone
  • Androstenedione
  • DHEAS
A

Total T

553
Q

What is most associated with peripheral testosterone? (2011, 2014, 2015, 2016)

  • 3-alpha-androstanediol glucuronide (3-alpha-AG)
  • DHT
  • Testosterone
  • Androstenedione

How is androgen activity measured in the periphery? (2007, 2018)

What is the best measure of peripheral testosterone activity? (2018)

  • Androstenedione
  • DHT
  • Testosterone
  • 3-alpha-androstanediol (3-alpha-A)
  • 3-alpha-androstanediol glucuronide (3-alpha-AG)

What is the best measure of peripheral androgen activity? (2007, 2010, 2023 NIH)

  • DHEA
  • DHT
  • Testosterone
  • Androstenedione
  • 3-alpha-androstanediol glucuronide (3-alpha-AG)
A

3-alpha-androstanediol glucuronide (3-alpha-AG)

554
Q

Density of hair follicles is based on which of the following? (2018)

  • Number of follicles at birth
  • Testosterone concentration at puberty
  • Testosterone concentration at birth
  • DHT concentration at birth
A

Number of follicles at birth

555
Q

Density of hair follicles is based on which of the following? (2011, 2012, 2023 NIH)

  • Gender
  • Ethnicity
  • Age
A

Ethnicity

556
Q

What is the best marker of androgen receptors at the skin? (2023 NIH)
- DHEA
- DHT
- Testosterone
- Androstenedione
- 3-alpha-androstanediol glucuronide (3-alpha-AG)

A

3-alpha-androstanediol glucuronide (3-alpha-AG)

557
Q

Which androgen is produced by the ovary in the greatest quantity? (2012, 2014, 2018)

  • Androstenedione
  • DHEA
  • DHEAS
  • Testosterone
A

Androstenedione

558
Q

Which of the following enzyme deficiencies does not result in hirsutism? (2018)

  • 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)
  • 11-hydroxylase (11-OH)
  • 5-alpha-reductase
A

5 alpha reductase

559
Q

An 18yoF who presents with moderate to severe hirsutism. What is the next step? (2018)

  • Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Adrenal CT
  • 3-alpha-androstanediol glucuronide (3-alpha-AG)
  • Free testosterone
  • Total testosterone
  • No lab or imaging studies
A

Total testosterone

560
Q

Which is least likely in ovarian thecosis? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • Virilization
  • Insulin resistance
  • Acanthosis nigricans
  • Hirsutism
  • Hypertension
A

Hypertension

561
Q

A patient with a 5cm mass and testosterone 300ng/ml is subsequently found to have a cystadenoma. What is the cell type responsible for the elevated androgen level? (1999)

  • Capsule
  • Stromal
  • Granulosa cell
  • Glandular cells of the cystadenoma
  • Hilar
A

Stromal

562
Q

Most common genetic mechanism defect for CYP21A2? (2021)

  • Point mutation
  • Pseudogene replacement
A

Pseudogene replacement

563
Q

What is the best initial treatment for adrenal crisis? (2019, 2021)

  • Prednisone 5mg
  • Hydrocortisone 100mg
  • Dexamethasone 25mg
A

Hydrocortisone 100 mg

564
Q

What is the most potent glucocorticoid? (2013)

  • Cortisone
  • Progesterone
  • Dexamethasone
  • Prednisone
A

Dexamethasone

565
Q

What hormone is made in the fasciculate layer of adrenal? (2019)

  • Aldosterone
  • Cortisol
  • DHEA
A

Cortisol

566
Q

What is the next step after confirmation of positive antiadrenal antibodies? (2018)

A

AM cortisol level
(>18 ug/dL excludes adrenal insufficiency)

567
Q

What is the next step after positive antiadrenal antibodies are confirmed and AM cortisol level is low? (2018)

A

ACTH stimulation test (stimulated cortisol > 18 is a normal response)

568
Q

Which enzyme deficiency is most likely to require glucocorticoids? (2005, 2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Nonclassical 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)
  • 17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD)
  • 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (3-beta-HSDD)
  • Classical 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)
A

Classical 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)

569
Q

What is a dexamethasone suppression test used to diagnose? (2016, 2017)

  • Cushing syndrome
  • 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)
A

Cushing syndrome

570
Q

What is the best initial test to DIAGNOSE Cushing syndrome? (2007, 2010, 2011, 2023 NIH)

  • 24hr urine free cortisol
  • AM serum cortisol
  • Cosyntropin stimulation test
  • Late night serum cortisol
A

24 hour urine free cortisol

571
Q

You suspect adrenal insufficiency. What is the best initial diagnostic test? (2023 NIH)

  • ACTH stimulation test
  • ACTH
  • AM serum cortisol
  • 24hr urine free cortisol
A

AM serum cortisol

572
Q

A patient is diagnosed with Cushing syndrome based on a 24hr urine free cortisol. What is the next test? (2009, 2011, 2023 NIH)

  • ACTH
  • Adrenal sampling
  • High dose dexamethasone suppression test
  • CT scan of the adrenals
A

ACTH

573
Q

A patient is found to have elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP). What is the next step? (2020)

  • Overnight dexamethasone suppression
  • 24hr urine free cortisol
  • 2d suppression
  • ACTH stimulation test
A

ACTH stim test

574
Q

You do an overnight dexamethasone suppression test on a patient with Cushing syndrome. What is the most likely to cause a false positive? (2007)

  • Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) (Depo-Provera)
  • OCPs
  • Obesity
A

OCPs

575
Q

A pregnant patient is found to have very elevated 24hr urine free cortisol. What is the next step? (2010)

  • Morning cortisol
  • PM cortisol
  • CBG
  • ACTH
A

ACTH

576
Q

How do you determine the cause of Cushing syndrome? (2018)

A

Measure ACTH

577
Q

What is the least accurate test for Cushing disease? (2018)

  • High dose dexamethasone suppression test
  • Low dose dexamethasone suppression test
  • Random serum cortisol
  • 24 hour urinary cortisol
  • Late night salivary cortisol
A

Late night salivary cortisol

578
Q

What is the most common symptom of Cushing syndrome? (2017, 2018, 2021, 2022)

  • Centripetal obesity/adiposity
  • Moon facies
  • Fatigue
  • Amenorrhea
  • Hirsutism
A

Central obesity/adiposity

579
Q

What is the difference between iatrogenic and endogenous Cushing? (2001, 2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Moon facies
  • Buffalo hump
  • Hypertension
  • Hyperandrogenism/Hirsutism
  • Glucose intolerance
  • Psychosis

What is seen with endogenous but not exogenous steroid excess? (2003)

  • Hypertension
  • Hyperglycemia
  • Obesity
  • Hyperandrogenism
A

Hyperandrogenism/Hirsutism

(Iatrogenic Cushing due to exogenous steroids not hirsuit)

580
Q

What finding distinguishes 17-hydroxylase deficiency (17-OHD) from Cushing syndrome? (2007)

  • Hypertension
  • Others
A

Hypertension

581
Q

What treatment reduces the synthesis of cortisol in refractory Cushing disease? (2014, 2019, 2021, 2023 NIH)

  • Ketoconazole
  • Octreotide
A

Ketoconazole

582
Q

In resistant Cushing disease, which of the following treatment options stops cortisol production best? (2023 NIH)

  • Mifepristone (RU-486)
  • Hydrocortisone
  • Prednisone
  • Others
A

Mifepristone

583
Q

What is the most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency? (2018)

  • Idiopathic
  • Autoimmune
  • Mineralocorticoid administration
  • Exogenous steroids
A

Autoimmune

584
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary adrenal insufficiency? (2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Idiopathic
  • Auto-immune
  • Mineralocorticoid administration
  • Exogenous steroids/Iatrogenic
  • Tuberculosis
  • Pituitary tumor
A

Exogenous steroids/Iatrogenic

585
Q

How do you monitor adequacy of fludrocortisone replacement? (2012, 2018)

  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
  • Serum testosterone
  • Plasma renin
  • 11-deoxycorticosterone (11-DOC) levels
A

Plasma renin

586
Q

What layer of adrenals has CYP21? (2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Granulosa
  • Fasciculata
  • Reticularis
  • Medulla
A

Fasciculata (Glomerulosa which makes mineralocorticoids has it also)

587
Q

Where is CYP11B2 located (most active in the adrenal)? (2007, 2009, 2023 NIH)

  • Glomerulosa
  • Fasciculata
  • Reticularis
  • Medulla
A

Glomerulosa

CYP11B1 - 11 beta hydroxylase
CYP11B2 - 11 beta hydroxylase and aldosterone synthase (for mineralocorticoid production)

588
Q

What adrenal hormone is most likely to decrease with aging? (2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

  • Androstenedione
  • DHEAS
  • Testosterone
  • Cortisol
A

DHEAS

All the androgens decrease with age, but cortisol increases. DHEAS decreases the most (70%)

589
Q

A patient has bilateral adrenal enlargement with the same ACTH level after 2d of treatment with 2mg dexamethasone q6hr. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2011)

  • ACTH-secreting small cell tumor of the lung
  • ACTH-secreting adenoma of the pituitary
  • Adrenal adenoma
  • CRH-secreting tumor of the lung
A

Adrenal adenoma

590
Q

Which of the following is most likely to mean there is an adrenal secreting tumor? (2010)

  • Testosterone >200ng/dL
  • DHEA(S)? >700mcg/mL
  • Virilization

What is the best marker for an adrenal androgen producing tumor? (2003)
- Testosterone > 200ng/dL
- DHEAS >700ug/dL
- Rapid-onset virilization

A

DHEAS

591
Q

A patient presents with hypotension, fatigue, and low AM cortisol. After giving them metyrapone you see an increased CRH and ACTH but no change in cortisol. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2022)

  • Pituitary failure
  • Addison disease
  • Chronic steroids
A

Addison disease

Metapyrone blocks 11-beta hydroxylase (so cant make cortisol via 11-DOC or corticosterone). After giving metapyrone, people with adrenal failure have increased CRH and ACTH and stably low cortisol. If secondary adrenal failure, CRH will increase but ACTH will not and cortisol will stay low.
Note: is a tx for Cushing’s syndrome!
Note- chronic steroid user would have rise in cortisol!

592
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary Addison disease in the United States? (2003, 2010)

  • Sheehan syndrome
  • Corticosteroid therapy
  • Radiation therapy
A

Corticosteroid therapy

593
Q

Which of the following is least compatible with Addison disease in a 25yoF with fatigue? (1999, 2003)

  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Hyperpigmentation in the buccal mucosa
  • Alopecia
  • Antiadrenal antibodies
  • Hyponatremia
  • Hyperkalemia
A

Alopecia

Anti-adrenal abs present in 60-70% of those with Addison

594
Q

Which enzyme deficiency is not associated with hypocortisolism? (2003)

  • 20,22-desmolase
  • 7-alpha-hydroxylase (7-alpha-hydroxylase)
  • 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (3-beta-HSD)
  • 18-hydroxylase (18-OH) (aldosterone synthase)
A

18-hydroxylase (18-OH) (aldosterone synthase)

595
Q

What is most associated with adrenal failure? (2005, 2023 NIH)

  • Thyroiditis
  • Ovarian
A

Ovarian

596
Q

What is most likely to cause a false positive cortisol elevation? (2005, 2023 NIH)

A

Obesity

597
Q

What does low aldosterone result in? (2013)

A

Hyponatremia and hypercalcemia

598
Q

A patient presents with hyperpigmentation, fatigue, and electrolyte abnormalities. What do you check next? (2021)

  • Cortisol
  • ACTH stimulation test
  • Urine metanephrines
A

Cortisol

599
Q

A woman presents with fatigue, increased pigmentation, weight loss, and no androgen excess. What is the diagnosis? (2011, 2012, 2018)

  • Autoimmune disease
  • Diabetes
  • Late onset 21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)
A

Autoimmune disease

600
Q

A young man presents with hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. What is the most likely etiology? (2014, 2015)

  • Autoimmune disease
  • 3-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (3-beta-HSDD)
  • 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency (11-beta-HSDD)
  • Sjogren disease
A

Autoimmune disease

601
Q

What is the order of hormone repletion in thyroid and adrenal disorders? (2007, 2009, 2013, 2015, 2016, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Glucocorticoid then mineralocorticoid and last thyroid replacement
  • Mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids; then thyroid
  • Thyroid, then mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids
  • Glucocorticoids, then thyroid, then mineralocorticoids
  • Only glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

What do you first treat in a patient with both adrenal insufficiency and hypothyroidism? (A patient is diagnosed with both Addison disease and Hashimoto thyroiditis. What is the next best step in treatment?) (2003, 2005, 2007, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2023 NIH)

  • Replace all three at once
  • Thyroid and cortisol then watch see if mineralocorticoid replacement is needed
  • Thyroid then watch and see if others require replacement
  • Replace glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids then thyroid
A

GC > MC > thyroid

Replace glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids then thyroid

*Thyroid first will increase metabolism and worsen crisis

602
Q

How do you monitor mineralocorticoid activity? (2015, 2017, 2023 NIH)

How do you monitor and titrate someone on mineralocorticoid replacement (for adrenal insufficiency)? (2011, 2013, 2014, 2023 NIH)

  • Plasma renin level
  • Sodium
  • Potassium
  • 17-hydroxyprogesterone (17-OHP)
A

Plasma renin level

603
Q

A patient with clinical signs of Cushing syndrome undergoes a 2d dexamethasone suppression test and is found to still have elevated ACTH afterwards. What is the most likely cause? (2023 NIH)

  • Small cell lung tumor
  • CRH bronchial tumor
  • ACTH pituitary adenoma
  • Adrenal adenoma
A

Small cell lung tumor

Small cell lung tumor – ectopic, basal ACTH high, does NOT suppress
CRH bronchiole tumor – basal ACTH high, but suppresses with Dexa
ACTH pituitary adenoma – basal ACTH high, but suppresses with Dexa
Adrenal adenoma – basal ACTH LOW

Low dose dexa suppression test is used to differentiate Cushing’s from those who do not have Cushing’s.

High dose tests are used after the diagnosis of CS is made to distinguish patients with pituitary hyper-secretion from those with ectopic ACTH secretion (pituitary ACTH will suppress, ectopic won’t).

604
Q

A patient presents with excessive hair growth, hypertension, and moon facies. What is the diagnosis? (2023 NIH)

  • Hirsutism
  • PCOS
  • Cushing syndrome
A

Cushing syndrome

605
Q

A pregnant patient presents with yellow skin, malaise, and. buccal pigmentation. A 24hr urine free cortisol is elevated to 700. What is the best next best step? (2023 NIH)

  • ACTH stimulation test
  • Serum ACTH
A

Serum ACTH

*Cushing’s syndrome - elevated cortisol, suspect elevated ACTH –> buccal pigmentation (acts via direct ACTH action on MSH receptors, most common in ectopic and less often in pituitary overproduction of ACTH) but confirm ACTH- dependence with serum ACTH. Next step would be to do a CRH stim test or high dose dexa suppression test to distinguish pituitary from ectopic.

606
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary Cushing syndrome? (2023 NIH)

A

Iatrogenic

607
Q

What is the most common complaint of a Cushing syndrome patient? (2023 NIH)

Generalized weakness
Centripetal obesity
Hypertension

A

Centripetal obesity

608
Q

How do you monitor a 14yo on glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • Cortisol
  • ACTH
  • ACTH stimulation test
  • ACTH after CRH stimulation test
  • Renin/angiotensin
A

Renin/angiotensin

609
Q

A 30yoF presents with primary adrenal failure with new onset hypotension, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation. What is the most likely enzyme deficiency? (2023 NIH)

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency (21-OHD)

610
Q

What is the best treatment for PMDD? (2019)

  • SSRI
  • Benzo

What is the most effective treatment for PMS? (2003, 2012)
- SSRI
- OCPs

A

SSRI

611
Q

What receptor does danazol bind least to? (2001, 2003, 2005, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Androgen receptor
  • Progesterone receptor (PR)
  • Glucocorticoid receptor
  • Estrogen receptor (ER)
  • Prolactin receptor
A

ER

612
Q

The most common cause of irregular vaginal bleeding is which of the following? (2003)

A

Pregnancy

613
Q

What is the definition of abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB)? (2011, 2012, 2018)

  • Increased bleeding volume to >95th percentile
  • Menorrhagia
  • Bleeding for >8d
  • Bleeding >80mL
A

Previous years answered: - Increased bleeding volume to >95th percentile

vs

Bleeding > 80 mL

614
Q

What is the least likely definition of AUB? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Bleeding >7d
Preferred name for DUB
Same as menorrhagia
Bleeding >80mL
Bleeding volume >95th percentile

A

Same as menorrhagia (regular, but heavy)

(DUB = dysfunctional uterine bleeding)

615
Q

What is the most likely cause of AUB in a teenager? (2005, 2019, 2021)

Anovulation
Inherited coagulopathy
Pregnancy complication
Cervical polyp

A

Anovulation

616
Q

A 16yoF presents with profuse, heavy vaginal bleeding. Hemodynamically stable with Hct 26%. What is the best next step in management? (2021)

  • One tab of combined oral contraceptive today and then one pill daily x30d
  • IV estrogen q4h x24hr
  • Tranexamic acid (TXA)
  • D&C

What is the best treatment for a 13yoF with profuse vaginal bleeding but is hemodynamically stable with Hct 26%? (2020)

  • IV estrogen
  • OCPs
  • D&C
  • Endometrial biopsy then progesterone treatment
A

IV estrogen Q4H x 24H

IV estrogen

617
Q

What marker is highest in patients with menorrhagia? (2021)

  • Thromboxane
  • PGI2
  • PGE2
  • Something else
A

PGI2 = prostacyclin

618
Q

Which of the following is most commonly associated with endometrial cancer due to unopposed estrogen? (2020, 2021)

  • PTEN mutation
  • Smoking
  • Advanced age
  • MSH2
A

PTEN mutation
vs
Age

619
Q

What is the most sensitive finding for adenomyosis? (2021)

  • Increased thickness of the junctional zone
  • Myometrial cysts and hyper (or hypo?) echogenic opacities on ultrasound (US)
  • Diffusely thickened myometrial layer on MRI
  • Abnormally soft uterine tone on laparoscopy
A

Increased thickness of the junctional zone

620
Q

What is vasodilation after IV estrogen due to? (Why do coronary arteries dilate within 25sec of IV infusion of estradiol?) (1999, 2020)

  • Genomic effects of estrogen
  • Non-genomic effects of estrogen
  • Effect of the estrogen response unit
  • Release of endothelin-1
  • Formation of estrogen receptor (ER) dimer
  • Other
A

Non-genomic effects of estrogen

Estrogen increases NO synthesis (vasodilator)

621
Q

What is the mechanism by which IV estrogen stops acute bleeding? (2005)

  • Clotting
  • Re-epithelialization
  • Others
A

Clotting
Re-epithelialization

Both, but probably pick re-epithelialization for denuded endometrium

622
Q

What is not a good treatment for a perimenopausal woman with menorrhagia? (2013)

A

Copper IUD (ParaGard)

623
Q

A 14 yo F presents with persistent severe and heavy bleeding with menses. What do you do? (2018)

  • Check a CBC
  • TSH
  • Wait 6 mo re-evaluate
A

Check a CBC

624
Q

What is a contraindication for tranexamic acid (TXA) use? (2016)

Smoking
Retinal artery thrombosis
Uterine artery embolization (UAE)
AVM
Uterine septum
Infertile patient with intramural fibroids
Submucosal fibroids

A

Retinal artery thrombosis

625
Q

What is the best treatment for heavy bleeding and anemia? (2016)

  • Levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)
  • Tranexamic acid (TXA)
A

Mirena

626
Q

A 16yoF girl has AUB. What is the most likely finding? (2003)

  • Von Willebrand
  • Others
A

Von Willebrand

627
Q

A healthy 46yoF has AUB with Hgb 10g/dL. What is the best treatment? (2003)

Prostaglandin synthesis inhibitor
Endometrial ablation
OCPs

A

OCPs

*Prostaglandin synthesis inhibitor = NSAIDs

628
Q

An 18yoF has abnormally heavy menses. What is the most likely etiology of her AUB? (2005)

A

Coagulopathy

629
Q

A 35yoF presents with persistent AUB for 1yr. What is the most likely etiology? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2023 NIH)

Coagulopathy
Endometrial polyp
Increase in prostacyclin production
Fibroids

A

Fibroids

630
Q

A 25/35yoF has AUB. What is the least likely cause? (2007)

Endometrial polyp
Fibroids
Factor V Leiden
IInsufficient luteal phase progesterone secretion

A

Factor V Leiden

*Clotting disorder, not bleeding

631
Q

What is least likely to cause AUB (menorrhagia) from endometrial overgrowth (a thickened endometrium)? (2007, 2023 NIH)

  • Conjugated estrogen
  • Mifepristone (RU-486)
  • Raloxifene
A

Raloxifene

*Acts as antagonist on endometrium

632
Q

What is the best way to quantitate menses if doing a research trial on the menstrual cycle? (2013)

  • Pictorial
  • Diary
  • Hgb
A

Diary

633
Q

What is the best treatment for decreasing bleeding in women with fibroids distorting the uterine cavity?

  • Levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)
  • Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) (Depo-Provera)
  • UAE
  • Ablation
A

UAE

634
Q

What is increased in menstrual fluid in women with menorrhagia? (2023 NIH)

Prostacyclin
Thromboxane
PGE2

A

Both prostacyclin, PGE2

635
Q

Which of the following is the best indication for a UAE? (2023 NIH)

  • AV malformation
  • Multiple submucosal fibroids
  • Intramural fibroids with infertility
A

AV malformation

636
Q

What is the most likely outcome after an endometrial ablation? (2023 NIH)

  • Future hysterectomy
  • Light vaginal bleeding with the menstrual cycle
  • Amenorrhea
A

Light vaginal bleeding with the menstrual cycle

637
Q

A patient presents with irregular cycles and a 12mm homogenous stripe. What is the best next step? (2023 NIH)

  • Endometrial biopsy
  • Combined OCPs
  • Saline sonogram (SIS)
A

COCs

638
Q

What is the effect of tamoxifen on bone density (BMD)? (2007)

A

Increases BMD in post-meno women but decreases BMD in pre-meno women

639
Q

What is the effect of raloxifene on bone density (BMD)? (2007)

A

Increases

640
Q

What is the effect of tamoxifen on cholesterol? (2007)

A

Increase: HDL, SHBG (–> lower free E2)
Decrease: LDL, cholesterol, ATIII

641
Q

What is the effect of raloxifene on cholesterol? (2007)

A

lowers LDL

642
Q

What should you not give someone for vasomotor symptoms who is taking tamoxifen for breast cancer? (2021, 2022)

Paroxetine
Citalopram
Escitalopram
Sertraline

A

Paroxetine

*In order to be fully effective, tamoxifen must be metabolized to an active metabolite, endoxifen, by the liver enzyme cytochrome P450 2D6 (CYP2D6). Consequently, any co-administered agent (e.g. paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion) that inhibits this enzyme will reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen, thereby potentially reducing the efficacy of tamoxifen as a breast cancer therapy.

643
Q

A patient with hot flashes is on tamoxifen to reduce risk of breast cancer recurrence. What do you add? (2017, 2021)

Paroxetine
Norethindrone
Venlafaxine
Citalopram
Escitalopram
Gabapentin
Valerian root

A

Gabapentin

*Paroxetine, Venlafaxine, Citalopram, Escitalopram are all contraindicated as they would reduce effectiveness of tamoxifen

644
Q

Which of the following drugs is most likely to interfere with the action of tamoxifen? (2021)

  • SSRI can’t remember which one
  • Benzodiazepine of some kind
  • Clonazepam
  • OCPs
A

OCPS (but why would someone on tamoxifen be on OCPs)

SSRIs also interfere

645
Q

What hormonal changes do you see in a premenopausal woman on tamoxifen? (2018, 2023 NIH)

  • Increased FSH
  • Increased inhibin
  • Decreased estrogen
A

Increased FSH

646
Q

Which of the following has the least effect on endometrial thickness? (2012, 2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

Raloxifene
Tamoxifen
Mifepristone (RU-486)
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
Estriol

Which of the following is least likely to lead to (vaginal bleeding from) endometrial hyperplasia? (2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2018)

Raloxifene
Tamoxifen
Mifepristone (RU-486)
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
Estradiol

Which one of the following does not lead to vaginal bleeding with endometrial side effects? (2023 NIH)
Tamoxifen
Raloxifene
Estradiol
Mifepristone (RU-486)

A

Raloxifene

647
Q

What is the least likely effect of raloxifene? (2001, 2007, 2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

  • HDL (up or down)
  • Triglycerides (up or down)
  • Hot flashes
  • VTE
A

No effect on HDL

648
Q

What is the least likely effect of raloxifene? (2001, 2007, 2011)

DVT
Increased LDL
Decreased HDL
Increased cholesterol
Hot flashes
Fracture

A

Fracture

649
Q

What is the most common side effect of tamoxifen? (2007, 2013, 2014)

Hot flashes
Arthralgias

A

Hot flashes

650
Q

What is the most common side effect of aromatase inhibitors? (2007, 2009, 2013, 2014)

Hot flashes
Arthralgias
Fractures

A

Arthralgias

651
Q

What risk is associated with raloxifene? (2003, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2023 NIH)

Endometrial hyperplasia
Weight loss
Increases DVT risk
Stroke
Reduced hot flashes
Increased total cholesterol
Increased LDL

A

Increases DVT risk

652
Q

How does a risk reducing BSO affect the cancer risk of a patient with a BRCA? (2017, 2018)

Decreases ovarian cancer by 90%
Decreases breast cancer by 90%
No change

A

Decreases ovarian cancer by 90%

653
Q

Mechanism of action of tamoxifen

A

TAF-1 and TAF-2 areas can both activate transcription, but TAF-2 activates transcription only when it is bound by estrogen. The individual transactivating abilities of TAF-1 and TAF-2 depend on the promoter and cell context. Tamoxifen’s agonistic ability is due to activation of TAF-1; its antagonistic activity is due to competitive inhibition of the estrogen-dependent activation of TAF-2 (Figure 1.25).

Tamoxifen (SERM): Agonist or antagonist at estrogen receptor

a. Agonist due to TAF-1 activation
i. Estrogen agonist effect – TAF-1 too weak to activate transcription when TAF-2 inactivated in most cell types EXCEPT endometrium, bone, liver (due to overcoming competitive inhibition of TAF-2)

b. Antagonist activity due to competitive inhibition of TAF-2 action
i. Anti-estrogen effect occurs in tissues when response to estrogens is mediated by TAF-2

654
Q

Each of the following is an established risk factor for breast cancer except? (Which of the following does not increase breast cancer risk?) (1999, 2005, 2023 NIH)

First pregnancy after age 30yo
Nulliparity
OCPs
First degree relative with breast cancer
Cigarette smoking

A

OCPs

655
Q

How is testosterone replacement managed in a woman? (2011, 2012, 2018)
Keep testosterone levels in normal range
Keep giving testosterone until patient feels better
Increased libido
Give as much testosterone as needed, even if blood levels are high

A

Keep testosterone levels in normal range

656
Q

What does testosterone replacement in postmenopausal women most likely result in? (2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Improvement in UTI
Increased ovarian androstenedione production
Improved sense of wellbeing
Improved lipid panel
Increased skin elasticity
Increased thrombotic events

A

Improved sense of wellbeing

657
Q

What is the mechanism of hot flashes in postmenopausal women? (2017, 2018, 2020, 2021, 2022)

Decreased endorphins
Narrowing of the central thermoregulatory zone
Increased catecholamines

A

Narrowing of the central thermoregulatory zone

658
Q

What medication increases osteoblast activity? (2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2018, 2022, 2023 NIH)

Teriparatide
Raloxifene
Bisphosphonates
E2
SERMs
Denosumab
Calicitonin

Which of the following increases osteoblast activity? (2011, 2023 NIH)
Estrogen
Calcium
Calcitonin
Bisphosphonates
PTH

What directly stimulates osteoblast activity? (2012, 2014, 2018)

Vitamin D
Estrogen
Tamoxifen
Raloxifene
Bazedoxifene

A

Teriparatide*** is a recombinant PTH

PTH

Estrogen

659
Q

Which one is least associated with osteoporosis? (2003, 2009, 2012, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Steroids
Hypothyroidism
Hyperparathyroidism
Renal failure
Smoking

A

Hypothyroidism

*Hyperthyroidism causes osteoporosis

660
Q

A 75yoF with coronary heart disease (CHD) and TSH 10mU/mL. What therapy do you initiate? (2007, 2021, 2022, 2023 NIH)

15mg desiccated thyroid (Armour)
20mg desiccated thyroid (Armour)
25ug levothyroxine (Synthroid)
50ug levothyroxine (Synthroid)

A

25ug levothyroxine (Synthroid)

661
Q

What should the starting levothyroxine (Synthroid) dose be for a 60yoF with hypertension when her needed dose is 150ug? (2023 NIH)

12.5ug
25ug
100ug
150ug

A

25ug

662
Q

What does transdermal HRT do differently compared to oral HRT? (2021)

Decreases triglycerides

A

Decreases triglycerides

663
Q

Postmenopausal woman with known cardiovascular disease (CVD) and hot flashes. What will provide the best relief of symptoms? (2021)

Some specific SSRI (paroxetine maybe)
Vaginal E2
Transdermal E2
Black cohosh

A

Transdermal E2

664
Q

What is least likely to be elevated with a transdermal estrogen patch? (2009)

SHBG
LDL
Triglycerides
HDL

A

Triglycerides

665
Q

What is the least effect of estrogen (HRT) on cardiovascular disease (CVD)? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Increase in NO synthase
Decrease in NO synthase
Inhibits oxidation of LDL
Increase in HDL
Increase in prostacyclin

A

Decrease in NO synthase

(*E2 increases NO, which is anti-atherogenic)

666
Q

What will most effectively reduce hot flashes in a perimenopausal woman? (2021)

Vaginal E2
Systemic E2
Some SSRI
Clonazepam

A

Systemic E2

667
Q

What is an absolute contraindication to initiation of testosterone therapy in a hypogonadal male? (2021, 2023 NIH)

PSA 2.5ng/mL
Hct 45%
Breast cancer
Obesity
CHF Class 1

A

Breast cancer

668
Q

What is absolutely contraindicated for men with breast cancer? (2018)

A

Testosterone therapy

669
Q

What complication is bisphosphonate treatment associated with? (2012, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2021)

Increased serum calcium levels
Osteonecrosis of the mandible
Atypical fractures of the femoral head
Something else about bones

A

Osteonecrosis of the mandible

670
Q

What is the best treatment for vasomotor symptoms when HRT is contraindicated? (2019)

Paroxetine
Neurontin
Black cohosh

A

Paroxetine

671
Q

Which of the following is the best treatment for vasomotor symptoms? (2014, 2015)

Venlafaxine
Clonidine
Black cohosh

A

Venlafaxine

672
Q

What is the best way to protect bones (prevent bone loss) of a 35yoF patient with POI? (2018, 2019)

OCPs
Transdermal HRT
Calcium and vitamin D
Weight-bearing exercise

A

OCPs

673
Q

How do you treat hot flashes and vaginal dryness in a 52yoF with prior hysterectomy? (2017, 2018)

Systemic estrogen
Vaginal estrogen
Systemic estrogen and progesterone

A

Systemic estrogen

674
Q

A 63yoF presents with a T-score of -3 and Z-score of -2.5. What is the least likely cause? (2009, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Normal menopause
Chronic renal disease
Multiple myeloma
Hyperparathyroidism
Hyperthyroidism
Hypothyroidism
Vitamin D deficiency

A

Normal menopause

675
Q

A 65yoF has a T-Score of -3 and Z-Score of -2.5. What is the least likely reason? (2023 NIH)

Menopause
Vitamin D deficiency
Hypoparathyroidism

A

Menopause

676
Q

A 60yoF has a T-score of -2, normal PTH, normal calcium, and vitamin D 9ng/dL (low). What is the best initial treatment? (2011)

Bisphosphonates
Calcium
Vitamin D
DEXA in 2yr

A

Vitamin D

677
Q

What is least effective at treating osteoporosis? (2013)

Vitamin D supplementation
Calcitonin
Bisphosphonates
HRT

A

Vit D supplementation

678
Q

What is the highest food source of vitamin D? (2016, 2023 NIH)

Raw milk
Hard cheese
Cod liver oil
Spinach

A

Cod liver oil

679
Q

What is least effective at treating osteoporosis? (2013, 2014, 2015, 2018)

High dose calcium
Calcitonin
Bisphosphonates
HRT

What treatment will not increase bone density (BMD)? (2011, 2013, 2014, 2015)

High dose calcium
Calcitonin
Risedronate
HRT

What is least likely to increase bone density (BMD)? (2023 NIH)

High dose calcium
Calcitonin
Estradiol
Bisphosphonates

A

High dose calcium

680
Q

What is least likely to improve bone density (BMD)? (2005, 2007, 2009)

Calcitonin
Raloxifene
Tamoxifen

A

Calcitonin

681
Q

What is the best way to determine bone loss? (2010)

Vitamin D
TFTs
Renal function tests
DEXA

A

DEXA

682
Q

What is most likely to result in negative calcium balance? (2023 NIH)

Hyperprolactinemia
Renal insufficiency
Hyperthyroidism
Progesterone treatment
Hyperparathyroidism

A

Renal insufficiency

683
Q

What is most likely to have a negative calcium balance? (2013, 2014, 2017)

Hypercortisolism
Hyperprolactinemia
Hyperparathyroidism

A

Hypercortisolism

684
Q

What is the best predictor of perimenopause within 10yr? (2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

AMH
FSH
Inhibin

A

AMH

685
Q

What does HRT do to cardiovascular disease (CVD)? (2015)

Primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD)

Primary prevention only

A

Primary prevention only

686
Q

When is HRT most likely to have a protective effect? (2015)

Obesity
PCOS
Hyperlipidemia
Perimenopause

A

Perimenopause

687
Q

What hormone decreases in menopause? (2015, 2016, 2017, 2018)

DHEAS
Androstenedione
Testosterone
3-alpha-androstanediol glucuronide (3-alpha-AG)

A

DHEAS

688
Q

Measured at any time during the menstrual cycle, which is most likely to predict menopausal status? (2014, 2015)

FSH
LH
AMH
Inhibin

A

AMH

689
Q

A 50yoF with prior TAH-BSO wants medications for hot flashes but does not want to take anything that increases her risk of breast cancer. What do you give her? (2014, 2015, 2023 NIH, 2023 NIH)

Gabapentin
Venlafaxine
Conjugated equine estrogens (CEE) (Premarin)

A

Venlafaxine

690
Q

Who is most likely to have hot flashes? (2017)

African American
Asian Pacific Islander
Hispanic

A

African American

691
Q

Which route of HRT gives the most constant levels? (2012, 2015, 2017, 2018)

Transdermal
Oral
IM

A

Transdermal

692
Q

Compared to placebo, which was increased in the estrogen only arm of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI)? (2015, 2016)

Breast cancer
Stroke
DVT
Lung cancer
Urinary incontinence
Vertebral Fraction

A

Stroke

C-EE and E-P arms:
- Increased CVA
- Decreased hip fracture

E-P arm:
- Increased VTE > increased BC > inc CHD
- Decreased colon ca

693
Q

Compared to the increased risk seen in the estrogen only arm, what differed in the estrogen and progestin arm of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI)? (2005, 2007, 2010, 2023 NIH)

Breast cancer risk
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) risk
VTE risk

A

Breast cancer risk

694
Q

A postmenopausal woman has been on estrogen HRT for years. If she continues, her risk of which of the following will continue to increase? (2012)

Stroke
VTE

A

Stroke

695
Q

Why is hirsutism common after menopause? (2018)

A

Change in androgen/estrogen ratio

696
Q

What is least likely to affect circulating estrone levels? (2012, 2018)

  • Liver disease
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Aging
  • Obesity
A

Hypothyroidism

697
Q

What is least likely to cause osteoporosis? (2023 NIH)

A

Hyperprolactinemia

698
Q

How do you monitor response to treatment of osteoporosis after 3mo of treatment? (2007, 2010, 2012)

Serum C-telopeptide
Procollagen
Osteocalcin
DEXA scan

A

Serum C-telopeptide

699
Q

What is the worst marker of bone resorption? (2010, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Urinary N-telopeptide
Serum N-telopeptide
Serum C-telopeptide
Serum hydroxyproline
Urinary hydroxyproline
Hydroxypyridine
Urinary C-phosphatidylcholine
Urinary N-phosphatidylcholine

What is the least useful test for measuring the efficacy of osteoporosis treatment? (2023 NIH)

N-telopeptide
C-telopeptide
Hydroxyproline

A

Serum hydroxyproline

700
Q

What is least likely to reflect bone resorption? (2011)

N-telopeptide
C-telopeptide
Urinary hydroxyproline
Serum N-terminal propeptide of type 1 collagen

A

Serum N-terminal propeptide of type 1 collagen

701
Q

A patient begins treatment for osteopenia. How can you best assess if the regimen is preserving bone density (BMD) 3mo later? (2003)

DEXA of spine
DEXA of hip
Osteocalcin:creatinine ratio
C-telopeptide:creatinine ratio

A

C-telopeptide:creatinine ratio

702
Q

Adiponectin is secreted by ___

Increased/decreased adiponectin is assoc w metabolic syndrome, insulin resistance and obesity. (2023 NIH)

A

Adipose

Decreased

703
Q

Which of the following scenarios would be most appropriate to initiate treatment with metformin? (2021)

Obesity
Abnormal glucose tolerance test (GTT)
Insulin resistance
PCOS

A

IR

704
Q

What is least likely to have a negative calcium balance? (2003, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Hypercortisolism
Hyperprolactinemia
Hyperthyroidism
Progesterone therapy
Hyperparathyroidism
Alcohol
Anorexia

A

Hyperparathyroidism

705
Q

What is the best way to check bone density (BMD) 3mo post treatment? (2023 NIH)

DEXA spine
DEXA hip
Telopeptides
Serum hydroxyproline

What is the best test after 3mo of osteoporosis therapy? (2023 NIH)
DEXA spine
DEXA hip
C-telopeptide
Urinary CTX/creatinine ratio

A

Telopeptides

706
Q

If a teenager is getting a DEXA scan as there is a concern for bone mass. What score do you use? (2007, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2017, 2018, 2022, 2023 NIH)

T-score
Z-score
Age adjusted tables
Growth chart
Telopeptide
Single ray photon

A

Z-score

707
Q

What is the best test for bone density (BMD) in a 16yo girl? (2023 NIH)

DEXA scan with T-Score
DEXA scan with Z-Score
Heel ultrasound (US)
Telopeptide

A

DEXA scan with Z-Score

708
Q

An 18yoF college student gets a DEXA and her T-score of -2.5. What is the most likely cause? (2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Low BMI
Age
Exercise
OCPs

A

Age

T-score compares against healthy 30 year old female (bone mass peaks in 20s)

Z-score compares against sex, age, weight matched controls

709
Q

What is the least likely to help a 61yo postmenopausal woman with severe osteopenia? (2005, 2012, 2018)

Estradiol
Alendronate
High dose calcium
Raloxifene
Calcitonin
Risedronate

A

High dose calcium

710
Q

A 58yoF presents with osteopenia. What is the least likely cause? (2011)

Chronic renal insufficiency
Smoking
Hyperparathyroidism
Hyperthyroidism

A

Hyperparathyroidism

711
Q

What occurs less with aromatase inhibitors compared to tamoxifen? (2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Hot flashes
Nausea and vomiting
Thromboembolism
Arthralgias
Fractures

A

Thromboembolism

712
Q

What occurs less with aromatase inhibitors compared to tamoxifen? (2023 NIH)

Hot flashes
Arthralgias
Fractures

A

Hot flashes

713
Q

What occurs more with aromatase inhibitors compared to tamoxifen? (2011)

Hot flashes
Myalgias
Bone density (BMD)
DVT risk

A

Myalgias

714
Q

What is the earliest sign of perimenopause? (2007)

Increasing FSH
Decreasing inhibin

What is the earliest sign of perimenopause? (2023 NIH)

Increasing FSH
Decreasing inhibin
Decreasing AMH

A

Decreasing inhibin (if AMH is not an answer)

Decreasing AMH

715
Q

Which is least likely to occur during the perimenopause? (2005, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Amenorrhea
Oligomenorrhea
Menorrhagia
Regular cycles

A

Regular cycles

716
Q

Which of the following hormonal changes is most likely found in a perimenopausal woman? (1999)

Increased estradiol
Increased androstenedione
Decreased post-ovulatory progesterone
Decreased FSH

A

Decreased post-ovulatory progesterone

717
Q

A patient wants HRT but wants the least amount of variability in dosing as she has night sweats and hot flashes in the evening. Which of the following would be best? (2012, 2015)

  • Transdermal patch
  • IM
  • Oral cyclic
  • Oral continuous
A

Transdermal patch

718
Q

What do you check to diagnose vitamin D deficiency? (2012)

25 Vitamin D
1,25 Vitamin D

A

25 vit D

719
Q

Which hormone is least likely to decrease with age? (2007)

Insulin
DHEA
Growth hormone

A

Insulin

720
Q

What is the most important risk factor for stroke in women? (1999)

Cigarette smoking
OCPs
Hypertension
Hypercholesterolemia

A

HTN

721
Q

What does oophorectomy in a postmenopausal woman have the greatest effect on? (1999)

DHEAS
Testosterone
Estrone
Androstenedione
Estradiol

A

Testosterone

722
Q

What does the post-menopausal ovary make most? (2023 NIH)

A

Androstenedione

723
Q

What is an LDL receptor defect most likely to cause? (2003, 2005)

A

Atherogenesis

724
Q

What is the primary function of HDL? (What is a consequence of processing HDL?) (1999, 2001, 2003, 2010, 2023 NIH)

  • Atherogenesis
  • Decreased hepatic lipase
  • Reverse cholesterol transport
  • Act as a scavenger transporting cholesterol back to the liver
A

Reverse cholesterol transport

725
Q

Which hormone would not be expected to decrease in aging? (Which hormone is least likely to decrease with aging?) (2003, 2010, 2023 NIH)

Testosterone
Insulin
TSH
FSH

A

FSH

726
Q

Which hormone does not change during menopause? (2005, 2023 NIH)

Insulin
Testosterone
DHEA
Androstenedione
Estrogen

A

Insulin

727
Q

For a woman taking cyclic HRT, which progestin will be least likely to have androgenic side effects? (2003)

Norethindrone
Micronized progesterone
Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) (Provera)

A

Micronized progesterone

728
Q

HRT is most likely to decrease the risk of which of the following? (2003)

Colon cancer
Ovarian cancer
Endometrial cancer

A

Colon cancer

729
Q

Which of the following daily regimens is least likely to preserve bone density (BMD)? (2003)

Ethinyl estradiol 20μg and norethindrone 1mg

Conjugated estrogens 0.625mg and methyltestosterone 1.25mg

Conjugated estrogens 0.3mg

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) (Provera) 10mg

A

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) (Provera) 10mg

730
Q

What substance is least likely to be increased in a patient with low bone mass? (2005)

Vitamin D
IL-6
PTH
Calcitonin

A

Vit D

731
Q

42yoF with a history of previously regular menses presents with recent increased frequency of menses. What is the next step? (2005, 2023 NIH)

A

Observation

*Perimenopause
In another recall list, OCP was listed – would choose OCPs** 2005

732
Q

Which clinical presentation does not require further evaluation? (2005, 2023 NIH)

  • 52yoF on cyclic OCP with endometrial thickness 8mm
  • 60yoF with fluid in the endometrial cavity
A

52yoF on cyclic OCP with endometrial thickness 8mm

733
Q

What is postmenopausal HRT therapy for? (2023 NIH)

Primary and secondary prevention
Primary prevention only
Prevention of heart disease
Others

A

Primary and secondary prevention

734
Q

How would you titrate the dose of testosterone in a female using it for sexual dysfunction? (2023 NIH)

Titrate to testosterone levels
Titrate to clinical improvement despite high levels

A

Titrate to testosterone levels

735
Q

A woman in her late 40s had regular menses followed but her next cycle started 17d later then her most recent cycle was 65d after that. What do you do? (2023 NIH)

FSH
AMH
Ultrasound (US)
Endometrial biopsy
Menstrual period calendar

A

Menstrual period calendar

736
Q

What is the most common ocular complaint in menopause? (2023 NIH)

Macular degeneration
Glaucoma
Cataracts
Dry eyes

A

Dry eyes

737
Q

A 50yo menopausal patient presents with hot flashes and vaginal dryness. What is the best treatment? (2023 NIH)

Vaginal estrogen
SSRI
Clonidine
Systemic estrogen

A

Systemic estrogen

738
Q

What is estrogen in HRT is least associated with? (2023 NIH)

Decreased cholesterol
Increased HDL
Increased LDL
Plaque formation

A

Increased LDL

739
Q

What is the best strategy for lasting weight loss in an obese woman with a BMI 56 kg/m2? (2018)

  • Diet
  • Exercise
  • Medications
  • Bariatric surgery

What is the best strategy for lasting weight loss in an obese woman with a BMI 56kg/m2? (2018, 2023 NIH)

Gastric bypass
Lap band
Others

A

Bariatric surgery

Gastric bypass

740
Q

What leads to obesity? (2015)

Defect in leptin
Defect in leptin receptor

A

Defect in leptin receptor

741
Q

What is most common with obesity? (2015, 2023 NIH)

Defect in leptin receptor
High adiponectin
Decreased adiponectin
Low leptin
High ghrelin

A

Decreased adiponectin

742
Q

Which of the following does not increase in obese women? (2012)

Leptin
Insulin
Hyperandrogenism
SHBG

A

SHBG

743
Q

A patient had gastric bypass surgery. What is the most likely change? (2014, 2023 NIH)

Decreased leptin
Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
Decreased ghrelin
Adiponectin

A

Decreased ghrelin

744
Q

What happens if a patient is on the Atkins diet? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Fat intake suppresses appetite
Decrease in insulin
Decreased total calories

A

Decrease in insulin

745
Q

What is the most likely effect of leptin in a normal weight person? (2023 NIH)

Change ghrelin
Decrease appetite

A

Decrease appetite

746
Q

Ghrelin is an endogenous ligand for which receptor? (2015)

Insulin
Growth hormone

A

Growth hormone

747
Q

What do TPO antibodies bind to? (2021, 2022)

Thyroid microsomes
TBG
T4
TSH

A

Thyroid microsomes

748
Q

What is the best test to diagnose recurrence of [papillary] thyroid carcinoma? (2021)

  • Thyroglobulin
  • TPO antibody
  • TSH
  • Free T4
A

TG

749
Q

When is the soonest thyroid levels should be checked after an increase in levothyroxine (Synthroid) dose? (2012)

1wk
2wk
4wk
8wk

A

8 weeks

750
Q

What are the changes in thyroid function tests in early pregnancy (In a woman with known hypothyroidism)?: (2018, 2021)

Elevated TSH, decreased T4
Elevated TSH, decreased T3
Low TSH, increased T4
Low TSH, normal T3

A

Low TSH, increased T4

751
Q

What is the best next step for a palpable 2cm painless thyroid nodule/mass in the right lobe with normal thyroid function tests? (2005, 2007, 2011, 2014, 2019)

Ultrasound (US) with doppler
Open core biopsy
Fine needle aspiration (FNA)
Thyroidectomy
Uptake scan

A

US with Doppler

752
Q

How do you evaluate a malignant thyroid nodule? (2011)

Ultrasound (US) with doppler
Open core biopsy
Fine needle aspiration (FNA)
Thyroidectomy
Uptake scan

A

FNA

753
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for a thyroid nodule? (2023 NIH)

Fine needle aspiration (FNA)
TFTs
Thyroid scan
Open biopsy

A

FNA

754
Q

A patient presents with a painful diffusely enlarged thyroid, elevated TSH, decreased T4, and fatigue. What is the diagnosis? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Subacute thyroiditis (viral, deQuervain)
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Graves disease

A patient presents with symptoms of hyperthyroidism and a painful, enlarged thyroid gland. What is the most likely cause? (2011)

Graves disease
Subacute (DeQuervain) thyroiditis
Postpartum thyroiditis
Thyroid cancer

A

Subacute thyroiditis (viral, deQuervain)

Subacute (DeQuervain) thyroiditis

755
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the United States? (2010)

Graves disease

A

Graves disease

756
Q

What kind of receptor does T3 use? (2013, 2014, 2018)

Cell surface receptor
Nuclear receptor
Combination of cell surface and nuclear receptor
Endoplasmic reticulum receptor

A

Nuclear receptor

757
Q

What happens to fetal thyroid hormones in pregnancy? (2007, 2011, 2012, 2016, 2018)

Elevated TSH
Elevated T3
Elevated rT3
Low T4

A

Elevated rT3

758
Q

What is the fetal thyroid function profile at 20wk? (2012, 2018)

Decreased TSH, increased T4, increased rT3
Increased TSH, increased T4, decreased rT3
Increased TSH, stable T4, increased rT3
Increased TSH, increased T4, increased rT3

A

Increased TSH, increased T4, increased rT3

759
Q

Which is true about the fetal thyroid? (2014, 2015)

TSH maxes out at 10wk with peak in hCG
Resembles pattern seen in cachexia
Other thyroid options

What is the neonatal thyroid panel characterized by? (2023 NIH)

A

Resembles pattern seen in cachexia (high rT3, low T3)

Similar to patients with eating disorders (increased rT3, low T3)

760
Q

A woman with hyperthyroidism presents with fever to 101F and tachycardia to 110s. What do you do first? (2014, 2015, 2017)

Glucocorticoids
Give T4
Beta blocker
Radioablation

A

Beta blocker

761
Q

A patient presents in thyroid storm. What do you do first? (2005, 2015, 2023 NIH)

Propranolol (Beta blocker)
Radioactive iodine
Propylthiouracil (PTU)

A

Propranolol (Beta blocker)

762
Q

A healthy 23yoF presents with new onset hyperthyroidism. TSH <0.1 mU/mL, high T3, and radioactive iodine was <3% (low). What is the most likely diagnosis? (2018)

Graves disease
Thyroiditis
Hot thyroid nodule

A

Thyroiditis

763
Q

What is most likely to occur in a 60yoF with hypothyroidism? (2003, 2005, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2018)

Elevated total cholesterol
Elevated HDL
Elevated LDL
Decreased LDL
Decreased conversion/metabolism/clearance of T4 to T3

A

Elevated total cholesterol

764
Q

What is least likely to be seen in a 69yoF with hypothyroidism? (2011)

Elevated cholesterol
Elevated HDL
Decreased conversion/metabolism/clearance of T4 to T3

A

Elevated HDL

765
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism in pregnancy? (2018)

Gestational trophoblastic disease
Graves disease
Subclinical hyperthyroidism
Idiopathic hyperthyroidism

A

Graves disease

766
Q

What is the best next test when a patient with symptoms of hypothyroidism is found to have low/normal TSH and low free T4? (2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

TSH stimulation test
Free T4
rT3
TRH stimulation test
Thyroglobulin
Radio-Iodine uptake

A

TRH stimulation test

767
Q

What are the changes in TSH that occur within the fetus during gestation? (2021)

Increases progressively until term
Increases until midgestation and then decreases
Increases until midgestation and then plateaus
Increases in first trimester then progressively decreases until term

A

Increases until midgestation and then plateaus

*TSH starts to increase at 20 weeks, plateaus at 28 weeks, peaks shortly after birth

768
Q

A patient with a history of hypothyroidism has a positive pregnancy test. How do you adjust dosing of their levothyroxine (Synthroid)? (2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2020, 2022)

Increase 2 doses per week
Increase by 30% and then check monthly
Measure TSH, treat based on value
Measure TSH, free T4; treat based on value
Measure hCG, TSH, free T4; treat based on value
No change

A patient with a history of hypothyroidism has a positive pregnancy test. What do you do next? (2017 and 2018 was on a second time with different answer options)

Increase 2 doses per week
Check T4 every 8-10 weeks
No change
Increase T4 dose
Check TSH
Counsel on increased risk SAB

A patient with hypothyroidism on levothyroxine (Synthroid) has positive pregnancy test. How do you manage her? (2023 NIH)

Increase dose empirically
Check thyroid antibodies
Check TSH
Check T4

A patient with a TSH of 4.5mU/mL has a positive pregnancy test. What do you do next? (2013, 2014)

Increase 2 doses per week
Increase by 30% and then check monthly
Measure TSH, treat based on value
Measure TSH, free T4; treat based on value
Measure hCG, TSH, free T4; treat based on value

A

Increase by 30% then check monthly

Increase dose empirically

Increase by 30% then check monthly

769
Q

How do you monitor hypothyroidism in a pregnant patient? (2023 NIH)

Free T4
TSH
Thyroid antibodies

A

TSH

770
Q

A pregnant patient presents with Graves in the first trimester, but no symptoms. What do you do next? (2021)

Expectant management
Start propylthiouracil (PTU)
Start methimazole
Biopsy

A

Start PTU

771
Q

What is postpartum thyroiditis most commonly associated with? (2020, 2021)

Diffusely enlarged thyroid
Thyroid nodule
Anti-TPO antibodies
Antithyroglobulin antibodies

A

Anti-TPO abs

772
Q

What is postpartum thyroiditis most likely associated with? (2017, 2018)

A

T1DM

773
Q

What is the least important lab to get in postpartum thyroiditis? (2011, 2012, 2018)

TSH
Free T4
Free T3
Antithyroglobulin
Thyroglobulin

A

TG

774
Q

Postpartum thyroiditis is least associated with which of the following? (2007, 2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Anti-TPO
Hyperthyroidism
Hypothyroidism
Decrease rT3

A

Hyperthyroidism

775
Q

Which laboratory test is least helpful in patients with postpartum thyroiditis? (2023 NIH)

TSH, T4
TPO, T3
TBG

A

TBG

776
Q

What do you give a pregnant female with hyperthyroidism in the first trimester? (2018)

Methimazole
Propylthiouracil (PTU)

A

PTU

777
Q

What is impact on thyroid hormone levels and TSH if a fetus is exposed to propylthiouracil (PTU)? (1999, 2003, 2007, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Decreased T4, increased TSH, clinically euthyroid at birth and quickly recover
Congenital hypothyroidism
Clinical hypothyroidism
Goiter
Hyperthyroidism

A pregnant woman is taking 100-200mg PTU, what is the effect on the fetus? (1999, 2011, 2012, 2018)

Decrease fetal TSH
Increase fetal TSH
Increase fetal T4
Increase fetal T3

A

Decreased T4, increased TSH, clinically euthyroid at birth and quickly recover

Increase fetal TSH

778
Q

What makes the most antithyroid antibodies? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Thyroid peroxidase (TPO)
Thyroglobulin
Apical iodine transporter
rT3

A

TPO

779
Q

Thyroid antibody is least likely to develop against which of the following? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Peroxidase
Microsomal
rT3
ALT

A

rT3

780
Q

A 30yoF G1P0 wants to conceive immediately. What abnormality would you treat immediately with levothyroxine (Synthroid)? (2012, 2018)

Hyperprolactinemia
Free T4 in normal range
TPO (antimicrosomal antibodies)
Antithyroglobulin

A

TPO

781
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism arising in the United States? (2003)

Autoimmune thyroiditis
Hyperemesis gravidarum

A

Autoimmune thyroiditis

782
Q

Iodination of thyroglobulin occurs at which residue? (2003)

Serine
Leucine
Valine
Tyrosine

A

Tyrosine

783
Q

A patient presents with fatigue, constipation, and pretibial edema. You suspect pituitary etiology. What is the best test to order? (2003)

TSH
Free T4

A

TSH

784
Q

A patient has low TSH with symptoms of hyperthyroidism. What is the best diagnostic test? (2023 NIH)

T3
Radio-iodine uptake
Ultrasound (US)
Antimicrosomal antibody

A

T3

785
Q

What is the next most appropriate test to diagnose a patient with an abnormal low TSH and T4? (2023 NIH)

TRH stimulation test
Free T3
ACTH stimulation test

A

Free T3

786
Q

What is the next step in a patient with clinical signs of hypothyroidism and hypocarotenemia who is found to have normal thyroid testing? (2023 NIH)

A

TRH stim test

787
Q

What is true of TBG (2023 NIH?)

Carries 95% of T4 & T3
Carries 75% of T4 and T3

A

Carries 75% of T4 and T3

788
Q

What is true of TBG (2023 NIH?)

Lower affinity for T4 than T3
Higher affinity for T4 than T3

A

Higher affinity for T4 than T3

789
Q

What is true of TBG (2023 NIH?)

Decreases in pregnancy
Increases in pregnancy

A

Increases in pregnancy

790
Q

What are the 4th generation OCPs? (2018)

A

Drospirenone, dienogest, nomegestrol acetate

791
Q

What is the mechanism of Factor V Leiden deficiency? (How does Factor V Leiden deficiency lead to increased clot formation?) (2019, 2020, 2022, 2023 NIH)

Activated protein C resistance
Activated protein C interaction with estrogen
Elevated prothrombin activity

A

Activated protein C resistance

792
Q

What is the most potent progestin? (2001, 2003, 2005, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2018, 2021)

Levonorgestrel
Norethindrone
Norethindrone acetate
Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA)

A

Levonorgestrel

793
Q

What is the most potent progesterone? (2001, 2003, 2005, 2007, 2023 NIH)

Gestodene
Levonorgestrel
Norethindrone
Norethindrone acetate
Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA)

A

Gestodene

794
Q

What progesterone has the greatest progestational effect on endometrium? (Which of the following would have the most potent effect on endometrial progesterone receptors (PR)?) (2003, 2005, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2018)

Levonorgestrel
Norethindrone
Gestodene

A

Levonorgestrel

795
Q

Which OCP theoretically leads to the lowest levels of circulating free androgens? (2021)

20ug ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone
30ug ethinyl estradiol and norethindrone acetate
50ug ethinyl estradiol and levonorgestrel
35ug ethinyl estradiol and some progestin

A

50ug ethinyl estradiol and levonorgestrel

796
Q

What is the serum level of estradiol most likely associated with ethinyl estradiol use in OCPs? (2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)
20-40pg/ml

<30pg/ml
>40pg/ml

A

<30pg/ml

797
Q

What is the most potent androgen (in a female)? (2009, 2011, 2014, 2017, 2018, 2021, 2023 NIH)

Testosterone
DHT
DHEA
19-nor testosterone
Androstenedione
DHEAS

A

DHT

798
Q

What is the most potent androgen from the ovary? (2015)

Androstenedione
DHEA
DHEAS
Testosterone

A

Testosterone

*Potency (greatest > least): DHT>T>Androstendione>DHEAS

799
Q

What is the most potent androgen CIRCULATING in females? (2013, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Testosterone
DHT
DHEA
19-nor testosterone
Androstenedione
DHEAS

A

Testosterone

800
Q

What is the most androgenic progesterone (on primed endometrium)? (2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2023 NIH)

Levonorgestrel
Norethindrone
Desogestrel
Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA)
Etonogestrel

A

Levonorgestrel

801
Q

What determines the efficacy of OCPs? (2005, 2007, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Estrogen dose
Progestin dose
Type of estrogen
Type of progestin
Estrogen:progesterone ratio

A

Progestin dose

*The progestational agent in the pill suppresses LH (prevents ovulation), while estrogenic agent suppresses FSH (prevents emergence of a dominant follicle). Even if follicular growth and development were not sufficiently inhibited, the progestational component would prevent the surge-like release of LH necessary for ovulation.

802
Q

What progestin is like an estrane? (2009. 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Levonorgestrel
Norgestimate
Ethynodiol diacetate
Norethindrone
Desogestrel

A

Ethynodiol diacetate
Norethindrone

Estranes: 1st generation progestins, C18 derivate of norethindrone
* Norethindrone (Ovcon, Ortho Novum, Micronor)
* Norethindrone acetate (Loestrin)
* Ethynodiol diacetate (Kelnor)

Gonanes: 2nd generation progestins, C17 derivatives, biologically more potent
* Levonorgestrel (Tri Levlen, Seasonale, Plan B, Mirena)
* Norgestrel (Ovral)

  • 3rd generation progestins (lower androgenicity than LNG and estranes)
  • Gestodene
  • Desogestrel (Kariva)
  • Norgestimate (Ortho Cyclen)
  • Etenogestrel (metabolite of desogestrel, Implanon, NuvaRing)

The latest progestin to be developed is drosperinone. Drosperinone: progestin analogue of spironolactone with high affinity for the mineralocorticoid receptor and anti-androgenic activity.

Pregnane family: C21 derivatives of 17α-acetoxyprogesterone
* MPA: structurally most closely related to progesterone instead of testosterone, LESS androgenic activity, rapidly metabolized to progesterone

All Synthetic Estrogens & Progestins have an ethinyl group at position C17→ enhances the oral activity

803
Q

What 19-nortestosterone is known as estrane? (2023 NIH)

Ethynodiol diacetate
Levonorgestrel
Destrogen
Desogestrel
Norgestimate

A

Ethynodiol diacetate

804
Q

Which progesterone is a gonane? (2007, 2009, 2015)

Levonorgestrel
Norethindrone
Ethynodiol diacetate
Norethisterone

A

Levonorgestrel

805
Q

Desogestrel and norgestimate are related to which progesterone? (2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA)
Levonorgestrel
Drospirenone
Dienogest
Nomegestrol acetate

A

Levonorgestrel

806
Q

Which of the following is levonorgestrel most closely related to? (2011)

Norethindrone
Norgestimate
Norgestrel
Gestodene

A

Norgestrel

807
Q

Which of the following could act at the same receptor as desogestrel? (2007)

Levonorgestrel
Others

A

Levonorgestrel

808
Q

What is the main mechanism of decreased androgenicity in gestodene and desogestrel? (2018)

A

Increased SHBG leading to decreased free testosterone

809
Q

Which of the following is gestodene most similar to? (2003, 2023 NIH)

Norethisterone
Levonorgestrel

A

Levonorgestrel

810
Q

What is an absolute contraindication to OCP use? (2018)

Unexplained vaginal bleeding
1 ppd smoker
Obesity

A

1 ppd smoker if > 35 years old

Other absolute contraindications:
- Liver disease
- VTE, stroke, ischemic heart disease
- pregnancy
- complicated valvular heart disease
- migraines with aura

811
Q

What is the best choice for contraception in a woman with lupus? (2018)

Systemic progesterone
OCPs
Levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)

A

Mirena IUD

812
Q

What drug is most likely to interfere with OCPs and decrease efficacy? (2001, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2018)

Rifampin
Tetracycline
Ampicillin
Captopril

A

Rifampin

813
Q

What is the best test for ovarian reserve testing in a woman on OCPs? (2023 NIH)

Day 3 FSH/LH
AMH
AFC

What is the best marker of ovarian reserve to measure on someone on OCPs? (2017)

AFC
FSH
AMH
Inhibin

A

AMH

814
Q

What is the effect of decreasing the pill-free interval from 7d to 4d? (2015, 2016, 2017)

Increased GnRH suppression
Decrease breakthrough bleeding
Increased efficacy

A

Decrease breakthrough bleeding

815
Q

What is the expected serum estradiol level in a patient using estrogen vaginal ring contraception? (2009)

<30pg/mL
30-60pg/mL
60-120pg/mL
>120pg/mL

A

<30pg/mL

816
Q

What is the vaginal ring most likely to decrease? (2007, 2023 NIH)

SHBG
Triglycerides
Total cholesterol
HDL

A

HDL

817
Q

What is most likely to be elevated with vaginal combined contraception use? (2009)

SHBG
17-beta-estradiol
LDL
HDL
Other

A

SHBG

818
Q

What are “new” progestins (third generation)? (2018)

Desogestrel
Gestodene
Norgestimate

A

All are 3rd gen

819
Q

Drospirenone is most like what medication? (2015, 2023 NIH)

A

Spironolactone

820
Q

Why does transvaginal contraception not need a conductance layer? (2011, 2012)

Less adipose
More areolar tissue
No keratinocytes

A

No keratinocytes

821
Q

Which of the following has the most potent antiproliferative effect on an estrogen primed endometrium? (1999)

Norethindrone
Norgestrel
Levonorgestrel
Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA)
Desogestrel

A

Levonorgestrel

822
Q

What hormone is present in the greatest quantity in conjugated equine estrogens (CEE) (Premarin)? (1999)

Estrone sulfate
Equilin
Estriol

A

Estrone sulfate

823
Q

A woman has been taking OCPs for 5yrs and she now wishes to conceive. She asks if it’s okay to try to conceive immediately upon discontinuing the pills. You advise her which of the following? (2003, 2010)

Immediate conception will lead to a greater chance of congenital anomalies
It is harder to calculate gestational age if conception occurs before the second menses off the pills

A

It is harder to calculate gestational age if conception occurs before the second menses off the pills

824
Q

A healthy 25yoF develops a pulmonary embolism while on OCPs. She will be most likely found to have what on evaluation? (2003, 2010)

Lupus anticoagulant
Antithrombin III deficiency
Protein C deficiency
Protein S deficiency
Factor V Leiden mutation

A

Factor V Leiden mutation

825
Q

When administered in the follicular phase, mifepristone (RU-486) is most likely to do which of the following? (2003)

A

Induce menstrual changes in the endometrium

826
Q

What induces LH receptors on granulosa cells just before ovulation? (2014, 2016, 2022, 2023 NIH)

Progesterone
Estrogen
LH
Activin
Inhibin A

A

Estrogen

827
Q

What is the strongest contraindication to OCP use in a 40yoF? (2007)

Diabetes
Migraines
Controlled hypertension
Mother with breast cancer
Lupus

A

Controlled HTN

828
Q

Which form of estrone is found in the highest circulating levels? (2023 NIH)

Estrone
Estrone sulfate
16-alpha-hydroxyestrone

A

Estrone sulfate

829
Q

What is a pregnancy with copper IUD (ParaGard) most likely to result in? (2021, 2022)

Previa
Preeclampsia
GDM

A

Previa

830
Q

What is least likely to happen with a levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)? (2007, 2013, 2014)

Amenorrhea 3mo after removal
Ovulation

A

Amenorrhea 3 mo after removal

831
Q

What is most likely to happen with a levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)? (2007, 2011, 2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

Amenorrhea 3mo after removal
Ovulation
Abnormal bleeding

A

Ovulation

832
Q

What is the best emergency contraception 5 days after unprotected intercourse? (2003, 2007, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Yuzpe method
High dose levonorgestrel
Mifepristone
IUD

A

IUD

833
Q

What is true about IUDs? (2014, 2015)

Do not cause PID
Contraindicated in HIV
Increases absolute rate of ectopic pregnancy

A

Do not cause PID

834
Q

What is least true about the levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena)? (2012, 2015)

Effect limited to the uterus
Decrease ovarian cysts
Improved dysmenorrhea

A

Decrease ovarian cysts

835
Q

What is the levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena) least useful for? (2014)

Dysmenorrhea
Menorrhagia
Reducing endometrial cancer risk

A

Dysmenorrhea

836
Q

What form of contraception has the lowest failure rate with typical use? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Subdermal implant
IUD
OCPs
Condoms

A

Subdermal implant

837
Q

What is the least likely time in the menstrual cycle for a single act of intercourse to result in pregnancy? (2014, 2015)

2 days before ovulation
4 days before ovulation
1 day after ovulation

A

1 day after ovulation

838
Q

What is the most likely time in the menstrual cycle for a single act of intercourse to result in pregnancy? (2007, 2015, 2023 NIH)

At ovulation
2 days before ovulation
2 days after ovulation
4 days after ovulation
1 day before ovulation
1 day after ovulation

A

1 day before ovulation

839
Q

What is the most common abnormality found in a normal fertile couple? (2005, 2007, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Abnormal semen analysis
Out of phase endometrial biopsy Antisperm antibodies
FSH
Ultrasound (US)
Glucose tolerance

A

Abnormal SA

840
Q

What is the most likely reason for bilateral hydronephrosis in a woman from India? (2019)

Chlamydia
Gonorrhea
Tuberculosis

A

TB

841
Q

What percentage of women with chlamydia are asymptomatic? (2015)

10%
50-60%
70-80%
>90%

A

70-80%

842
Q

What doesn’t change AMH? (2023 NIH)

PCOS
3rd trimester of pregnancy
Ovulation
Hypothalamic amenorrhea

A

Hypothalamic amenorrhea

843
Q

What is the best initial screening test for intracavitary abnormality in infertility evaluation? (2023 NIH)

HSG
SIS
Ultrasound (US)

A

SIS

844
Q

A patient is undergoing vasectomy reversal and there is no sperm present in the vas remnant aspiration. What is the next best step? (2021, 2022)

Vaso-vasotomy
Vasoepididymostomy
MESA
microTESE

A

Vasoepididymostomy

845
Q

What is the most important factor of vasectomy and reversal when predicting successful pregnancy? (2007, 2009, 2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Type of reversal
Time since vasectomy
Antisperm antibodies
Age of patient
Previous fertility
Length of vas

A

Time since vasectomy

846
Q

A male is found to have CBAVD with a normal cystic fibrosis screen. What do you do next? (2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2020, 2022, 2023 NIH)

(Expanded carrier) screen the partner for cystic fibrosis
YCMD testing
Karyotype analysis
Biopsy
Expanded testing of the patient
No further testing is needed

A

(Expanded carrier) screen the partner for cystic fibrosis

847
Q

Male patient presents with CBAVD, what is the best next step of workup on him? (2021)

CFTR gene sequencing
Expanded CF carrier sequencing panel
mTESE

A

CFTR gene sequencing

848
Q

When do primary spermatocytes appear (begin differentiation)? (2018, 2019, 2021, 2023 NIH)

8wk gestation
20wk gestation
At birth
Adrenarche
Puberty

A

Puberty

849
Q

What is the most common/likely cause of azoospermia? (2005, 2007, 2009)

Cystic fibrosis carrier
47,XXY
47,XYY

A

47,XXY

850
Q

What male genetic diseases with azoospermia has the highest incidence? (2023 NIH)

Kallman syndrome
AZYa and AZYb
AZYc
Klinefelter syndrome

A

Klinefelter

851
Q

Male presents with non-obstructive azoospermia (NOA), what is the best surgical procedure? (2021)

MESA
PESA
mTESE

A

mTESE

852
Q

What is more likely to be associated with abnormal male karyotype? (2011, 2013, 2014, 2017, 2018)

Oligospermia
0% morphology
Teratospermia
CBAVD
Low motility
Y chromosome micro-deletion (YCM)

A

Oligospermia

853
Q

What is more likely to be associated with abnormal male karyotype? (2011, 2012, 2023 NIH)

1% normal morphology
4 million sperm/mL
CBAVD
Low motility

A

4 million sperm/mL

854
Q

Which is most likely to be associated with chromosomal abnormality in a male? (2014, 2015)

0% normal forms (strict)
Morphology 4% or less
10% motile

A
855
Q

What is the most likely semen analysis defect associated with abnormal karyotype in man? (2014, 2018)

A

Oligospermia

856
Q

What is the most likely genetic defect in a male with azoospermia, low testosterone, high LH, and high FSH? (2014, 2015)

XX+XY
Yp11
Yq11
Yp15
SRY

A

Yq11 - AZF microdeletion

857
Q

What is the most common karyotype in a man with azoospermia and elevated FSH? (2009, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

AZFa or AZFb
47,XXY
AZFc
46,XY DSD

A

47,XXY

858
Q

What karyotype is most likely in azoospermia? (2012)

46,XY
46,XY, del(Yq11)

A

46,XY, del(Yq11)

*AZF microdeletion

859
Q

Which finding is associated with azoospermia? (2012, 2013, 2014, 2017, 2018)

AZFa and AZFb
AZFc

A

AZFa and AZFb

860
Q

A man presents with azoospermia. What gene deletion is he most likely to have? (2013, 2018)

AZFa or AZFb
DAX
FOXL2
AZFc

A

AZFa or AZFb

861
Q

What is an inactivating FSH receptor mutation most likely associated with? (2023 NIH)

Male hypogonadism
Normal sperm parameters
Normal female fertility

A

Male hypogonadism

862
Q

What is the effect of antisperm antibodies? (2013, 2018)

Sperm agglutination and infertility

A

Sperm agglutination and infertility

863
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a male with azoospermia, normal size testes, palpable vas, and FSH 5mIU/mL? (2019, 2021)

CBAVD
47,XXY
AZFa
Ejaculatory duct obstruction
Exogenous steroids
Gonadal failure
Testicular cancer

A

Ejaculatory duct obstruction

864
Q

What is least likely in a 47,XXY male? (2005, 2007, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Cryptorchid testis
Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism
Infertility
Oligospermia
Small testes
Delayed puberty*** per 2007, 2009, 2018, 2023 NIH

A

Delayed puberty

865
Q

An infertile couple presents. The male has isolated teratospermia and female with normal workup. What is the best recommendation for treatment? (2021)

Expectant management
Ovulation induction with IUI
Ovarian stimulation with conventional insemination
Ovarian stimulation with ICSI

A

Ovulation induction with IUI

866
Q

What is the most likely semen analysis defect with an abnormal male karyotype? (2023 NIH)

Abnormal morphology
Abnormal motility
Abnormal number

A

Abnormal number

867
Q

Which chromosome is the regulator of all androgen activity? (2023 NIH)

X
Y
11
13
18

A

X

868
Q

What most increases free testosterone? (2023 NIH)

SHBG
Total testosterone

A

SHBG

869
Q

What hormone change do you see in conjunction with decreased total testosterone in an aging man? (2018, 2023 NIH)

Increased free testosterone
Increased DHEAS
Decreased LH
Increased SHBG

A

Increased SHBG

870
Q

What is the most important determinant of testosterone production as men age? (2014)

Age
SHBG
Albumin
CBG

A

Age

871
Q

How do you obtain sperm from a man with a spinal cord injury? (2013, 2017, 2023 NIH)

MESA
TESA
Electroejaculation

A

Electroejaculation

872
Q

What is the most likely finding in a male with atrophic testes and hypergonadism? (2014, 2018)

Klinefelter syndrome

A

Klinefelter syndrome

873
Q

What is least likely in Klinefelter syndrome? (2007)

Cryptorchidism
Small testes
Low testosterone
Pubertal delay

A

Pubertal delay

874
Q

A man with Klinefelter syndrome undergoes testicular biopsy to obtain sperm for ICSI with his partner. What is the most likely karyotype of a resulting fetus? (2007)

Normal
47,XXY
47,XYY
46,XY
XY mosaic

A

Normal

875
Q

A patient is found to have a testicular volume of 5mL. What is the most likely deletion? (2023 NIH)

Y
X

A

X

876
Q

What is the most likely karyotype of a man with 5cc testicles, elevated LH, elevated FSH, and testosterone 150ng/dL? (2011, 2018, 2022)

A. 46,XX
B. 46,XY; del Yp
C. 46,XY; del Yq
D. 46,XY; del 15

A

C. 46,XY; del Yq

877
Q

A male is found to have a testosterone 117ng/dL, LH 3mIU/mL, FSH 4mIU/mL, azoospermia, and atrophied testes. What is the most likely etiology? (2014)

Microdeletion of Y chromosome
CBAVD
Fragile X
Kallmann Syndrome

A

Kallmann Syndrome

878
Q

What causes CGG repeat (alpha subunit) deficiency? (2014, 2018)

A

Fragile X

879
Q

What disorder is most associated with adult onset disease in males? (2012, 2014, 2015, 2018)

Sulfatase deficiency
Aromatase deficiency
Klinefelter syndrome
Fragile X

A

Fragile X

880
Q

A woman has a son who is affected by Fragile X. What will her father most likely experience as late onset disease? (2012, 2018)

A

Ataxia

881
Q

What is the most common mutation in men with CBAVD? (2017)

A

Point mutation

882
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil (Viagra)? (2015, 2016)

NO synthase inhibitor
Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

A

Phosphodiesterase inhibitor

883
Q

What side effect is sildenafil (Viagra) least likely to have? (2023 NIH)

Ptosis
Priapism
Colored vision (blue vision, cyanopsia)
Dyspepsia

A

Ptosis

884
Q

What other medication should men not take if they are using a phosphodiesterase inhibitor? (2017)

Nitroglycerin
SSRI
ASA

A

Nitroglycerin

885
Q

What is the chance of CBAVD in offspring of a delta F508 carrier father and 5T allele carrier mother? (2007, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2018)

100%
50%
25%
Depends on other factors

A

25%

886
Q

How do you counsel a couple about risks to offspring when the father is a delta F508 carrier and the mother is a 5T allele carrier? (2007, 2023 NIH)

A

They are not at increased risk for having a child with CF, but if they have a male, he is at increased risk of CBAVD

887
Q

A male patient with Kallman syndrome wants children. How do you induce spermatogenesis? (2012, 2015)

A

hCG followed by HMG

888
Q

A couple presents with a delta F508 heterozygous/carrier father and 5T allele heterozygous/carrier mother. How do you counsel them regarding male offspring? (2007)

100% chance of CBAVD
25% chance of CBAVD
100% chance of classic cystic fibrosis and CBAVD
If the male child has cystic fibrosis, 10% chance of CBAVD
If the male child has cystic fibrosis, 100% chance of CBAVD
If the male inherits 5T and delta F508 on same chromosome, then will have classic cystic fibrosis (pancreatic involvement/respiratory involvement)
25% chance of classic cystic fibrosis

A

25% chance of CBAVD

889
Q

What initiates spermatogenesis in a male with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)? (2023 NIH)

FSH
hCG
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
LH

A

hCG

890
Q

What mutation is found in a late onset hereditary condition in males with this disorder? (2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

FMR1
KAL1
KCNQ1

A

FMR1

891
Q

What is least likely to decrease in a man as he ages? (2011, 2012)

Insulin
Growth hormone
DHEAS
Androstenedione

A

Insulin

892
Q

Which mutation has a risk to male relatives later in life? (2011)

Angelman
Beckwith-Wiedemann
Kallman
Fragile X

A

Fragile X

893
Q

Semen volume is least affected by which of the following? (2011)

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)
Obstruction
CBAVD
Vasectomy

A

Vasectomy

894
Q

What is the most likely cause of erectile dysfunction if a man still achieves morning erections? (2007)

Depression
Diabetes
Spinal cord injury
Vascular disease
Psychogenic

A

Psychogenic

895
Q

An initial screening of the male partner of an infertile couple is indicated for which of the following? (2022)

If the man questions his reproductive potential
After 1yr of contemplating having children
After 1yr if his partner is >35yo
After 1yr if the couple is using birth control

A

If the man questions his reproductive potential

896
Q

What is true regarding the evaluation for retrograde ejaculation? (2022)

Is necessary if the man has CBAVD

Should be performed in men with azoospermia due to hypogonadism

Is indicated for all men with ejaculate volume <1mL

Consists of microscopic evaluation of centrifuged pellet of a post-ejaculate urine sample

A

Consists of microscopic evaluation of centrifuged pellet of a post-ejaculate urine sample***

897
Q

What is true regarding ultrasonography (US) of the male genital tract? (2022)

Can detect prostate cancer
Is performed as a part of the initial male evaluation for infertility

Can show if spermatogenesis is occurring within the testicle

Is indicated for men with azoospermia, normal vasa, and low volume ejaculate

Is never indicated in the evaluation of male infertility

A

Is indicated for men with azoospermia, normal vasa, and low volume ejaculate

898
Q

What is included in a thorough male infertility evaluation? (2022)

A physical exam by a specialist in male reproduction
Three semen analyses
Mandatory genetic testing
Scrotal ultrasound (US)

A

A physical exam by a specialist in male reproduction

899
Q

Men with azoospermia or severe oligospermia should have which of the following? (2022)

CFTR gene testing

Genetic counseling

A karyotype and Y chromosome microdeletion testing before IVF

Intact AZFc region

A

A karyotype and Y chromosome microdeletion testing before IVF

900
Q

When is sperm viability testing indicated? (2022)

Count <10million/mL

Most sperm are immotile

There are an increased number of round cells

Most sperm have abnormal morphology

There is excess sperm DNA fragmentation

A

Most sperm are immotile

901
Q

What semen analysis value is most likely to be associated with a chromosomal abnormality in male?
(2023 NIH)

Total motile sperm 1 million sperm/mL

Morphology 0% normal

A

Total motile sperm 1 million sperm/mL

902
Q

What is true regarding antisperm antibody testing? (2022)

Should be performed in men with azoospermia

Is best performed on serum

May be indicated in a man with a history of orchitis

Involves mixing the patient’s serum with his sperm

A

May be indicated in a man with a history of orchitis

903
Q

Patient instructions for semen analysis should include which of the following? (2022)

Cooling to room temperature after collection

Collection in a standard latex condom

Abstinence for no more than 24hr

Analysis within 1hr after collection

A

Analysis within 1hr after collection

904
Q

A 35yoM presents with azoospermia, a history of delayed puberty, sparse facial hair, erectile dysfunction, and small testes. Which test is most likely to reveal the cause of his infertility? (2022)

Antisperm antibody testing
Hormonal evaluation
CFTR genetic testing
Scrotal ultrasound (US)
Quantification of leukocytes in the semen

A

Hormonal evaluation

905
Q

Which is true of sperm DNA fragmentation testing? (2022)

Can measure the number of breaks in sperm DNA that can’t be repaired

Is indicated in the routine evaluation of all men with infertility

Tests for sperm damage due to improper lab storage

Is indicated in men with azoospermia

A

Can measure the number of breaks in sperm DNA that can’t be repaired

906
Q

Which is the most common sex chromosome disorder in men? (2022)

Kallmann syndrome
Myotonic dystrophy
Kartagener syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Noonan syndrome

A

Klinefelter syndrome

907
Q

Most men with CBAVD have which of the following? (2022)

Hypogonadism
CFTR gene mutations
Low testosterone levels
Decreased sperm production
Small testes

A

CFTR gene mutations

908
Q

Which of the following is a manifestation of Kallmann syndrome in men? (2022)

Increased FSH production
Azoospermia
Testicular dysgenesis
Normal spermatogenesis
Absent epididymis

A

Azoospermia

909
Q

Sertoli cell-only syndrome is manifested by which of the following? (2022)

Germ cell hyperplasia
Only occurs as a congenital disorder
Absence of germ cells
Presence of Sertoli cells outside of the seminiferous tubules
Lack of ability to smell

A

Absence of germ cells

910
Q

What is the best next treatment for a couple trying to conceive when the male partner is 15yr post vasectomy? (2005, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Vasectomy reversal
TESE
Vaso-vasotomy
MESA with ICSI
Percutaneous epididymal sperm extraction (PESA) and ICSI
Donor sperm

A

MESA with ICSI

911
Q

Which of the following is true regarding antisperm antibodies? (2022)

Are due to varicoceles
Result in hormone deficiencies
May result from testicular surgery
Cause FSH deficiency
Cause disruption of the blood-testis barrier

A

May result from testicular surgery

912
Q

Patients with Y chromosome microdeletions have which of the following? (2022)

An abnormality in the long arm of the Y chromosome
Are always azoospermic
Experience delayed puberty
Mental retardation

A

An abnormality in the long arm of the Y chromosome

913
Q

What is most true of patients with cryptorchidism? (2022)

Always have abnormal semen parameters
Are more likely infertile if both testicles are undescended
If full term, always have an identifiable cause of the condition
Usually have elevated LH levels
Have absent vas deferens

A

Are more likely infertile if both testicles are undescended

914
Q

Which of the following is usually a congenital cause of male infertility? (2022)

Anejaculation
Pituitary tumors
Erectile dysfunction
AIS

A

AIS

915
Q

A 32yoM with infertility is found to have azoospermia with a normal FSH. What is the most likely cause? (2022)

CBAVD
Kallmann syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Myotonic muscular dystrophy
Hypospermatogenesis

A

CBAVD

916
Q

Which of the following is true of varicoceles? (2022)

Always bilateral
Most common correctable cause of male infertility
Due to dilated veins in the pelvic plexus
Present in 25% of all men
Usually right sided

A

Most common correctable cause of male infertility

917
Q

What does the male reproductive tract develop from embryologically? (2022)

Mullerian ducts
Seminiferous tubules
Wolffian ducts
Corpus cavernosum

A

Wolffian ducts

918
Q

Which testicular cells produce testosterone? (2022)

Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Seminal vesicles
Rete testis

A

Seminiferous tubules

919
Q

What is the part of the sperm maturation process in which the round spermatids are engulfed by Sertoli cells and transformed into elongated spermatozoa with tails? (2022)

Spermatogenesis
Spermiogenesis
Spermiation
Mitosis

A

Spermiogenesis

920
Q

Which hormone regulates testosterone synthesis? (2022)

FSH
LH
GnRH
Inhibin

A

LH

920
Q

Sertoli cells perform which function? (2022)

Regulate testicular blood flow
Provide blood-testis barrier
Synthesize testosterone
Fluid absorption

A

Provide blood-testis barrier

921
Q

What is the predominant regulator of penile erection? (2022)

Blood flow
Testosterone
Vas deferens
cAMP
Hypogastric nerve

A

Blood flow

922
Q

What accessory sex gland aids in semen liquefaction? (2022)

Seminal vesicle
Prostate gland
Bulbourethral gland
Epididymis

A

Prostate gland

923
Q

What is the site of sperm maturation, concentration, and storage? (2022)

Epididymis
Vas deferens
Seminiferous tubules
Seminal vesicle

A

Epididymis

924
Q

Which sperm structure provides enzymes for penetrating the oocyte? (2022)

Midpiece mitochondria
Acrosome
Cytoplasmic droplet
Centrioles

A

Acrosome

925
Q

What percent of couples with infertility have a male factor component? (2022)

10%
25%
33%
50%
75%

A

50%

926
Q

What is the proposed mechanism for varicoceles being associated with male infertility? (2022)

Reflex of toxic metabolites to the testes from the renal vein

Disruption of the countercurrent heat exchange of the testes preventing cooling

Stagnation of the blood in the testes, leading to the build up of toxic waste

Hypoxia of the testes due to decreased blood flow

A

Disruption of the countercurrent heat exchange of the testes preventing cooling

927
Q

What is the average length of time to improvement following varicocele repair and why? (2022)

2wk due to post-operative swelling

2mo due to transient decrease in testis function

3mo due to the length of the spermatogenic cycle

4mo due to the time required for full healing

6mo due to the length of the spermatogenic cycle

A

3mo due to the length of the spermatogenic cycle

928
Q

Which of the following is the best predictor of success for vasectomy reversal? (2022)

More than 10yr since vasectomy
Female partner age <35yr
Method of vasectomy
Shorter testicular vasal remnant

A

Female partner age <35yr

929
Q

A couple presents to discuss fertility options after a vasectomy. The vasectomy was performed 8yr ago. Prior to this, the patient had conceived two children with his previous wife. He is now remarried to a 32yoF who has never been pregnant. Which of the following would preclude the performance of a vasectomy reversal? (2022)

Female partner with irregular cycles, felt to have PCOS
Patient had a post-operative infection
The couple only wants one child
Female partner had a previous tubal ligation
None of the above are contraindications for vasectomy reversal

A

Female partner had a previous tubal ligation

930
Q

Which of the following statements regarding men with non-obstructive azoospermia (NOA) is true? (2022)

Sperm may be obtained from the testes, even if a previous biopsy does not show mature sperm

A markedly elevated FSH means that no sperm will be retrieved

Percutaneous epididymal sperm aspiration (PESA) is a highly successful procedure in this patient population

If sperm are obtained, they typically will not fertilize an egg, even with ICSI

A

Sperm may be obtained from the testes, even if a previous biopsy does not show mature sperm

931
Q

A 28yoM comes in for evaluation for male factor infertility. His history and physical exam are normal. His semen analysis demonstrates oligospermia and his hormonal parameters are all normal except for a mildly decreased testosterone level. Which one of the following treatment options is the most reasonable? (2022)

Testosterone replacement therapy with either injectable or topical testosterone preparation

Scrotal ultrasound (US) to identify subclinical varicoceles with subsequent varicocele repair

Injection of hMG or other FSH-like medication

Scrotal exploration to identify subclinical obstruction

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) administration to increase endogenous testosterone production

A

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) administration to increase endogenous testosterone production

932
Q

Which one of the following patients is most likely to respond to hCG/hMG injection? (2022)

25yoM with Kallmann syndrome
28yoM with large grade 3 varicocele and normal hormones
35yoM currently with substance abuse including marijuana and cocaine use on a daily basis
30yoM who is morbidly obese with metabolic syndrome

A

25 yo M with Kallmann syndrome

933
Q

Which one of the following describes a significant mechanism of injury to a male’s fertility secondary to testicular cancer? (2022)

Cancer decreases sexual desire which leads to decreased fertility

Loss of 10% of testicular tissue due to orchiectomy

Damage due to adjuvant treatments (chemotherapy or radiation)

Damage to the autonomic nerve trunk during lymph node dissection

Changes in sperm DNA

A

Damage due to adjuvant treatments (chemotherapy or radiation)

934
Q

A 22yo single male presents with 3wk of painless left testicular swelling. An ultrasound (US) demonstrates a solid mass suspicious for testicular neoplasm. What is the most appropriate next step? (2022)

Sperm banking
Testosterone injection
Antibiotics for 2-3wk
Percutaneous scrotal biopsy of mass
Reassurance

A

Sperm banking

935
Q

Cystic fibrosis is commonly associated with which of the following? (1999)

CBAVD
Testicular atrophy
Oligospermia

A

CBAVD

936
Q

Which of the following is an indication for testicular biopsy? (1999)

Azoospermia with absence of fructose in semen
Oligospermia with FSH 2mIU/mL
Oligospermia with prolactin 110ng/mL
Azoospermia with FSH 7.5mIU/mL

A

Azoospermia with FSH 7.5mIU/mL

937
Q

An alcoholic man presents with gynecomastia. What is the cause of his gynecomastia? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Decrease free estradiol/free testosterone production

Decrease SHBG production

Increase binding of estradiol to SHBG
Increase liver conjugation of estradiol to estrone glucuronide

Decrease in renal clearance of estradiol

An alcoholic man presents with gynecomastia? What is the cause of his gynecomastia? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Low testosterone
High testosterone
Low SHBG
High SHBG
Low estrogen

A

Decrease SHBG production

938
Q

ICSI is most likely to be successful with what mutation? (2017, 2020, 2022, 2023 NIH)

AZFa
AZFb
AZFc
CFTR
47,XXY
SRY

A

AZFc or CFTR

939
Q

What mutation can’t be treated by ICSI? (2012, 2018)

AZFa/AZFb
AZFc
CFTR
47,XXY
SRY

A

AZFa/AZFb

940
Q

Which is least likely to cause decreased libido in older men? (2003)

Decreased testosterone
Increased incidence of chronic diseases
Others

A

Others

941
Q

Which of the following is the least useful test for oligospermia? (2003)

LH
Testosterone
Testicular biopsy
Prolactin
Seminal fructose

A

seminal fructose

942
Q

Which of the following is the best way to differentiate CBAVD from spermatogenic arrest? (2003)

LH
Karyotype
Inhibin
Seminal fructose
Post-ejaculatory examination of the urine

How do you differentiate between germ cell arrest and cystic fibrosis? (2005, 2010, 2023 NIH)

A

Seminal fructose

943
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome least characterized by? (2003)

Small testes
Low testosterone
Low estrogen
Others

A

Low estrogen

944
Q

What is an activating LH receptor mutation most likely associated with? (2023 NIH)

Precocious puberty
Decreased FSH
Azoospermia

A

Precocious puberty

945
Q

What initiates spermatogenesis? (2005, 2023 NIH)

Testosterone and FSH
Testosterone and LH
Testosterone

A

Testosterone and LH

946
Q

What is the risk of a karyotype abnormality in a fetus conceived by ICSI whose father has severe oligospermia? (2003, 2005, 2014, 2023 NIH)

10-11%
6-7%
2-4%

A

6-7%

947
Q

Vasodilatory treatment helps erectile dysfunction except in which of the following? (2005, 2023 NIH)

Spinal cord injury
Peripheral neuropathy
Peripheral vasculopathy
Psychologic

A

Peripheral vasculopathy

948
Q

A man presents with normal testicular volume, normal FSH, palpable vas deferens, and azoospermia. What is the most likely cause? (2023 NIH)

A

Idiopathic, normal karyotype

949
Q

How do you treat persistent teratospermia? (2023 NIH)

DNA fragmentation analysis
Controlled ovarian hyperstimulation with IUI
Repeat semen analysis
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
ICSI

A

DNA fragmentation analysis

950
Q

What is the primary feedback on the hypothalamus with regards to testicular androgens? (2023 NIH)

Testosterone
Estradiol
DHT
Inhibin A

A

Testosterone

951
Q

25yo w/ azoospermia T1200ng, FSH and LH undetectable, PRL and TSH normal. Most common cause? (2019)

Testosterone-secreting tumor
Cannabis use
Steroid abuse
Smoking

A

Steroid abuse

952
Q

What is an absolute contraindication to initiation of testosterone therapy in a hypogonadal male? (2021, 2023 NIH)

PSA 2.5ng/mL
Hct 45%
Breast cancer
Obesity
CHF Class 1

A

Breast cancer

953
Q

What is absolutely contraindicated for men with breast cancer? (2018)

A

Testosterone therapy

954
Q

What is the next step for a patient with unexplained infertility after three unsuccessful clomiphene citrate (Clomid)/IUI cycles? (2021)

Continue clomiphene citrate (Clomid)/IUI
Letrozole/IUI
Gonadotropins/IUI
IVF

A

IVF

955
Q

How does tamoxifen work as an ovulation induction agent? (2021)

At the adipocyte level
Interrupting HPO axis feedback

A

Interrupting HPO axis feedback

956
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clomiphene citrate (Clomid) in anovulatory women? (2021)

Increasing GnRH pulse amplitude
Increasing GnRH pulse frequency
Decreasing GnRH pulse amplitude
Decreasing GnRH pulse frequency

A

Increasing GnRH pulse amplitude

*increases pulse frequency in already ovulatory women

957
Q

What is the mechanism of action of clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (2015)

Increased estrogen synthesis in the ovary
Decreased GnRH pulse amplitude
Increased GnRH pulse frequency
Increased LH pulse amplitude

A

Increased GnRH pulse frequency

*increases amplitude in anovulatory women

958
Q

Aromatase inhibitors lead to ovulation by what mechanism? (2021)

Inhibition of negative feedback on the HPO axis

Decreased aromatization at the level of the adipocytes (this is true but I find it hard to believe it leads to ovulation mostly from action at fat cells)

Inhibition of the estrogen receptor (ER) at the level of the hypothalamus

Inhibition of the estrogen receptor (ER) at the level of the pituitary

A

Inhibition of negative feedback on the HPO axis

959
Q

What is the first step for ovulation induction in a patient with PCOS, BMI 40kg/m2, and oligomenorrhea? (2020)

Weight loss
Gonadotropins
Ovarian drilling

A

Weight loss

960
Q

What is the difference between follitropin alpha and beta? (2019)

A

Follitropin beta is more potent

961
Q

An infertile male is found to have a moderate varicocele. What is true? (2023 NIH)

Improved fertility with correction

Venous reflux leads to testicular dysfunction

Uncommon finding

Unilateral varicocele is super common

Oligospermia then that is enough of an indication to correct surgically

A

Oligospermia then that is enough of an indication to correct surgically

962
Q

A 32yoF with 1yr of infertility, normal semen analysis, and mild endometriosis. What is the next step? (2014, 2018)

SOH/IUI
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)/IUI
Repeat l/s

A

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)/IUI

963
Q

What is the best treatment to induce ovulation in PCOS with a normal BMI? (2009, 2010, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Metformin
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) and metformin
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
Letrozole

A

Letrozole

964
Q

A 24yoF with anovulation (or oligo-ovulation) and a BMI 25kg/m2 presents for infertility. Her workup is negative. What medication would you use for ovulation induction? (2016)

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
Letrozole
Gonadotropins
No medications

A

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)

965
Q

What is the most cost effective for ovulation induction and IUI in unexplained infertility? (2007)

IUI x2
IUI x1
ICI with IUI
ICI x2

A

IUI x 1

966
Q

Which of the following accounts for clomiphene citrate’s (Clomid) less than expected rate of pregnancy per ovulation? (1999)

Decreased endometrial receptivity
Others

A

Decreased endometrial receptivity

967
Q

What is the conception rate of a patient with idiopathic anovulation treated with clomiphene citrate (Clomid)? (2005, 2023 NIH)

15%
45-50%
Others

A

15%

968
Q

A 30yoF with a religious objection to IVF is found to have phimosis on laparoscopy. What treatment will provide the best chance of pregnancy? (2012, 2018)

GIFT
Salpingectomy
Tubal cannulation
Fimbrioplasty

A

GIFT

969
Q

How many oocytes do you implant in GIFT? (2022)

One in each tube
Two in each tube
One in one tube, one in the other tube

A

One in one tube, one in the other tube

970
Q

What is the highest risk factor for OHSS? (2018, 2020, 2022)

PCOS
AMH >3ng/mL
AFC 18
BMI 40kg/m2

A

PCOS

971
Q

What is most predictive of OHSS? (2009)

Day 3 FSH
AFC
Day 3 E2
Day 3 Inhibin
Other

A

AFC

972
Q

What medications may be necessary in OHSS? (2018)

IV hydration (normal saline, possibly albumin)

Anticoagulation

A

Both may be necessary

973
Q

What is the most likely cause of OHSS? (2023 NIH)

hCG excess
High peak E2
VEGF

A

VEGF

974
Q

What procedures may be necessary in OHSS? (2018)

Paracentesis
Thoracocentesis

A

Paracentesis

975
Q

What electrolyte abnormality is most commonly seen in OHSS? (1999, 2003, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2018, 2022, 2023 NIH)

Hyponatremia
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia
Hypocalcemia

A

Hyponatremia

976
Q

What is ICSI most indicated for? (2010, 2011, 2018, 2019, 2021, 2023 NIH)

Unexplained infertility with prior failed IVF

PGT-A

PGT-M

Elevated sperm DNA fragmentation

AMA (Maternal age of 40yo)

Strict morphology <4%

Low oocyte number

A

PGT-M

977
Q

Which of the following is not an indication for ICSI? (2018, 2023 NIH)

Morphology <4%
Prior failed IVF
Maternal age >40yo
<4 oocytes

A

Maternal age >40yo

978
Q

What is the most important reason to do ICSI? (2011, 2023 NIH)

PGT-A
PGT-M
Low morphology
Unexplained infertility

A

PGT-M

979
Q

What is an indication for ICSI? (2015, 2016, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Low oocyte yield
Unexplained infertility with failed IVF previously
PGT-A
PGT-M for cystic fibrosis

A

PGT-M for cystic fibrosis

980
Q

What is least likely to matter to do ICSI? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Morphology <4%
PGT-M
Oligospermia

A

Oligospermia

981
Q

Which of the following is the best indication for ICSI? (2003, 2010)

Klinefelter syndrome
Radiation and chemotherapy for Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Klinefelter

982
Q

What is the best/most likely reason to do ICSI? (2023 NIH)

Thawed oocytes
Unexplained infertility with history of IVF
AMA (Maternal age of 40yo)
Low oocyte yield

A

Thawed oocytes

983
Q

What is associated most with low sperm morphology? (2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Low fertilization with ICSI
Low fertilization with IVF

A

Low fertilization with IVF

984
Q

What is the most important determinant of fertilization with ICSI? (2007, 2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Culture media
Injection technique
Sperm media
Number of oocytes
Age
Method of specimen collection

A

Injection technique

985
Q

What would make you do ICSI? (2023 NIH)

Prolactinoma
Hypothyroidism
High FSH
Low FSH
Testosterone

A

High FSH

986
Q

Who is the best candidate for freeze all with subsequent FET? (2021)

E2 >3000pg/mL
AMH 2.0ng/dL
15 oocytes retrieved
AFC 25

A

E2 >3000pg/mL

987
Q

What is the most common imprinting syndrome associated with IVF? (2013, 2014, 2017, 2019, 2021)

Beckwith- Wiedemann
Prader Willi
Retinoblastoma
Maternal hypermethylation
Angelman

A

Beckwith- Wiedemann

988
Q

What is the least common imprinting syndrome associated with IVF/ICSI? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Beckwith-Wiedemann
Prader Willi
Retinoblastoma
Maternal hypermethylation
Angelman

A

Prader Willi

989
Q

FET cycle is more likely to be associated with increased risk of following compared to fresh transfer? (2021)

Preterm labor
Small for gestational age
Preeclampsia
Birth defects

A

Preeclampsia

990
Q

What is the most effective way to reduce risk of OHSS? (2019, 2021)

Leuprolide acetate (Lupron) trigger
Reduced dosing
Cabergoline

A patient undergoing IVF with a GnRH antagonist protocol is a high responder. What is the most effective way to reduce the risk of OHSS? (2013)

Single embryo transfer
Dopamine agonist
GnRH agonist trigger

A

Leuprolide acetate (Lupron) trigger

GnRH agonist trigger

991
Q

Which of the following would be the best reason to cancel a patient for a fresh embryo transfer after ovarian stimulation? (2021)

Progesterone 1.5ng/mL
Known endometrial polyp
E2 5000pg/mL

A

E2 5000pg/mL

992
Q

What has led to the most improvement in pregnancy rates (implantation) following embryo transfer? (2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2021, 2023 NIH)

Use of soft-tipped catheter
PGT-A
Assisted hatching
Embryo glue
Progesterone supplementation during luteal phase and early pregnancy

What has led to the most improvement in pregnancy rates (implantation) following embryo transfer? (2009)

Use of soft-tipped catheter
Ultrasound (US) guidance
Volume of fluid in the catheter
Distance from the fundus

A

Use of soft-tipped catheter

US guidance

993
Q

What is least important for pregnancy rates (implantation) following an embryo transfer? (2009, 2023 NIH)

Use of a soft-tipped catheter
Ultrasound (US) guidance
Distance from the fundus
Uterine contractions
Blood in catheter
Embryo culture media

A

Blood in catheter

994
Q

What is the least likely to impact pregnancy rates (implantation) following an embryo transfer? (2007)

Ultrasound (US) guidance
Retained embryo
Uterine size
Blood in catheter

A

Retained embryo

995
Q

When is the least appropriate time to initiate progesterone supplementation? (2014)

Intramuscular injection on day of trigger
Vaginal suppository on day prior to retrieval
Intramuscular injection day after trigger
Vaginal suppository on day of retrieval

A

Intramuscular injection on day of trigger

996
Q

What is the best predictor of ovarian response to gonadotropins in a woman with PCOS? (2021)

AMH
Day 3 FSH
AFC
Inhibin B

A

AFC

997
Q

What is the least predictive of implantation? (2007, 2009, 2023 NIH)

Early cleavage
Cell number
Fragmentation
Number of embryos
Symmetry
Vacuolization

A

Vacuolization

998
Q

What is the biggest advantage to an antagonist stimulation cycle compared to a GnRH agonist downregulation cycle? (2021)

A

Decreased OHSS risk

999
Q

Where does a GnRH agonist work? (2012, 2018)

Binding to the pituitary receptors
Binding to the hypothalamic receptors
Binding to the ovarian receptors
Binding to the adrenal receptors

A

Binding to the pituitary receptors

1000
Q

What is the GnRH agonist protocol most associated with? (2015)

Decreased OHSS
Decreased dose of FSH during stim
Increased pregnancy rates
Decreased need for luteal support

A

Decreased need for luteal support

1001
Q

How do GnRH antagonists work? (2015)

Competitive inhibition
Prevent dimerization of receptor
Others

A

Competitive inhibition

1002
Q

What is the mechanism of GnRH agonists? (2005, 2009, 2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Downregulation of hypothalamic receptors
Downregulation of ovarian receptors
Depletion of pituitary receptors
Competitive inhibition of pituitary receptors
Immediate internalization of receptor

A

Depletion of pituitary receptors

1003
Q

What is the mechanism of GnRH antagonists? (2014, 2015)

Downregulation of hypothalamic receptors
Downregulation of ovarian receptors
Depletion of pituitary receptors
Competitive inhibition of pituitary receptors
Immediate internalization of receptor

A

Competitive inhibition of pituitary receptors

1004
Q

The most common reason for monozygotic twinning related to IVF is a splitting event that occurs from which of the following? (2021)

2PN
8 cell blastomere
Inner cell mass (ICM)
Trophectoderm

A

ICM

1005
Q

When is best time for biopsy if the father has cystic fibrosis? (2023 NIH)

8 cell embryo
Blastocyst
Morula
1st polar body, then 2nd polar body

A

Blastocyst

1006
Q

What O2 tension in embryology is best? (2021)

5%
10%
15%
20%

A

5%

1007
Q

PGT is most likely to do which of the following? (2020)

Increase cumulative live birth rate
Increase SIR per embryo transfer
Others

A

Increase sustained implantation rate per embryo transfer

1008
Q

What is the best choice of trigger for a patient on GnRH antagonist protocol and whose E2 6000pg/mL? (2016, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2023 NIH)

Leuprolide acetate (Lupron) 1mg
hCG

Dual/Co-trigger with leuprolide acetate (Lupron) and 1500 hCG

hCG and cabergoline

Coast for a few days

A

Lupron only trigger (if correct dosing listed)

1009
Q

A couple goes through IVF and 2PNs develop but none progress to the cleavage stage. Why would a 2PN not progress? (2013, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2023 NIH)

Failure to release 2nd polar body
Failure to have cortical granule reaction
Thickened zona pellucida
Failure of paternal genome to activate
Abnormal sperm

A

Failure of paternal genome to activate

1010
Q

A couple goes through IVF and 2PNs develop but none progress to the cleavage stage. Why would a 2PN not progress? (2013)

A

Decreased oocyte quality

1011
Q

What is the least likely cause of this (image of poly-fertilization with three nuclei) in IVF? (2013, 2015, 2016)

Digeny
Polyspermy
ICSI
Poor oocyte quality
Post-mature oocyte MII

A

ICSI

1012
Q

What is the most likely cause of 3PN? (2023 NIH)

Perivitelline space debris
Teratospermia
Post-mature oocyte
Thickened zona pellucida

A

Post-mature oocyte

1013
Q

What is the least likely to cause 3PN during IVF? (2013, 2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

Polyspermy
ICSI
Post-mature oocyte
Oocyte quality
Digeny
Regular IVF

A

ICSI

1014
Q

What is the least likely predictor of poor response to ovarian stimulation? (2011, 2013)

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) challenge test (CCCT)
FSH
AMH
AFC
Inhibin

A

Inhibin

1015
Q

What is the most likely predictor of a good response to ovarian stimulation? (2012, 2013, 2014, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Day 3 FSH
Prior response to stimulation/Prior cycle response
Inhibin A
Inhibin B

A

Prior response to stimulation/Prior cycle response

1016
Q

Measurement of which of the following on cycle day 3 is most predictive of the number of oocytes that will be retrieved? (2007, 2023 NIH)

FSH
LH
AMH
AFC

A

AFC

1017
Q

What is the worst test for IVF predictive response? (2023 NIH)

Inhibin B

A

Inhibin B

1018
Q

What is the best predictor of IVF response? (2023 NIH)

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) challenge test (CCCT)
FSH
AMH
Prior IVF response

A

Prior IVF response

1019
Q

What is most predictive of IVF outcomes in a specific IVF cycle? (2007)

Day 3 FSH*
AFC
*
Day 3 estradiol
Day 3 inhibin

A
1020
Q

What is most predictive of IVF outcomes in a specific IVF cycle? (2007)

Day 3 FSH
AFC
Day 3 estradiol
Day 3 inhibin

A

AFC

1021
Q

What are cleavage stage (day 3) embryos less likely to have compared to blastocysts? (2012, 2013, 2018, 2020, 2023 NIH)

Monozygotic twinning
Live birth
Ectopic pregnancy

A

Monozygotic twinning

1022
Q

What was the most common malignancy associated with IVF? (2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2023 NIH)

Borderline
Breast cancer
In situ breast cancer
Ovarian cancer

What is increased in patients who have had IVF compared to patients who didn’t have IVF? (2012, 2018)

Borderline ovarian tumors
Invasive ovarian carcinoma
Invasive breast cancer
DCIS
Low malignant potential (LMP) tumor

A

Borderline

1023
Q

A patient who previously had RPL is diagnosed with a DVT in pregnancy. What is the most likely etiology for all of these issues? (2010)

A

APLS

1024
Q

What is the best predictor of ovarian response to gonadotropins in a woman with PCOS? (2021)

AMH
Day 3 FSH
AFC
Inhibin B

A

AMH

1025
Q

How do you prevent OHSS in a patient who is obese with PCOS and has a midcycle E2 6000pg/mL? (2018, 2023 NIH)

Metformin
GnRH antagonist
Letrozole
Albumin

A

Metformin vs letrozole

1026
Q

What is the best time for the fertilization check? (2015)

4hr after
12hr after
18hr after
24hr after

A

18 hours after

1027
Q

In what way is rFSH is most like FSH? (What is most likely to be similar between recombinant versus endogenous gonadotropins?) (2003, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Amino acid sequence/structure/bioactivity
Post-translational modifications
Glycosylation
Carboxy content
Similar presence of urinary contaminants

A

Amino acid sequence/structure/bioactivity

1028
Q

What is the difference between follitropin-alpha (Follistim) and follitropin-beta (Puregon)? (2023 NIH)

Structurally different
Difference in glycosylation
Difference at the 6th amino acid
CHO vs. HELA cells

A

Difference in glycosylation

1029
Q

What is the treatment for a patient with low/normal FSH and low LH? (2023 NIH)

Menotropins (Repronex)
FSH (Follistim)

A

Menotropins

1030
Q

PGT is most indicated for which of the following? (2014, 2018)

Age
Balanced translocation
RPL
Implantation failure

A

Balanced translocation

1031
Q

What is the primary energy source for blastocysts? (2005, 2011, 2012, 2018)

Pyruvate
Non-essential amino acids
Glucose
Cholesterol

A

Glucose

1032
Q

What is the least responsible for OHSS? (2007, 2011, 2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

rFSH
uFSH
u-hCG
r-hCG
rLH

Use of which of the following would decrease the risk of OHSS? (2007, 009)
rFSH
uFSH
u-hCG
r-hCG
rLH

A

rLH

1033
Q

What is the biggest impact on reduction of multiple rates in the United States? (2009, 2018, 2023 ASRM)

Single day 3 embryo transfer
Single blastocyst transfer
Mandated insurance
SART/CDC registry

What is the biggest impact on reduction of multiple rates in the United states? (2011, 2023 ASRM)

Single day 3 embryo transfer
ASRM guidelines
Mandated insurance
SART/CDC registry/reporting

A

Single blastocyst transfer

ASRM guidelines

1034
Q

What is the least important factor in deciding on the number of embryos to transfer? (2007, 2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Maternal age
Number of prior cycles
Number of surplus embryos left to freeze
Day 3 FSH
Embryo morphology
Embryo grading

A

Day 3 FSH

1035
Q

What is a benefit of using GnRH antagonists in IVF? (2015)

Decreased OHSS risk
Less total gonadotropin used
Others

A

Both

1036
Q

What is the best reason to use a GnRH antagonist in IVF? (2014)

Reduced risk of OHSS
Reduced need for luteal support
Improved implantation rates
Improved pregnancy rates

A

Reduced risk of OHSS

1037
Q

What is the best prognosticator of risk for OHSS? (2015)

AFC
Age
AMH
FSH

A

AMH

1038
Q

A 38yoF with an AMH 0.4ng/mL and AFC of 5 presents. What is the best treatment? (2014, 2023 NIH)

IVF with donor oocytes
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
IVF with autologous oocytes

A

IVF with donor oocytes

1039
Q

A 46,XY woman presents. What IVF treatment will benefit her the most? (2012)

Gestational carrier
Sperm donor
Oocyte donor

A

Oocyte donor

1040
Q

What is most advantageous about using a GnRH antagonist cycle? (2012)

Better IR
Better PR
No need for luteal support
Can use a leuprolide acetate (Lupron) trigger

A

Can use a leuprolide acetate (Lupron) trigger

1041
Q

What has the highest increased risk of imprinting disorders? (2011, 2012)

Culture to day 3
Blastocyst culture
Embryo culture
Oocyte maturation
Gonadotropins
Sperm something

A

Blastocyst and embryo culture

1042
Q

What are imprinting disorders most related to in IVF? (2011)

Time of in vitro embryo culture
Blastocyst culture
Ovarian stimulation
Infertility

A

Blastocyst culture

1043
Q

What has IVF increased the risk of the most? (2007, 2012, 2023 NIH)

Chromosomal abnormality
Low birth weight in singletons
Male to female sex ratio
Congenital abnormality
Imprinting disorder

A

Low birth weight in singletons

1044
Q

What is the most common bad outcome in an IVF singleton pregnancy? (2023 NIH)

Chromosomal abnormality
Preterm birth
Low birth weight in singletons
Male to sex ratio
Congenital abnormality
Imprinting disorder

A

Preterm birth
Low birth weight in singletons

1045
Q

What is the most important factor in the success of a fresh transfer donor cycle? (1999, 2007, 2010, 2011)

Estrogen duration
Estrogen timing
Progesterone duration
Progesterone timing
Age of the recipient

A

Progesterone timing

1046
Q

What is true when counseling about the potential effects of ICSI with respect to offspring? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Increased risk of anomalies of X and Y

Increased risk of congenital abnormalities of autosomes

Can be attributed to ovarian stimulation, not ICSI itself

Congenital abnormalities can be attributable to epigenetic modifications

A

Congenital abnormalities can be attributable to epigenetic modifications

1047
Q

What is ICSI associated with increased risk of? (2011)

C-section
Post-term pregnancy
Sex chromosome abnormalities
Other types of chromosomal disorders also listed

A

Sex chromosome abnormalities

1048
Q

What is the least reliable test for ovarian reserve? (2007, 2011)

Day 3 FSH
AFC
Inhibin
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) challenge test (CCCT)

A

Inhibin

1049
Q

What is the most likely chromosomal make-up of offspring after ICSI is used for a 47,XXY male and 46,XX female? (2009, 2010, 2023 NIH)

45,X
46,XY
46,XX
47,XXY
47,XYY

A

46,XY
46,XX

(Normal)

1050
Q

Which substrate is most important in extended culture media? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Addition of glucose and essential amino acids

Some amino acid

A

Addition of glucose and essential amino acids

1051
Q

What criteria is least important when deciding to perform assisted hatching? (2007, 2010, 2023 NIH)

> 37yo
Thickened zona
Repeated IVF failures
Unexplained infertility

A

Unexplained infertility

1052
Q

What is the least likely to improve results in IVF? (2003)

Antibiotics in the culture media
Preculture of sperm in yolk-rich media
Percoll gradient
Swim-up

A

Antibiotics in the culture media

1053
Q

What is most likely semen analysis abnormality associated with failed fertilization in IVF? (2023 NIH)

Abnormal morphology
Abnormal motility
Abnormal number

A

Abnormal morphology

1054
Q

A couple undergoes IVF twice with failed fertilization. What is the next most appropriate step? (1999, 2003)

hMG with IUI
ICSI
Others

A

ICSI

1055
Q

Measurement of which of the following on day 3 of the menstrual cycle is most predictive of response to gonadotropin stimulation? (1999)

Estradiol
FSH
Inhibin B
LH
Activin

A

FSH

1056
Q

What is the most important factor to embryo viability with cryopreservation? (1999)

Time taken to thaw
Time taken to freeze
Maternal age
Paternal age

A

Maternal age

1057
Q

The most success with cryopreservation has come from the use of which of the following? (1999)

Oocytes
Ovarian slices
Cleavage stage embryos
Blastocyst
Morula

A

Blastocyst

1058
Q

What are the preferred energy sources for blastocysts? (2005, 2007)

Lactate
Pyruvate and nonessential amino acids
Glucose and essential amino acids

A

Glucose and essential amino acids

1059
Q

What are the preferred energy sources for pre-compaction embryos? (2005, 2007)

Lactate
Pyruvate and nonessential amino acids
Glucose and essential amino acids

A

Pyruvate and nonessential amino acids

1060
Q

What is least likely to be true in a blastocyst? (2003)

Inner cell mass (ICM) is rapidly dividing
Cells in the inner cell mass (ICM) undergo apoptosis
Inner cell mass (ICM) secretes hCG

A

Inner cell mass (ICM) secretes hCG

1061
Q

What is the purpose of cryoprotectants? (1999, 2003, 2010)

Preventing formation of cytoplasmic ice crystals
Preventing disruption of the cell membrane
Others

A

Preventing formation of cytoplasmic ice crystals

1062
Q

Which of the following findings is most predictive of ART failure in a 31yoF? (2003)

Day 3 FSH 8.7mIU/mL, day 3 estradiol 75pg/ml
Day 3 estradiol 45pg/mL
Day 3 inhibin 180pg/mL
Day 9 FSH 9mIU/mL after five days of clomiphene citrate (Clomid) 100mg/day

A

Day 3 FSH 8.7mIU/mL, day 3 estradiol 75pg/ml

1063
Q

What is the best predictor of successful pregnancy in a 39yoF undergoing IVF? (2005)

Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) challenge test (CCCT)
Day 3 FSH
FSH:E2 ratio

A

Day 3 FSH

1064
Q

A woman undergoing IVF is incidentally found to have a positive anticardiolipin antibody. What is indicated? (2023 NIH)

Heparin
Luteal phase progesterone
Nothing

A

Nothing

1065
Q

What infectious disease screening do you need to do for anonymous oocyte donors? (2013, 2014, 2015, 2016)

Hepatitis B core antibody
Hepatitis B surface antigen
HIV antibody
Hepatitis C nucleic acid antibody
HSV
T. cruzi

A

All except HSV, T cruzi

1066
Q

What screening do you need to do for anonymous oocyte donors (2015, 2017, 2018)

T. palladium
CMV
HTLV1
West Nile virus

A

T. palladium
West Nile Virus

1067
Q

What do you not need to do for anonymous oocyte donor screening? (2022)

A

HTLV

1068
Q

What virology is not needed for an intimate partner? (2023 NIH)

A

HSV1 and HSV2

1069
Q

Patient with new diagnosis of breast cancer and wants to pursue fertility preservation with oocyte cryopreservation. What is the most important factor in considering which stimulation protocol to use? (2021)

Tumor receptor status
Current status within the menstrual cycle
Specific histologic/pathologic breast cancer diagnosis
BRCA1 status

A

Specific histologic/pathologic breast cancer diagnosis

1070
Q

Who is eligible for leuprolide acetate (Lupron) protection of ovaries? (2021)

7yo with cancer
15yo with cancer
28yo with cancer
33yo with cancer

A

28yo with cancer

1071
Q

A patient with breast cancer needs fertility preservation right away, how do you stimulate? (2021)

A

Letrozole and random start

1072
Q

What is least affected in oocyte cryopreservation? (2012, 2013, 2014, 2018)

Zona pellucida
Cortical reaction
Cortical granules
Mitotic spindle
Cytoskeleton
Mitochondria

What cellular structure is most resistant to damage with cryopreservation? (2023 NIH)

Zona pellucida
Cortical granule
Spindle
Mitochondria

A

Mitochondria

1073
Q

What cryopreservatives are used for 2PN embryos? (2005, 2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Glycerol
Glycine
Pyruvate-free
DMSO
Propanediol

A

DMSO
Propanediol

1074
Q

Which chemotherapy has the most toxic effect on the ovaries/oocytes? (2012, 2023 NIH)

Anthracyclines
Antimetabolites
Vinca alkaloids
Alkylating agents

A

Alkylating agents

1075
Q

What tumor is most likely to produce ectopic hCG as a tumor marker? (2007, 2011, 2023 NIH)

Ovary
Liver
Brain
Breast
Lung

A

Ovary

1076
Q

Malignancy/Cancer in which organ is most likely to cause ectopic erythropoietin production? (2009)

Lung
Ovary
Liver
Kidney

A

Kidney

1077
Q

What is the best method to conserve a 35yoF’s fertility before cyclophosphamide? (2007, 2019, 2023 NIH)

GnRH agonist
OCPs
Embryo cryopreservation
Ovarian tissue cryopreservation

A

Embryo cryopreservation

1078
Q

What is the most common finding in RPL evaluations? (2022)

Cytogenetics
Uterine anomaly
APLS

A

Uterine anomaly

1079
Q

What is the most common finding in a spontaneous abortion? (2022)

Aneuploidy of POCs

A

Aneuploidy of POCs

1080
Q

What uterine anomaly is most related to spontaneous abortions? (2023 NIH)

Septate
Bicornuate
Didelphys
Arcuate

A

Septate

1081
Q

What is the estimated incidence of mullerian anomaly in a woman with recurrent first trimester pregnancy losses (RPL)? (2022)

2-3%
5-10%
25-30%
50-60%

A

5-10%

1082
Q

What is the most likely reason for two consecutive clinical losses? (2020, 2021)

Aneuploidy
Translocation
Uterine anomaly
Acquired thrombophilia
APLS

A

Aneuploidy

1083
Q

What is the chance that a first trimester loss is due to a chromosomal abnormality? (2003)

25%
40-60%
80%

A

40-60%

1084
Q

Which of the following is the least useful test for RPL? (2003)

HSG
Karyotype
Mycoplasma

A

Mycoplasma

1085
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis (cause) for a couple with RPL? (2013, 2014, 2016, 2017, 2019, 2021, 2023 NIH)

Endocrine abnormality
Uterine anomaly (Anatomic)
Translocation
Immunologic
Acquired thrombophilia

A

Uterine anomaly (Anatomic)

1086
Q

A 35yoF with three consecutive biochemical losses. What is the best next step? (2020, 2021)

APS/Karyotype
Prolactin/TSH
PGT-A
Continue to attempt spontaneous conception

A

APS/Karyotype
Prolactin/TSH

1087
Q

A patient with RPL after three spontaneous abortions and has a negative work-up. What is the next step? (2007, 2009, 2010, 2012, 2013, 2018, 2023 NIH)

IVF with PGT-A
Attempt spontaneous conception
Natural killer (NK) cell test
Aspirin and heparin

A patient has had three spontaneous abortions after one full term pregnancy. What is the best treatment? (2011)

IVF with PGT-A
Attempt spontaneous conception
Sperm fragmentation
Aspirin and heparin

A

Attempt spontaneous conception

1088
Q

What is the worst prognosis uterine structural defect associated with RPL (three prior first trimester spontaneous abortions)? (2005, 2007, 2012, 2013, 2018)

Arcuate
Septum
Submucosal fibroids
Adenomyosis

A

Septum

1089
Q

What medication has been shown to be helpful for RPL associated with APLS (with no history of DVT)? (2012, 2013, 2014, 2016, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2023 NIH)

ASA and twice daily unfractionated heparin
ASA
Therapeutic heparin
LMWH heparin
Immunoglobulin

A

ASA and twice daily unfractionated heparin

1090
Q

Which is most specific for APLS? (2023 NIH)

Increased APTT
Decreased clotting time
Anticardiolipin IgA
Anti-beta-2-glycoprotein IgM

A

Anti-beta-2-glycoprotein IgM

1091
Q

What is the best treatment for somebody with APLS? (2013, 2014)

ASA
Heparin

A

Heparin

1092
Q

What test is least likely to help with diagnosing APLS? (2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2023 NIH)

Anti-beta-2-glycoprotein
Anticardiolipin antibodies
Russell’s venom
aPTT
Antiphosphatidyl serine

A

Antiphosphatidyl serine

1093
Q

What test is most likely to diagnose APLS? (2012, 2013, 2015, 2017, 2018)

Anti-beta-2-glycoprotein IgM
Anticardiolipin IgA
PT corrected for phospholipid

A

Anti-beta-2-glycoprotein IgM

1094
Q

A patient who previously had RPL is diagnosed with a DVT in pregnancy.

What is the most likely etiology for all of these issues? (2010)

A

APLS

1095
Q

What are recurrent late first trimester losses most likely due to abnormalities in? (2011)

Factor V Leiden
Prothrombin gene mutation
Antithrombin II
Protein C
MTHFR

A

Factor V Leiden

1096
Q

A patient presents with a history of full term delivery complicated by VTE/clot in the 3rd trimester. Since then, she has been diagnosed with RPL. Which of the following is most likely etiology? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Factor V Leiden
APLS
Protein S

A

APLS

1097
Q

What is the prevalence of APLS in women with RPL? (2018)

A

3-5%

1098
Q

What is the mechanism of late loss (>10wk) in women with APLS? (2018)

A

Thrombosis

1099
Q

What is the mechanism of early loss (<10wk) in women with APLS? (2018)

A

Trophoblast invasion

1100
Q

Which HLA in the endometrium allows for implantation? (2014, 2015)

A
B
D
G

A

G

1101
Q

A patient had three early spontaneous abortions following a full term delivery. What is the least likely reason for her recurrent losses? (2005, 2010, 2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Embryotoxic factor
Uterine septum
Lupus anticoagulant antibodies
Male balanced translocation

A

Embryotoxic factor

1102
Q

A patient had three early spontaneous abortions following a full term delivery. What is the least likely reason for her recurrent losses? (2003, 2011, 2009)

APLS
Rh sensitization
Uterine septum
Abnormal male karyotype
Didelphys
Unicornuate

A

Rh sensitization

1103
Q

A patient has three prior first trimester losses. What is the most likely mechanism? (2005, 2014, 2015)

Anatomical abnormality
APLS
Balanced translocation

A

Anatomical abnormality

1104
Q

What is the least common cause of spontaneous abortions? (2010)

Fetal aneuploidy
Parental chromosome abnormality
Endometritis

A

Endometritis

1105
Q

A couple with normal karyotypes experiences three consecutive losses. What is the most likely cause? (1999, 2011)

Autosomal trisomy
Triploidy
Diploidy
Monosomy 45,X

A

Autosomal trisomy

1106
Q

What is the most common karyotype of a spontaneous abortion in a woman with recurrent loss? (2003, 2018)

Autosomal trisomy
Monosomy X
Polyploidy
46,XX or 46,XY

A

Autosomal trisomy

1107
Q

A patient with RPL presents following a recent spontaneous abortion whose karyotype was 47,XX,+22. What is the most likely reason for this finding? (2018)

Oocyte nondisjunction
Reciprocal translocation
Robertsonian translocation
Embryotoxic factor
Uterine septum

A

Oocyte nondisjunction

1108
Q

What is the most common cause of familial clotting? (2018)

Prothrombin gene mutation
MTHFR homozygous with elevated homocysteine
Antithrombin III
Protein C deficiency
Protein S deficiency

A

Prothrombin gene mutation

1109
Q

What is the single most common genetic finding in an abortus? (1999)

45,X
46,XXY
46,XYY
Trisomy 18
Trisomy 21

A

45,X (if T16 unavailable as most common)

1110
Q

A couple have a history of a full term vaginal delivery followed by three consecutive first trimester losses. How do you counsel them? (1999)

Their chances are increased since they had one successful pregnancy
Others

A

Their chances are increased since they had one successful pregnancy

1111
Q

A 30yo couple has just had two consecutive spontaneous abortions, the last of which had a trisomy 15 karyotype. How do you counsel them? (1999)

Their risk of subsequent miscarriage is 50%

Their risk of subsequent miscarriage is 20-30%

They will not be able to have a successful pregnancy without donor gametes

They should undergo genetic testing

A

Their risk of subsequent miscarriage is 20-30%

1112
Q

What is the least likely finding APLS? (2003)

Thrombocytopenia
Elevated PTT
None of the above

A

Elevated PTT

1113
Q

What is the least useful test when evaluating RPL? (2005)

A

EMB

1114
Q

What is the most sensitive imaging study for RPL? (2007)

HSG
Saline sonogram (SIS)
Ultrasound (US)

A

Saline sonogram (SIS)

1115
Q

Which of the following is the most common abnormality with history of DVT and three first trimester spontaneous abortions? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Factor V Leiden
APLS

A

APLS

1116
Q

A 28yoF G3P1021 has a history of two losses at 8wk after fetal heart rate as well as a history of a term delivery complicated by a VTE in the third trimester. What test would be diagnostic? (2007)

Factor V Leiden
Lupus anticoagulant/Anticardiolipin antibody

A

Lupus anticoagulant/Anticardiolipin antibody

1117
Q

What is the most likely cause of RPL at <10wk? (2023 NIH)

Anatomic
Immune
Thrombotic
Environmental

A

Anatomic

1118
Q

Which uterine abnormality has the worst prognosis for someone with three prior 1st trimester losses? (2023 NIH)

Uterine septum
Arcuate
Subserosal leiomyoma

A

Uterine septum

1119
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be associated with three 1st trimester losses? (2023 NIH)

Prothrombin mutation
MTHFR
Activated Protein C

A

Prothrombin mutation

1120
Q

How do you determine the number of Fragile X repeats in a patient? (2016)

A

PCR

1121
Q

What mechanism is responsible for environmental impact on genetics? (2021)

Methylation
Post-transcriptional histone modification

A

Methylation

1122
Q

What is the correct order of events in PCR? (2011, 2013, 2021, 2022, 2023 NIH)

A

Denaturation, annealing, synthesis, extension

1123
Q

What is the correct order of events in RT-PCR? (2013, 2017, 2018)

Make cDNA, denature, anneal, extension

Denature, anneal, extension, make cDNA

Extension, anneal, denature, make cDNA

A

Make cDNA, denature, anneal, extension

1124
Q

What is PCR most likely to miss? (2011, 2021, 2023 NIH)

Nonsense
Missense
Large deletion
Small three nucleotide repeat

A

Large deletion

1125
Q

What is the best use of aCGH? (2021)

Comparing mitochondrial DNA between two individuals
Comparing genomic DNA between two populations
Comparing mRNA transcripts
Comparing tRNA transcripts

A

Comparing genomic DNA between two populations

1126
Q

What is CGH best for? (2012)

Gain or loss of DNA
SNP
Uniparental disomy

A

Gain or loss of DNA

1127
Q

Karyotype is able to detect which of the following that aCGH cannot? (2021)

Aneuploidy
Deletion
Unbalanced translocations
Inversion

A

Inversion

1128
Q

What PGT-A platform has the most mosaicism rates? (2021)

qPCR
NGS
aCGH

A

NGS

1129
Q

How do you locate a gene on a chromosome? (2012, 2018)

Southern blot
FISH
PCR
Southwestern blot

A

FISH

1130
Q

What is the most labor intensive application of FISH? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Polyploidy
Sex typing
DNA inversions/translocations
DNA point mutations

A

Polyploidy

1131
Q

FISH is most labor intensive with which kind of evaluation? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Chromosome number
Translocations
Single gene mutation
Sex chromosome abnormalities

A

Chromosome number

1132
Q

What is the most labor intensive test to attempt to perform using FISH? (2007)

Identification of single gene mutations
Identification of sex-linked disorders
Identification of trisomies
Other

A

Identification of trisomies

1133
Q

Which of the following can FISH best detect? (2005, 2023 NIH)

Sex aneuploidy
Single gene defect
Y chromosome microdeletion
Reciprocal translocation

A

Sex aneuploidy

  • PCR is used for single gene defects and FISH for sex selection, structural anomalies and aneuploidy screening.
1134
Q

What heterozygote is least likely to be detected on PCR gene sequencing? (2023 NIH)

Large deletion
Missense mutation
Nonsense mutation
Silent mutation

A

Large deletion

1135
Q

There is a gene mutation that generates a protein. What is the best way to identify the “gene product” (protein)? (2005, 2009, 2013, 2015, 2016, 2018, 2021)

Western blot
Northern blot
Southern blot
Southwestern blot
PCR

What is the best test to evaluate for a genetic mutation that creates a protein? (2023 NIH)

Western immunoblot analysis
Northern immunoblot analysis
Southern immunoblot analysis

A

Western blot

1136
Q

How do you detect mutant protein that is significantly shorter in length? (2011, 2015, 2018)

PCR
Western blot
Northern blot
Southern blot

A

Western blot

1137
Q

A mutant gene with a shorter amino acid sequence produces a mutant protein in Sertoli cells. What is the best test to identify the gene product? (2023 NIH)

Southern blot
Western blot
PCR

A

Western blot

1138
Q

There are Sertoli cells that have a mutation in the gene for protein G and produce a shorter product (shorter protein G). How do you detect the mutated product of Sertoli cells? (2007, 2011)

Northern blot
Western blot
Southern blot
RT-PCR

A

Western blot

1139
Q

How do you verify the integrity of isolated RNA? (2003, 2005)

Western blot
Northern blot
Southern blot
Southwestern blot

A

Northern blot

1140
Q

What is involved in a Northern blot? (2003, 2010)

Complementary DNA binding to radiolabeled RNA

Genomic DNA binding to radiolabeled RNA

Radiolabeled DNA binding to RNA

Hybridize radiolabeled DNA to RNA

What is involved in a Northern blot? (2007)

Radiolabeled cDNA combining with RNA
Radiolabeled RNA combining with DNA
Radiolabeled RNA combining with protein
Other

A

Radiolabeled DNA binding to RNA

Hybridize radiolabeled DNA to RNA

Radiolabeled cDNA combining with RNA

1141
Q

Which of the following uses antibodies for hybridization identification of proteins? (2001)

Northern blot
Southern blot
Southwestern blot
Western blot

A

Western blot

1142
Q

What is the recommended parental genetic screening for all couples attempting conception? (2021)

CF, spinal muscular atrophy
CF, spinal muscular atrophy, Fragile X
CF, spinal muscular atrophy, Fragile X, familial autosomal something
Another option with something added to the familial autosomal something

A

CF, SMA

1143
Q

A 30yoF with POI wants to use her 22yo sister’s oocytes for IVF. What screening is most likely to reveal the cause of the patient’s POI? (2009, 2023 NIH)

Karyotype
Fragile X
Cystic fibrosis

A 30yoF with POI wants to use her 22yo sister’s oocytes for IVF. What test would most likely exclude her? (2009)

Karyotype
Fragile X
Cystic fibrosis

A

Karyotype

1144
Q

What is the best way to determine copy number? (2018)

A

Amount of DNA

1145
Q

What is the best test to detect copy number variants? (2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2020, 2023 NIH)

Karyotype
FISH
aCGH
Southern blot

A

aCGH

*Takes up to 72h to perform due to long hybridization step. Can only detect copy number changes (only changes that result in loss or gain of chromosome material). Less sensitive than PCR.

1146
Q

What is CGH useful for? (2015, 2017)

Copy number variants
Uniparental disomy
Ploidy

A

CNVs

*This technology is also particularly useful as a complementary diagnostic test to detect large deletions in genes related to mitochondrial disorders.

1147
Q

CGH cannot detect which of the following? (2019)

Aneuploidy
Deletions
Unbalanced translocations
Inversions

A

Inversions

1148
Q

What can aCGH cannot distinguish between? (2012, 2018)

Euploid and aneuploid karyotype
Small deletions in the genome
Uniparental disomy
Mitochondrial differences

A

Uniparental disomy

1149
Q

What is the quickest way to determine sex of blastomeres in someone with an X-linked recessive gene mutation?

FISH
Sequence the pseudoautosomal region of Y chromosome
Cytogenetic banding

A

FISH

1150
Q

What most characterizes whole exome sequencing (WES)? (2016)

Only looks at part of the genome

Good to look for copy number variation

A

CNV

WES is a form of next-generation sequencing that focuses only on the exons (the protein-coding regions) to detect CNVs, SNPs, and somatic mutations. WES data is useful for the clinical interpretation of genetic variation discovered in exomes

1151
Q

Who is the best candidate for PGT-A? (2017)

Recent implantation failure
Advanced maternal age
Balanced translocation
Recurrent pregnancy loss

A

Balanced translocation

1152
Q

What can you use to determine a single parent polymorphism? (2015)

A

SNP array

1153
Q

What happens when two acrocentric chromosomes interact? (2007, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Balanced reciprocal translocation
Robertsonian translocation
Pericentric inversion
Meiotic nondisjunction
Premature sister chromatid separation

A

Robertsonian translocation

1154
Q

What do acrocentric chromosomes joined at the centromere cause? (2003)

Robertsonian translocation
Ring chromosome
Inversion
Reciprocal translocation

A

Robertsonian translocation

1155
Q

If a male partner is elderly, what is the most likely karyotypic abnormality in the offspring? (2015)

47,XXY
Sex chromosome
Autosomal
Monosomy X

A

Autosomal

1156
Q

What is the most likely reason for failure of oligonucleotide binding in PCR based sequencing? (2014)

Large deletion
Missense mutation
Nonsense mutation
Silent mutation

A

Large deletion

1157
Q

What test is the best for finding the chromosomal location of a gene? (2005, 2012)

Southern blot
PCR
Methylation analysis
FISH

A

FISH

1158
Q

CGH would be least likely to determine which of the following chromosomal abnormalities? (2012)

Polyploidy
Turner syndrome
Trisomy

A

Polyploidy

1159
Q

What is the best test to use in an oocyte donor to rule out a genetic carrier disease? (What is the best microarray for screening of oocyte donors for carrier disease status?) (2009, 2011, 2023 NIH)

Genomic DNA
Chromatin DNA
Proteomics
Metabolomic
RNA
PCR

A

Genomic DNA

1160
Q

What is cDNA microarray best for? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Genomic DNA between two populations
Transfer RNA between to individuals
mRNA between two different experiments

A

mRNA between two different experiments

1161
Q

Which of the following clinical scenarios is the best application of PGT-M that will lead to the best outcome? (2005)

Translocation
Cystic fibrosis carrier
Others

A

CF carrier

1162
Q

What is the best method to assess chromosomal abnormalities? (2023 NIH)

PGT-M
CGH
G banding

A

CGH

1163
Q

Which test gives the most information about the genome? (2007)

FISH
PCR
Comparative hybridization
G-banding

A

Comparative hybridization

1164
Q

Why does Taq polymerase work? (2015)

A

Stable at high temperatures

1165
Q

What do you test with a cDNA array? (2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

mRNA
tRNA
Genomic DNA

A

mRNA

1166
Q

What is detected when cDNA is analyzed? (2012, 2018)

Complementary strand to known DNA sequence
Complementary strand to known RNA sequence
Full DNA sequence, including exons and introns
Total molecular weight of DNA strand

A

Complementary strand to known RNA sequence

1167
Q

What is the best test for maternal contamination of POCs? (2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2020, 2021, 2023 NIH)

Array CGH (CGH or microarray)
SNP array
FISH
Karyotype
cDNA microarray

A

SNP array

1168
Q

What is the best test for abnormality in POC? (2023 NIH)

High density SNP
Geimsa staining of metaphase chromosomes
microRNA
Cell free DNA

A

High density SNP

1169
Q

How does inflammatory process of endometriosis work? (2021)

Increase in suppressive modulators in pelvic fluid
Increase in suppressive modulators in abdominal fluid
Decrease in suppressive modulators in pelvic fluid
Decrease in suppressive modulators in pelvic fluid

A

Decrease in suppressive modulators in pelvic fluid

1170
Q

A patient is going to begin IVF with an endometrioma. What is the best thing to do? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Drain endometrioma at retrieval
Avoid endometrioma at retrieval
Laparoscopic drainage of endometrioma before IVF
Laparoscopic resection of endometrioma before IVF
GnRH agonist 3mo before IVF
Long term suppression with OCPs

A

Avoid endometrioma at retrieval

1171
Q

A woman presents with a 4cm endometrioma. What would you do before IVF? (2013, 2014, 2023 NIH)

Expectant management
Drain endometrioma
Robotic cystectomy

A

Expectant management

1172
Q

A woman presents with a 2cm endometrioma. What would you do before IVF? (2015, 2023 NIH)

Proceed with IVF
Remove endometrioma
Treat with GnRH agonist first then IVF
Treat with danazol first then IVF

A 38yoF presents with a 2cm endometrioma and no pain. She is planning to do IVF. What is the best management? (2015, 2023 NIH)

Surgery
Avoid surgery, proceed with IVF
GnRH agonist with add back pre-treatment
GnRH agonist with no add back

A 38yoF presents with a 4cm endometrioma and no pain. She is planning to do IVF. What is the best management? (2012, 2014, 2023 NIH)

Surgery
Avoid surgery, proceed with IVF
Puncture and drain

A

Proceed with IVF

Avoid surgery, proceed with IVF

Avoid surgery, proceed with IVF

1173
Q

In GnRH agonist suppression what is the effect of adding norethindrone? (2023 NIH)

Decreased flushing, decreased bone mass
Decreased flushing, no change in bone
Increased flushing, decreased bone
Increased flushing, no change in bone

A

Decreased flushing, no change in bone

1174
Q

What decreases ovarian reserve most in an endometrioma resection? (2012, 2015)

Electrocautery of wall
Laser ablation of wall
Resect endometrioma

A

Electrocautery of wall

1175
Q

Which therapy is the least likely to provide pain relief from endometriosis? (What is the worst treatment for endometriosis?) (2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

GnRH agonist with add back therapy
Cyclic OCPs
IM depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) (Depo-Provera)
Surgical destruction

Which is the least effective treatment for endometriosis? (2011)

GnRH agonist with add back therapy
Cyclic OCPs
IM depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) (Depo-Provera)
Surgical destruction

A

Cyclic OCPs

1176
Q

What is the best treatment for (chronic) pelvic pain in a patient with severe endometriosis and dysmenorrhea? (2014)

Laparoscopic uterosacral nerve ablation (LUNA)
Presacral neurectomy (PSN)
Alcohol injection
High frequency ultrasound (US)

What is the best treatment for (chronic) pelvic pain in a patient with severe endometriosis and dysmenorrhea who has failed surgical intervention? (2012, 2013, 2015)
Laparoscopic uterosacral nerve ablation (LUNA)
Presacral neurectomy (PSN)
Alcohol injection
High frequency ultrasound (US)

A

Presacral neurectomy (PSN)

1177
Q

What is most likely affected by epigenetic regulation of the endometrium? (2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018)

Estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta)

A

Estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta)

1178
Q

Aromatase activity is highest in what type of endometriosis? (2014, 2015)

Red implant
Black implant
White implant
Yellow implant
Endometrioma cyst wall

A

Red implant

1179
Q

What is increased in endometrial implants? (2016)

Aromatase
Estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta)

A

Aromatase

1180
Q

Endometriosis is most associated with which of the following? (2012, 2018)

Increased 17-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (17-beta-HSD)
Decreased COX-2
Increased estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta)

A

Increased estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta)

1181
Q

How does danazol induce androgenic effects? (2018, 2023 NIH)

Displacement of testosterone from SHBG
Binds to estrogen receptor (ER)
Induces SHBG
Induces ovarian steroidogenesis

A

Displacement of testosterone from SHBG

1182
Q

What is a side effect of danazol? (2018, 2023 NIH)

Completely reversible voice deepening
Anovulation
Osteoporosis
Hyperestrogenemia

A

Anovulation

1183
Q

Which binds the glucocorticoid receptor best? (2003, 2005, 2010, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015)

Mifepristone (RU-486)
Progesterone
Estrogen
Testosterone (Androgens)
Spironolactone

A

Mifepristone (RU-486)

1184
Q

What is the treatment for catamenial pneumothorax? (2007, 2009, 2018)

Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) (Depo-Provera)
Aromatase inhibitor
Danazol
GnRH agonist with add back

A

GnRH agonist with add back

1185
Q

What is the worst treatment for catamenial pneumothorax? (2009, 2023 NIH)

Cyclic OCPs
GnRH agonist
Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) (Depo-Provera)

A

Cyclic OCPs

1186
Q

What is the least likely outcome with norethindrone add back for endometriosis? (2014, 2015)

Reduction in hot flashes
Increase in DVT risk
Reduction in bone loss

A

Increase in DVT risk

1187
Q

What epigenetic changes are seen in endometriosis implants? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Decreased aromatase
Increased 17-hydroxylase (17-OH)
Increased peritoneal macrophages
Increased estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta)

A

Increased estrogen receptor beta (ER-beta)

1188
Q

Endometriosis is associated with all of the following except? (2011)

Decreased prostaglandins
Increased HOX
Increased SF-1

A

Decreased prostaglandins

1189
Q

What are endometriosis lesions most highly associated with? (2011)

IL-beta
Abnormal estrogen receptor (ER) expression
Abnormal progesterone receptor (PR) expression

A

Abnormal estrogen receptor (ER) expression

1190
Q

What is the best long term medical treatment of endometriosis? (2009, 2023 NIH)

GnRH agonist
GnRH antagonist
Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) (Depo-Provera)

A

Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) (Depo-Provera)

1191
Q

A 50yoF had a TAH-BSO 24mo ago and now presents with flares of endometriosis. What is the best treatment? (2007)

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) (Provera)
Danazol
Mifepristone (RU-486)
GnRH agonist
GnRH antagonist
Anastrozole
Ketoconazole

A

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA) (Provera)

1192
Q

What is the best pre-IVF endometriosis treatment? (2023 NIH)

3mo of OCPs
3mo of GnRH agonist

A

3mo of GnRH agonist

1193
Q

What is the best treatment for a 38yoF with recent BSO for stage IV endometriosis? (2023 NIH)

Nothing
Estrogen
Progestin
Combined estrogen and progestin

A

Combined estrogen and progestin

1194
Q

What immune cells are found in the peritoneal fluid of patients with endometriosis? (2023 NIH)

Neutrophils
Macrophages

A

Macrophages

1195
Q

What is the best chance of fertility with an endometrioma? (2023 NIH)

OCPs
GnRH agonist post-op
Ablate the wall of the endometrioma
Remove the endometrioma

A

Remove the endometrioma

1196
Q

What characterizes endometrium with ectopic pregnancy? (2013, 2014, 2020)

Arias-Stella reaction
Chorionic tissue
Endometrial hyperplasia
Secretory
Proliferative

A

Arias-Stella reaction

*Arias Stella Reactive and benign phenomenon of the endometrium induced by hormonal stimulation and characterized by cytomegaly and nuclear enlargement of endometrial glands; typically associated with intrauterine or extrauterine pregnancies or with gestational trophoblastic disease

1197
Q

The endometrium associated with ectopic pregnancy is most similar to which of the following? (2014, 2015, 2023 NIH)

Early proliferative
Late proliferative
Early secretory
Late secretory
Decidualized endometrium

A

Decidualized endometrium

1198
Q

What does robotic surgery offer best? (2015, 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022, 2023 NIH)

Decreased operative time
Easier learning curve
Improved visualization of pelvic organs
More cost effective
Less physician fatigue
Improved joint dexterity

What is an advantage of robotic surgery over laparoscopic surgery? (2012, 2019, 2021)
Reduced operative time
Better tactile feedback
Better visualization
Easier learning curve
Improved joint dexterity

A

Improved visualization of pelvic organs

Better visualization

1199
Q

What results in the highest patient satisfaction for patients undergoing surgery for AUB? (2007, 2009, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Rollerball ablation
Microwave ablation
Thermal ablation
Hysterectomy
Hysteroscopic loop resection

A

Hysterectomy

1200
Q

Which hysteroscopy fluid causes hyperammonemia? (2022)

A

Glycine

1201
Q

Which method to perform septoplasty is most likely to result in uterine rupture? (2021, 2022)

Morcellator
Cold scissors
Unipolar cautery/Electrocautery

A

Unipolar cautery/Electrocautery

1202
Q

What is more likely associated with laparoscopic myomectomy compared to open myomectomy? (2021)

Longer recovery
More likely for hysterectomy
More likely needs another myomectomy

A

More likely needs another myomectomy

1203
Q

What is the underlying mechanism causing post-op adhesions? (2018, 2019, 2021)

Fibrin deposition
Vascular constriction
Plasmin activation

A

Fibrin deposition

1204
Q

What is a disadvantage of laparoscopic myomectomy compared to open myomectomy? (2021)

Increased operative time
Increased risk of infection
Increased risk of adhesion formation
Higher chance for the patient to require future hysterectomy

A

Increased operative time

1205
Q

What is the best management for a patient with an asymptomatic 7cm type 6 fibroid and infertility? (2021)

Hysteroscopic myomectomy
Expectant management
Laparoscopic myomectomy
Open myomectomy

A

Expectant management

1206
Q

How does an electrocautery device cause tissue destruction? (2016)

Polarity
Energy density
Wave form
Tissue dessication

A

Tissue dessication

1207
Q

How do you minimize post-op adhesions? (2016, 2017)

Barrier
Minimize tissue destruction

A

Minimize tissue destruction

1208
Q

What do you do when you perforate the top of the uterus during a diagnostic hysteroscopy and there is no bleeding? (2018)

Re-evaluate and observe in PACU
Immediate laparoscopy
Transabdominal ultrasound (US) in OR

A

Re-evaluate and observe in PACU

1209
Q

What is the best treatment for a woman with a 3cm submucosal fibroid desiring future fertility? (2011, 2012, 2018)

Hysteroscopic myomectomy
Abdominal myomectomy
Uterine artery embolization (UAE)

A

Hysteroscopic myomectomy

1210
Q

A patient develops bleeding at venipuncture sites and gums after surgery. What was the most likely procedure? (What procedure can cause DIC?) (1999, 2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Hysteroscopic septum resection with glycine
Hysteroscopic polypectomy with dextran
Hysteroscopic myomectomy with loop electrode and CO2 medium
Endometrial ablation with YAG laser
Laparoscopy with argon beam

A

Hysteroscopic polypectomy with dextran

1211
Q

What is the least worrisome during hysteroscopy if there is a fluid deficit >1500mL? (2011, 2018)

Mannitol 5%
Sorbitol 3%
Glycine 1.5%
Saline 0.9%

A

Saline 0.9%

1212
Q

What is the least likely complication from hysteroscopic myomectomy using glycine? (1999, 2005, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

CHF
Hypervolemia
Grand mal seizures
Elevated ammonia levels
DIC
Hyponatremia
Pulmonary edema

A

DIC

1213
Q

What is the first sign of glycine overload? (2005, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Hypoxia
Bradycardia
Seizures

A

Bradycardia

1214
Q

A 10cm multicystic mass with no excrescences is found in the adnexa 1yr after normal adnexal and tubal ligation with cautery. She had normal ovaries last year. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2003, 2007, 2011)

Fallopian tube cancer
Hydrosalpinx
Cystadenoma
Salpingitis isthmica nodosa (SIN)
Serous cancer

A 10cm complex mass is found in the adnexa 1yr after BTL. What is the most likely diagnosis? (2023 NIH)

Hydrosalpinx
Cystadenoma
Peritoneal inclusion cyst

A 17yoF presents with right lower quadrant pain is discovered to have a 10cm multiloculated cystic mass in her right adnexa. One year ago, she underwent laparoscopy where normal ovaries and a small right hydrosalpinx were noted. What is the most likely etiology? (1999)

Mature teratoma
Cystadenoma
Endometrioma
Hydrosalpinx

A

Hydrosalpinx

1215
Q

What is the least likely complication after a submucosal myomectomy? (2011)

CHF
Hypervolemia
DIC
Others

A

DIC

1216
Q

A 31yoF with 2yr of unexplained infertility has a 6cm posterior fibroid. What is the best treatment? (2007, 2023 NIH)

IVF
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) IUI
Myomectomy

A

Myomectomy

1217
Q

The successful creation of a functional vagina in a 20yoF with a mullerian anomaly and a vaginal dimple on pelvic exam is best established by which of the following? (2022)

Abbe-McIndoe procedure
Vecchietti procedure
Csokmay bowel interposition
Vaginal dilation
Split-thickness skin graft

A

Vaginal dilation

1218
Q

What is the most effective way to improve pregnancy rates for IVF in patients with hydrosalpinges? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Proximal occlusion of tubes
Salpingectomy
Tubal aspiration at time of retrieval

A

Salpingectomy

1219
Q

Which of the following hysteroscopic distension medias is most commonly associated with anaphylaxis? (1999)

Sorbitol
Hyskon
Glycine
Mannitol
Saline

A

Hyskon

1220
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the reformation of adhesions after adhesiolysis? (1999)

Expected to be similar for laparoscopy or laparotomy
Greater with monofilament suture than with braided
Is decreased with lavage using lactated ringers
Is definitely decreased with instillation of dextran

A

Is decreased with lavage using lactated ringers

1221
Q

What is the most common site of injury during laparoscopy? (2007, 2023 NIH)

Bowel
Ureter
Vascular
Bladder

A

Bladder

1222
Q

You are negotiating the endocervical canal with a 30-degree hysteroscope. Where on the monitor screen should you keep the cervical os? (2003, 2010)

In the middle of the screen
In the lower half of the screen
In the upper half of the screen

A

If camera facing up, os should be on the lower half of the screen

1223
Q

What type of laser can be used to remove endometriosis from the bowel? (2005)

YAG
KTP
CO2
Cautery

A

CO2

1224
Q

What should be included in the pre-op evaluation of a patient who has POI and is undergoing elective surgery? (2005, 2007, 2023 NIH)

ACTH
ACTH stimulation test
Fasting glucose
Serum electrolytes
Serum cortisol
Antiadrenal antibodies

A

Serum cortisol

1225
Q

What is the most important test before performing laparoscopy on a patient with Turner Syndrome 45,X? (2023 NIH)

Dexamethasone suppression test
Electrolytes
TSH

A

Electrolytes

1226
Q

What is the best adhesion barrier? (2007)

Dextran
IV steroids
Cellulose paper
Gelfoam

A

Cellulose paper

1227
Q

What is the first sign of fluid overload in hysteroscopy? (2007)

Ventricular arrhythmia
Bradycardia
Hypoxia
Oliguria

A

Hypoxia

1228
Q

A patient is planning to undergo IVF but has a unilateral hydrosalpinx. What is the best treatment? (2023 NIH)

Proximal clips bilaterally
Unilateral salpingectomy
Bilateral tubal ligation
Bilateral salpingectomy
Expectant management

A

Unilateral salpingectomy

1229
Q

What are the two most prevalent immune cells in the uterus? (2012, 2021)

Uterine natural killer (uNK) cells and T-helper cells
Uterine natural killer (uNK) cells and B cells
Uterine natural killer (uNK) cells and something else (macrophages)

A

Uterine natural killer (uNK) cells and T-helper cells

1230
Q

What is the correct ratio in the uterus compared to peripheral serum? (2021)

Elevated uterine natural killer (uNK)
Elevated T-helper cells

A

Elevated uterine natural killer (uNK)

1231
Q

The immunosuppressive characteristics of progesterone include which of the following? (2021)

Mitogen-induced proliferation of CD8+

T cytokine secretion by these cells

Promotion of Th2-type responses with increased expression of LIF

A

Promotion of Th2-type responses with increased expression of LIF

1232
Q

Which is most true of endometrial immune cells? (2003, 2005, 2011)

Located only in the basalis

Located overlying superficial layer

Mostly monocytes, macrophages, and T cells

Plasma cells

Clusters of immune cells within the glandular epithelium

Scattered macrophages only in the basalis layer

A

Mostly monocytes, macrophages, and T cells

1233
Q

What immune cells are in the healthy endometrium? (2023 NIH)

B cells
Plasma cells
Monocytes
Macrophages
T cells

A

Macrophages

1234
Q

What cells are seen with chronic endometritis? (2012, 2018)

Plasma cells
Natural killer (NK) cells
Dendritic cells
Exhausted glandular cells

A

Plasma cells

1235
Q

Which of the following is seen during the luteal phase of normal endometrial tissue? (2021)

T-helper cells
CD8+
Decreased natural killer (NK) cells
B lymphocytes

A

T-helper cells

*Also NK cells

1236
Q

What immunologic cell change is characteristic of implantation? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2017, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Increased plasma cells
Increased B cells
Increased natural killer (NK) cells
No change

A

Increased natural killer (NK) cells

1237
Q

What cells are most likely to be found in endometrium at time of implantation? (2005, 2005, 2007, 2011, 2012, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2018)

Plasma cells
B cells
Natural killer (NK) cells
Monocytes

A

Natural killer (NK) cells

1238
Q

Where are endometrial lymphocytes? (2005)

Right near endometrial cavity
Perivascular

A

Perivascular

1239
Q

What is a proven treatment for immune related RPL? (2023 NIH)

IgG
Paternal sperm immunization
Paternal leukocyte immunization
Aspirin
Heparin
Nothing

A

Nothing

1240
Q

How do you make a clinical diagnosis of sexual dysfunction or anorgasmia? (2011, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2017, 2018, 2023 NIH)

When symptoms are bothersome to patient/Personal distress
Depression
Orgasm with masturbation
Fear of sexual intercourse

A

When symptoms are bothersome to patient/Personal distress

1241
Q

What percent of women in the United States have sexual dysfunction? (2015)

5%
11%
25%
35%
50%

A

11%

1242
Q

What is most common among sexual disorder in women? (2003, 2005, 2007, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Low desire
Anorgasmia
Arousal disorder
Sexual pain disorder

A

Low desire

1243
Q

What is associated with female sexual dysfunction? (2012, 2018)

Adrenal hyperplasia
Hypothyroidism
Diabetes
Hyperthyroidism

A

Diabetes

1244
Q

Female patients with a history of sexual abuse are most likely to have which of the following? (2011)

Decreased sexual desire, normal arousal
Decreased arousal, normal sexual desire
Decreased in arousal, decreased sexual desire
Normal arousal, normal sexual desire

A

Decreased in arousal, decreased sexual desire

1245
Q

Which of the following occurs after the completion of a meal? (2011, 2015, 2018, 2021, 2023 NIH)

Increased ghrelin
Increased leptin
Increased growth hormone
Increased glucagon
Increased CRH
__ somatostatin

A

Increased leptin

1246
Q

What decreases with food intake? (2011, 2018)

Leptin
Ghrelin
ACTH
Aromatase

A

Ghrelin

1247
Q

What type of receptor is the leptin receptor? (2011, 2013, 2014, 2021, 2022)

Tyrosine kinase
JAK/STAT (aka cytokine receptor)
Phospholipase C (PLC)
GPCR

A

JAK/STAT (aka cytokine receptor)

1248
Q

What change is most commonly seen in anorexia nervosa? (2016, 2020, 2021)

Increased T3
Loss of diurnal variation of leptin
Reduced cortisol
Increased prolactin

A

Loss of diurnal variation of leptin

1249
Q

What is changed in anorexia? (2012, 2017, 2018)

Low rT3
Low cortisol
Low leptin

A

Low leptin

1250
Q

What is the most likely thyroid profile in anorexia? (How are thyroid hormones affected by anorexia?) (2003, 2005, 2007, 2009, 2011, 2013, 2014, 2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

High TSH, low free T4, high T3, normal rT3
Low TSH, low T4, normal T3, normal rT3
Low TSH, high T4, high T3, normal rT3
Normal TSH, normal T4, low T3, high rT3

A

Normal TSH, normal T4, low T3, high rT3

1251
Q

Anorexia is most associated with what thyroid abnormality? (2023 NIH)

Increased rT3
Decreased rT3

A

Increased rT3

1252
Q

What is the most likely hormone abnormality in anorexia? (2018, 2019)

Increased T3
Increased leptin
Increased CRH
Increased prolactin

A

Increased CRH

1253
Q

What is the second messenger for leptin? (2014, 2015, 2017, 2018)

cAMP
STAT

A

STAT

1254
Q

What is the central mechanism responsible for the decreased gonadotropin secretion in a woman with anorexia? (2005)

  • Loss of GnRH function
  • Opioid-mediated decrease in GnRH pulsatility
  • Increased CRH

How does anorexia lead to amenorrhea/hypogonadism? (2009, 2011, 2018, 2022, 2023 NIH)

  • Opioid inhibition of GnRH pulses
  • Increased prolactin
  • Catechol estrogens
  • Low leptin
  • CRH/High cortisol

How does anorexia lead to anovulation? (2023 NIH)

  • Opioid on hypothalamus
  • ACTH stimulates cortisol

What potentiates the action of CRH to suppress GnRH in anorexia? (2012)
- Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
- Ghrelin
- Opioids

A

Opioid-mediated decrease in GnRH pulsatility

1255
Q

What abnormality is seen with anorexia? (2012, 2023 NIH)

A

High cortisol

1256
Q

What is the least likely to be seen with anorexia? (2012, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Diarrhea
Lanugo
Carotenemia
Bradycardia
Hypotension

A

Diarrhea

1257
Q

What changes are seen in ghrelin in anorexia? (2023 NIH)

Increased ghrelin
Decreased ghrelin

A

Increased ghrelin

1258
Q

What is most likely in anorexia? (2015, 2023 NIH)

Leptin decreased
Ghrelin decreased
Others

A

Leptin decreased

1259
Q

What is least likely to be found in anorexia? (2011)

Hypercarotenemia
Bradycardia
Hypotension
High TSH
Low T3

A

High TSH

1260
Q

Leptin is most likely to increase which of the following? (2015)

Protein kinase A (PKA)
JAK
Phospholipase C (PLC)

A

JAK

1261
Q

Hypercarotenemia is associated with which abnormality? (2003, 2010)

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)
Hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (hyper-hypo)

A

Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (hypo-hypo)

1262
Q

How do you reduce background noise in immunohistochemistry (IHC)? (2021)

Increase exposure time
Add a second antibody
Something about goat milk antigen

A

Something about goat milk antigen

1263
Q

How do you confirm specificity in immunohistochemistry (IHC)? (2023 NIH)

A

Positive and negative controls

1264
Q

How do you assure the sensitivity of an antibody when doing immunohistochemistry (IHC)? (2016)

Use known antigen
Use another antibody

A

Use known antigen

1265
Q

What does ELISA rely on? (2007, 2020)

Radiolabeled antigen
Radiolabeled antibody
Radiolabeled substrate
Chromagen/enzyme complex
Second antibody bound to solid matrix

A

Chromagen/enzyme complex

1266
Q

What is an important component of ELISA? (2001, 2007, 2011, 2012, 2014, 2015)

Radiolabeled antigen
Radiolabeled antibody
Competitive binding
Chromogenic

A

Chromogenic

1267
Q

What is a property of ELISA? (2011, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Chemical reaction (chemogen)
Radiolabeled antigen or antibody (ligand)
Antibody bound to (a solid) matrix
Requires secondary antibody

A

Requires secondary antibody

1268
Q

What type of assay is ELISA? (2015, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Competitive binding assay
Use of radioactive antigen
Use of radioactive antibody
Use of chromogen attached to immunoglobulin

A

Use of chromogen attached to immunoglobulin

1269
Q

What is the best technique to decrease background noise in the development of an immunoassay? (2021)

Longer antigen-antibody binding time
Culture in dry milk to prevent nonspecific binding
Others

What is the best technique to decrease nonspecific binding in the development of an immunoassay (2018)

Longer antigen-antibody binding time
Culture in dry milk

A

Culture in dry milk to prevent nonspecific binding

1270
Q

Which hormone assay is affected by the Hook effect? (208)

Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Immunoradiometric assay (IRMA)

A

IRMA

1271
Q

What is the best next step when you suspect influence from the Hook effect? (2015, 2021, 2023 NIH)

Serum dilution
Develop an antibody complex to bind excess antigen
Repeat serum draw
Add polyethylene glycol
Something about radioimmunoassay (RIA) & something else I can’t remember

A

Serum dilution

1272
Q

Which assay has an inverse relationship between radiolabeled antigen and patient hormone/sample antigen? (2020)

Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Immunoradiometric assay (IRMA)
ELISA

Which has an inverse relationship between concentration of unknown antigen and percent bound radioactive protein? (2001, 2018)

Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Immunoradiometric assay (IRMA)
ELISA

A

Radioimmunoassay (RIA)

1273
Q

What is immunoradiometric assay (IRMA)? (2003, 2011, 2012, 2018)

Use of radioactive labeled antibodies to detect and quantify antigen concentration

Use of radioactive antigen to detect and quantify antibody concentration

Competition assay

Colorimetric assay

A

Use of radioactive labeled antibodies to detect and quantify antigen concentration

1274
Q

Which is correct concerning the immunoradiometric assay (IRMA)? (2009, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Radiolabeled antigen
Radiolabeled antibody
Requires matrix
Competition assay

A

Radiolabeled antibody

1275
Q

Spectrophotometric separation prior to radioimmunoassay (RIA) improves which of the following for the assay? (2003) purifying sample prior to radioimmunoassay

Precision
Accuracy
Reliability
Sensitivity
Specificity

A

Specificity

1276
Q

You wish to perform a single tube assay for two similar proteins, protein A and protein B, in the same sample. What must you do before you can begin the assay? (1999)

Prove that they have different ligand binding sites

Show that it cannot be done

Demonstrate that the second antibody has different affinity for the two proteins

A

Demonstrate that the second antibody has different affinity for the two proteins

1277
Q

The success of an immunosorbent radioimmunoassay (RIA) depends on which of the following? (1999, 2007)

The antibody is attached to a matrix, followed by addition of analyte and a second antibody

The antibody is linked to a solute reaction

The ligand is radiolabeled

The antibody is radiolabeled

A

The ligand is radiolabeled

1278
Q

What will shift the radioimmunoassay (RIA) curve to the left? (2007, 2010)

Increased sensitivity
Increased specificity
Increased accuracy

A

Increased sensitivity

1279
Q

Which one of the following antibodies is most likely to interfere with an immunoassay? (2007)

A

Heterophilic antibodies

1280
Q

What is the best way to assess for heterophilic antibodies in a patient who is clinically euthyroid with elevated TSH and works in a lab (is a vet tech)? (2014, 2015, 2019)

Serum dilution
Plasma dilution
Stop working with mice and rabbits
Serial collections

A

Serum dilution

1281
Q

Heterophilic antibodies are most likely to be found in someone with which of the following occupations? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Steel worker
Nurse
Vet tech

A

Vet tech

1282
Q

A patient is on levothyroxine (Synthroid) and clinically euthyroid, but her TSH is always increased. How do you prove heterophilic antibodies against TSH? (2023 NIH)

Serial dilutions
Precipitate with polyethylene glycol (PEG)

A

Serial dilutions

1283
Q

What is the best test to determine apoptosis? (2003, 2005, 2009, 2013, 2014, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Caspase gene
Frozen tissue section
H&E
TUNEL assay

A

TUNEL assay

*apoptosis in ovarian tissue: all of these are correct - DNA ladder testing, flow cytometry, TUNEL assay, Comet assay, IHC for caspase-3

1284
Q

How is apoptosis in ovarian tissue quantitated? (2003)

In situ hybridization
Histochemical testing on frozen section
DNA ladder testing

A

DNA ladder testing

1285
Q

What is least likely to cause an assay shift? (2014, 2015)

Too many samples
Minimal time putting in stopping reagent
Minimizing time between samples

A

Minimizing time between samples

1286
Q

What is the best strategy to minimize assay drift in a large sample? (2011, 2023 NIH)

Put on ice
Do small samples
Add antibody first
Use less antibody in early samples

A

Put on ice

1287
Q

What is the sandwich assay best for detecting? (2011)

Binding of receptors
Phosphorylated receptors
Density of receptors

A

Density of receptors

1288
Q

How can you quantify the number of LH receptors on Leydig cells? (2007, 2011)

RT-PCR
Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Scatchard plot
Histochemistry
Immunofluorescence

A

Scatchard plot

1289
Q

How many moles of hormone are in the serum? (2009, 2023 NIH)

10-4 – 10-7
10-7 – 10-9
10-9 – 10-11
10-11 – 10-13

A

10-7 – 10-9

1290
Q

What is the most accurate way to measure steroid hormones? (2015)

Mass spectrometry
HPLC
Others

A

Mass spectrometry

1291
Q

What is the best way to identify the action of a newly identified progestin on the endometrium? (2021)

Something about mice endometrial tissue (no mention of estrogen priming)

Something about estrogen-primed rabbit endometrial tissue

ELISA

Sounds like the description of an radioimmunoassay (RIA)

A

Something about estrogen-primed rabbit endometrial tissue

1292
Q

How do you test progestin on an estrogen-primed endometrium? (2015, 2016)

Rabbit
Mice
Others

A

Rabbit

1293
Q

How to find out what is the most potent progestin? (2023 NIH)

Rabbit primed endometrium and see endometrial growth with progesterone

Mice decidualization

Renal clearance in a monkey

Decidua of a monkey

A

Rabbit primed endometrium and see endometrial growth with progesterone

1294
Q

What is the most specific assay for 17-beta-estradiol? (2011, 2012, 2018)

Direct immunoassay
Reco LC-MS or GC-MS
ELISA
Noncompetitive assay
Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Gas chromatography

A

Reco LC-MS or GC-MS

1295
Q

Some type of chromatographic technique is used in a sample with low levels of estradiol to improve what aspect of the assay? (1999)

Specificity
Accuracy
Precision
Sensitivity

A

Sensitivity

1296
Q

Why are testosterone levels so difficult to measure in women? (Why are testosterone assays in women so unreliable?) (2011, 2012)

Lack of specificity
Lack of sensitivity
BMI

Why are testosterone levels so difficult to measure in women? (2011, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Low assay sensitivity
Low assay specificity
BMI
Fluctuating concentration in menopause
Menstrual variation

A

Lack of sensitivity

Low assay sensitivity

1297
Q

What is the most accurate way to detect estradiol? (2023 NIH)

HPLC
ELISA

A

HPLC (high performance liquid chromatography or MS)

1298
Q

What is the gold standard for measuring free testosterone? (2013, 2019)

Mass spectrometry
Equilibrium dialysis
Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
Immunoradiometric assay (IRMA)
Calculating with SHBG

A

Equilibrium dialysis

1299
Q

You are performing an assay on a new protein using radioiodine and the protein fails to bind to your label (failure of iodination). What is the protein most likely lacking? (1999, 2011, 2012)

Histidine or cysteine residues
Tyrosine (residues)
Correct hormone conformation

What causes failure to iodinate a new protein? (2001, 2007, 2018, 2023 NIH)

Excess tyrosine residues
Increased TSH
No tyrosine residues available
Abnormal receptor binding
Correct amino acid sequence for binding

Why would you be unable to label a protein? (2023 NIH)

Not enough amino acids
No phenylalanine or tyrosine

A

Tyrosine (residues)

No tyrosine residues available

No phenylalanine or tyrosine

1300
Q

What is meant by accuracy? (2023 NIH)

A

The extent to which a given measurement agrees with the actual value

1301
Q

What is the interassay coefficient of variation? (2020)

SD/mean for multiple values of one assay
SD/mean for multiple values of many assays
Other options that didn’t make sense

A

SD/mean for multiple values of many assays

1302
Q

What is increased if there is a leftward shift in a standard curve? (2007)

Sensitivity
Specificity
Validity
Accuracy

A

Sensitivity

1303
Q

Multiple samples are giving the same result. What is characteristic of this result? (2016, 2017)

Precision
Accuracy

A

Precision

1304
Q

What is the specificity of a given assay? (2018)

Smallest amount of a substance that can be measured
Capacity to measure only the substance in question
Ability to distinguish protein (large molecules) from steroid (small molecules)
Ability to reproduce test

A

Capacity to measure only the substance in question

1305
Q

What does an LH in vitro bioassay test for? (2005, 2014, 2023 NIH)

A

Immunologic specificity

1306
Q

What do you worry about if a test is binding at 5%? (2007)

Accuracy
Precision

A

Accuracy

1307
Q

A sample is purified before running an assay. What does this improve? (2010)

Accuracy
Precision

A

Accuracy

1308
Q

The best definition of the statistical accuracy of an assay? (2018, 2021)

The reproducibility of results over multiple tests from the same patient

The reproducibility of results over multiple tests from multiple patients

The reproducibility of results compared to a blank tube spiked with known antigen

The reproducibility of an assay over time

A

The reproducibility of results compared to a blank tube spiked with known antigen

1309
Q

What is the formula for plasma production rate? (What is the plasma production rate of a hormone equivalent to?) (2011, 2012, 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2023 NIH)

(MCR+2C)/C
MCR/C
MCRxC
C/MCR
C+MCR

A

MCRxC

1310
Q

What are the units for MCR? (2012)

A

L/day

1311
Q

The discipline within clinical pharmacology that broadly describes the changes in the quantity of drug and/or drug metabolite in various body compartments over time. These changes can be described by four processes: absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

A

Pharmacokinetics

1312
Q

Study of how a drug affects an organism physiologically and biochemically, such as the relationships between the measured drug concentration and its efficacy and adverse effects

A

Pharmacodynamics

1313
Q

What is the effect of shifting the curve to the right? (2012, 2013, 2018)

Competitive agonist
Competitive antagonist
Noncompetitive antagonist
Irreversible antagonist

A

Competitive antagonist

1314
Q

The Arias-Stella reaction most commonly occurs in the presence of which of the following? (2021)

Chorionic tissue
Granulosa cell tumor
Theca-luteoma tumor
Can’t remember what else

A

Chorionic tissue

1315
Q

What is found on histology of granulosa cell tumors? (2018)?

Call-Exner bodies

A

Call-Exner bodies

1316
Q

What is seen on histology in endometritis? (2014, 2015, 2017, 2018)

A

Plasma cells

1317
Q

A 46yoF has an endometrial biopsy performed. She is perimenopausal. (Gave an image of what I thought was simple hyperplasia without atypia) What is the best treatment? (2012, 2023 NIH)

Hysterectomy
OCPs
Cyclic progesterone

A

Cyclic progesterone

1318
Q

Salpingitis isthmica nodosa (SIN) has which of the following findings? (2011)

Endometrial implants on histology
Inflammation and tubal scarring
Increased smooth muscle hypertrophy

A

Increased smooth muscle hypertrophy

1319
Q

(A histologic slide showing seminiferous tubule) History notes that the man has azoospermia. What is the diagnosis? (2023 NIH)

Sertoli only
FSH receptor defect
CBAVD

A

Sertoli only

1320
Q

Which histologic picture would be seen with prolonged progestin treatment? (2003)

(photomicrograph of endometrium with atrophic glands)

A

(photomicrograph of endometrium with atrophic glands)

1321
Q

What is closest to prevalence? (2007)

Morbidity rate
Mortality rate
Disease rate on autopsy
Attack rate

A

Morbidity rate

1322
Q

Referring to a 2x2 table, what does D/D+B represent? (2009, 2023 NIH)

Sensitivity
Specificity
NPV

A

Specificity

1323
Q

What best characterizes receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve? (2023 NIH)

Shift to left indicates decrease in accuracy
The best way to demonstrate interrelationship of sensitivity and specificity
Demonstrates that at each point there is a tradeoff between false negatives and sensitivity

A

The best way to demonstrate interrelationship of sensitivity and specificity

1324
Q

What will shift the receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve to the left? (2023 NIH)

Increased sensitivity
Increased specificity
Increased accuracy

A

Increased accuracy