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E-7 Exam > Remebered Questions > Flashcards

Remebered Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Inst for mishap reporting?

A

OPNAVINST 5102.1

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2
Q

When bottom mix is less than 16%, EGS shall be?

A

15-17%

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3
Q

Max time on O2 on an in-water stop?

A

30 min

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4
Q

Course of action on mixed gas dive with a of 3 min arriving to first stop?

A

Round delay up to the next whole minute and add to BT, recompute T/S. If there is a change in schedule, perform missed deeper stop at divers current depth.

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5
Q

What is course of action if you have a delay of 8 min at 70 fsw?

A

Shift to air, at completion of delay, return to 50/50 add the time in air to the bottom time and recalculate required decompression. If new schedule is required, pick up the new schedule and ignore missed stops that were deeper.

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6
Q

Loss of bottom mix on bottom?

A

Shift to EGS, abort dive

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7
Q

Complete loss of 50/50 at 70 fsw?

A

Shift to air, complete decompression on air, shit to o2 at 50 fsw, complete no more than 16 min of o2 at 50 fsw. Add remaining 50 fsw time to 40 fsw stop. Sur d at completion of 40 fsw stop.

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8
Q

On a surface supplied air decompression dive, during the chamber phase you completely lose o2 at 40 fsw and 50/50 is available, COA?

A

Multiply remaining O2 time by 2, allocate 10% at 40, 20% at 30, 70% at 20.

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9
Q

On a mixed gas dive, red diver has twitching in his eye at 70 fsw, COA?

A

Up 10, shift to air. Shift during travel. Ventilate affected diver.

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10
Q

COA for a diver who is convulsing at 20 fsw?

A

Shift to air and Sur D once the patient is stable

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11
Q

PPO2 should never be greater than what in mixed gas diving?

A

1.3 ata

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12
Q

For 1.3 HeO2 diving, what are allowed amounts of dives?

A

One 0-200 d dive and three additional no-d dives

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13
Q

The last decompression stop taken in MK16 diving?

A

20 fsw

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14
Q

What must be done if a diver has not conducted a MK16 dive in previous 6 months?

A

Familiarize with OPs and EPs and conduct decompression training dives

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15
Q

Who’s authorization is required to use a non navy level 3 chamber?

A

CO

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16
Q

What instruction delegates the use of non navy level 1 or 2 chambers?

A

OPNAVINST 3150.27

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17
Q

5 line pulls in MK16 diving means?

A

I have exceeded my planned depth

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18
Q

Where do you lower the EBS during MK16 diving?

A

At least 40 fsw

Recommended 50 fsw if first stop is shallower than 40 fsw

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19
Q

COA dive has pain in knee during undress phase?

A

Compress to 50 fsw with IT, conduct neuro. Increase O2 time at 50 fsw from 15 to 30 min if neuro reveals no abnormalities

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20
Q

COA for an asymptomatic diver who has been on the surface for 4 min and missed his 20 foot stop?

A

Sur D or return to depth and multiply stop time by 1.5

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21
Q

COA if an asymptomatic diver missed a stop deeper than 50 fsw?

A

Compress to 165 and start a TT6A

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22
Q

Who do you contact for diving at altitudes above 10000 feet?

A

NAVSEA 00C

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23
Q

How much fluid should you drink before warm water diving?

A

500 ml

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24
Q

How many personnel are required for a mixed gas dive side? One/two

A

12/14

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25
Q

Who must be formally trained mix gas divers on a mixed gas dive side?

A

Diving officer, mdv, dive sup

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26
Q

Following a mixed gas d dive, how many hours are required before another dive?

A

18 hrs

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27
Q

When do you shift to 50/50?

A

90 fsw

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28
Q

Instruments that measure mixed gas diving should be within what accuracy?

A

+/- 0.5%

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29
Q

Who verifies the air purity before DDS operations?

A

Diving Medical Officer

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30
Q

Quals of DDS personnel shall be submitted to the _____ before operations.

A

Host Ship CO

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31
Q

How many scuba bottles can be placed in the hangar?

A

24 bottles (13 port, 11 stbd)

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32
Q

What is your course of action if you have a loss of pressurization (DDS)?

A

Opens the blow

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33
Q

What does the Stop Lock mean? Where does it secure operations?

A

Sphere operator should first stop what he is doing. Inside the shelter, outside the shelter, inside the host ship, or outside the host ship

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34
Q

Tag out audits are conducted every ____?

A

2 weeks

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35
Q

How many seconds should you visually check the oxygen flow in a horizontal position before cutting?

A

20 seconds

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36
Q

What gas law would apply in regard to having an over pressure valve on a lift bag?

A

Boyles law

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37
Q

What condition is represented when a diver falls into cold water and his heart rate slows?

A

Bradycardia

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38
Q

Single depth oxygen limit 25 fsw. How many minutes are allowed?

A

240

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39
Q

COA for a diver with a punctured Tempatic Membrane?

A

Refer to medical

40
Q

Who is a diver referred to with Perilymph Fistula?

A

ENT doctor

41
Q

What is the allowable co ppm in US navy breathing air requirements?

A

10 ppm

42
Q

A command smooth log is maintained for how long after the date of the dive?

A

3 years

43
Q

What command do you ship 3m records to in a mishap?

A

NAVSEA 00C

44
Q

Mission essential scuba diving operations can have minimum Manning lowered to what amount?

A

4 (three divers and one non diver)

45
Q

From tender to diver, what is 3-2 line pull?

A

Ventilate

46
Q

What is the maximum approved depth for DP1?

A

190 fsw

47
Q

What is the maximum weight that will be lifted during diver handling operations?

A

Operational Load

48
Q

When does oxygen stop time start upon arrival to first stop?

A

When divers ventilate and are confirmed on oxygen

49
Q

Travel rate from 40 fsw to the surface for sur d?

A

40 fsw/m

50
Q

What is the maximum depth for nitrox diving?

A

140 fsw

51
Q

COA for an asymptomatic mk16 diver who missed his 20 fsw stop and was on surface for 3 minutes?

A

Return to 20 fsw. Multiply time by 1.5 and resume decompression

52
Q

A DMO shall be consulted for what treatment tables?

A

4, 7, 8

53
Q

How long must diver candidates stay in the immediate chamber vicinity?

A

15 min

54
Q

A diver having a drooling side to his face is being affected by what nerve?

A

Facial (VII)

55
Q

What test is performed in cranial nerve VIII?

A

Tuning fork near patients ears

56
Q

What are the 50/50 breathing periods at 165 fsw?

A

25 min on 50/50, 5 min on air

57
Q

What is considered a reasonable time frame of reaching a recompression facility in the case of a diver leaving or not leaving the water for DCS?

A

12-24 hrs

58
Q

Course of action for when a DMO has you switch to a treatment table 7 at 30 FSW?

A

Compress to 60 fsw at 20 fpm and begin TT7

59
Q

You have completed a TT5 15 hours ago and are about to complete another TT5. How many minutes are required for the tender to breath O2?

A

20 (prev hyperbarics) + 30 (on ascent) = 50 min

60
Q

How many minutes of tender O2 breathing are required for a TT6 on an un modified table and the tender had a previous hyperbaric exposure in the last 18 hrs?

A

120 min

61
Q

What is tender O2 breathing requirement for a tender on a TT6A? Previous exposure and 4 extensions?

A

180 min

62
Q

Treatments should not be administered on a daily basis for more than ____ days without a break of at least 1 day.

A

5

63
Q

Anticoagulants should never be used for what condition?

A

DCS/AGE

64
Q

What dose of steroids are given in DCS/AGE?

A

Never use steroids

65
Q

If patient cannot tolerate oxygen at 45 fsw, what depth can you use?

A

30 Fsw

66
Q

Chamber pressure tests are conducted to ____ fsw?

A

225

67
Q

When are gag valves closed?

A

In the event of relief valve failure

68
Q

Fire spreads _____ faster than in the atmosphere.

A

2-6 times faster

69
Q

EF Houghton 1192 temperature range

A

80-120

70
Q

What is an electrode constructed of a silver mes screen that has been treated with silver chloride. It is mounted in a domed, 9 inch diameter circular polyvinyl chloride holder.

A

Reference cell

71
Q

What level Uwsh inspector can complete invasive inspections?

A

Level 3

72
Q

Divers cannot leave the dive station for a single valve protection until?

A

Commanding officer releases them

73
Q

What is the best suitable cofferdam /patch for a destroyer with an 8 inch hole?

A

Flat patch? Expandable plug? Dc plug?

74
Q

For a CPP blade replacement, ensure there is no more than ____ degree of list.

A

1 degree

75
Q

HP-2 maximum bond strength for sonar rubber dome repair is not reached until a minimum of ____ days has elapsed.

A

5

76
Q

What is the best diligent mixture in MK16 helium oxygen diving?

A

88/12

77
Q

A physical screening test is required within ____ days prior to transfer to ND A School?

A

30 days

78
Q

Vessels displaying three balls in a vertical line means:

A

Run aground

79
Q

Hard fouling starts when?

A

FR40

80
Q

What is the highest priority of hull cleaning?

A

Propellers

81
Q

To clean an aircraft carrier, it must be breasted out ____ feet from the pier.

A

20 ft

82
Q

To clean an underwater hull, the keel must be ____ from the bottom.

A

6 ft

83
Q

The primary tension element of a tow is the _____

A

Main tow hawser

84
Q

What powers the TRCS CO2 scrubber?

A

Compressed air

85
Q

A request for an on-site survey must be made to the SCA at least ____ days prior to the desired date of the survey?

A

90 days

86
Q

What is a category 2 card?

A

Corrective action is desirable, but not mandatory

87
Q

What survey card is appropriate for having outdated system drawings?

A

1C

88
Q

Corrective action must be accomplished on a specific component prior to its use, but the overall system retains very. What card is this?

A

1D

89
Q

How long must rev packages be retained for a component?

A

Life of the component

90
Q

Umbilicals are proof tested to _____ %

A

200

91
Q

Diver hot water hose is proof tested to ____

A

100 psi or twice the working pressure for ten min

92
Q

Non life support diving equipment that may exhibit inherent attribute that are hazardous to a diver is considered what category in the AMU?

A

Category 2

93
Q

Annual checks can be +/- how many days from the scheduled date?

A

+/- 90

94
Q

What is your course of action for helmet flooding in a km37?

A

Immediately assume an upright position and tilt head down, open steady flow

95
Q

Tags on relief valves must list what at a minimum?

A

Valve number, lift pressure, test date, and testing activity

96
Q

Electrical switches in the DDS can be used up to ____ %

A

22

E-7 Exam (3 decks)

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