MDV Greg Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Information or mishaps are provided to the navy safety center through what?

A

Dive reporting systems IAW OPNAVINST 5102.1 via Web Enabled Safety System (WESS)

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2
Q

FAR can be reported online via what form?

A

NAVSEA form 10560/1 on supsalv

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3
Q

Who signs dive logs?

A

SUP
MDV
DO

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4
Q

What Inst. provides instructions for mishaps/casualties/hyperbaric tx?

A

OPNAVINST 5102.1

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5
Q

Accident

A

Unexpected even that culminates that results in loss of serious equipment, injury, or death to personnel

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6
Q

Incident

A

Unexpected event that degrades safety and increases probability of an accident.

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7
Q

Who conducts investigations on any FAR?

A

NEDU

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8
Q

Cat 1a

A

Corrective action must be accomplished prior to manned use

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9
Q

Cat 1b

A

Corrective action must be accomplished prior to system certification. (Note: system certification cannot be completed until corrective action has been taken to clear all Cat 1a and 1b survey cards)

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10
Q

Cat 1c

A

Corrective action must be accomplished prior to the date or event specified on the card to sustain certification

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11
Q

Cat 1d

A

Corrective action must be accomplished on a specific component before use but overall system retains its certification

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12
Q

Cat 2

A

Corrective action is desirable but not mandatory

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13
Q

Drop test

A

Air system above 1000 psig- 24hrs allowable drop of 1%

Air system below 1000 psig- 6hrs allowable drop of 5%

HeO2/O2 systems- 24hrs allowable drop of 1%

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14
Q

How far out much do you request system recertification

A

90 days

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15
Q

SCA May extend system Certification in the following circumstances

A
  1. When emergency operational commitment of the system prevent it from being available at the time of the expiration of certification
  2. When the system is scheduled for overhaul within 90 days
  3. When the SCA is unavailable due to prior commitments
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16
Q

Condensate drain valve is outfitted with a thermal fuse that is designed to open at

A

217 degrees

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17
Q

What size filter does the ASRA have?

A

10 micron

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18
Q

Certification of all diving systems shall require drawings meeting requirements of

A

MIL-DTL-310000

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19
Q

How long me a person remain in trainee Diver status

A

24 months

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20
Q

With who’s discretion may a qualified non-US military Diver Dive

A

CO, OIC, or senior diving recommendation

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21
Q

When should commands and units conduct safety surveys

A

24 months

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22
Q

How often should a DORI be done?

A

24 months but not exceeding 36 months

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23
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to ensure detailed technical reviews of the system designs are conducted in formally documented

A

Dive system acquisition manager

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24
Q

Hydrostatic strength test

A

Verification that strength is 150% of max operation pressure using a compatible incompressible fluid

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25
Q

Joint tightness test

A

100% of max operating pressure

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26
Q

When is a pressure drop test performed

A

Required when major work has been done to the entire system. Entire system defined as removal or installation of the system gas flask or fabrication of 10 or more welded or braised or mechanical joints where installation of the new system that does not contain gas flask

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27
Q

Who can authorize the use of a certified recompression chamber greater than six hours

A

Approval in writing by the CO

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28
Q

When can a non-navy chamber for levels one or to be used

A

Approval in writing by CNO

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29
Q

When can a non-navy chamber for level three be used

A

Approved by the CO in writing

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30
Q

What is the minimum air requirement for a category D chamber primary air supply

A

Sufficient to press the inner lock once in the outer lock twice to 165

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31
Q

Do not allow O2 takes to be depleted below

A

100 psi

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32
Q

When shall a pressure test be conducted on a Navy chamber

A

Initially installed
2 year interval
Major overhaul/repair

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33
Q

When may ventilation be interrupted

A

For any reason, not to exceed :05 in any :30 period

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34
Q

What is the depth and length of stay for a Diver candidate pressure test

A

60/:10

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35
Q

Who can modify treatments?

A

DMO’s with subspecialty codes 16UO/16U1 with concurrence w/ the CO

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36
Q

Recompression chamber system must have a primary and secondary system
capable of conducting?

A

tt6a

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37
Q

How long do you stay at depth for a TT-4?

A

30-120 min

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38
Q

What Type 1 symptom does not require treatment?

A

Itching and rashes

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39
Q

How long are O2 breathing periods on TT-4 &

TT-7?

A

:25(o2)/:05(air)

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40
Q

Both patient and tender on a TT-7 breathe O2 for how long?

A

4 hrs, beginning no later than 2 hrs before assent

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41
Q

When may a patient fly after treatment?

A

72 hours, complete relief. Residual Sx concurrence with DMO

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42
Q

What are the normal operational limits for SS mixed gas diving?

A

300/:30

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43
Q

What is the difference between gauge pressure and absolute pressure?

A

Gauge measures the difference between atm pressure and the pressure being
measured. Absolute pressure measures the total pressure exerted

44
Q

What is the required S/I between ascents to altitude for mixed gas diving?

A

12hrs no ‘D’, 24 hrs ‘D’

45
Q

Helium/Oxygen mixtures must be analyzed for O2 content with an instrument
having an accuracy of?

A

0.5%

46
Q

What are the minimum O2% allowed for depths up to 200’ and depths in access
of 200’?

A

Up to 200’=14% and 10% greater than 200’.

47
Q

Can a diver repet after aborting a mixed gas diving deeper than 100’?

A

no, only shallower than 100’

48
Q

How long should a diver wait after arriving at altitude before making the 1st
dive?

A

12 hrs

49
Q

State the rules for altitude correction factors?

A

0’-300’ no correction required
300’-1000’ correction required for all dives deeper
than 145’
greater than 1000’ correction required for all dives.

50
Q

What is the ORM instruction?

A

OPNAVINST 3500.39 series

51
Q

What is the NAVSEA Underwater Ships Husbandry manual?

A

S0600-AA-PRO-010

52
Q

What must be present for ascent training to be conducted?

A

Qualified Instructors
DMT on station
DMO available
Chamber w/ in :5

53
Q

Below what temperature is hot water suits/dry suits recommended?

A

40 degrees

54
Q

What OPNAVINST shall all personnel involved in handling explosives be
qualified IAW?

A

OPNAVINST 8023.2 series

55
Q

What is the preferred type of signal flare?

A

MK 99 Mod 3

56
Q

What reference provides guidance on suspension on diving duty for pregnant
service women?

A

NAVMEDCOMINST 6200.15

57
Q

OSHA requirements for US Navy civilian diver utilizing scuba?

A

No dives deeper than 130’
no dives deeper than 100’ or outside no D limits
unless a recompression chamber is available within :5 of dive station

58
Q

OSHA requirements for US Navy civilian diver utilizing Mixed Gas Diving?

A

Depths deeper than 220’ unless a bell diving system is used with a total in water
decompression time greater than :120

59
Q

How long shall USN Civilian divers remain at the chamber?

A

Divers shall

remain at the chamber for 1 hour for any dives that require a level 1 chamber.

60
Q

What is considered a high-pressure air cylinder/flask?

A

600 psi

61
Q

What is the recommended shape or dimension of water entry hole when diving underneath ice?

A

Triangle with 6ft sides or rectangle 6x3ft

62
Q

When shall a redundant scuba system be used?

A

Where water temperature is at or below 37 degrees.

63
Q

What is a redundant scuba system?

A

Twin scuba bottles each having a k valve and approved cold-water
regulator or twin scuba bottles with one common manifold with an
approved cold-water regulator with octopus.

64
Q

What is the minimum equipment required by every navy scuba diver for diving under ice operations?

A

Stainless steel ice screws and the other equipment required in normal dive operations.

65
Q

Single hose regulator shall be equipped with what during cold water diving operations?

A

Antifreeze cap filled with liquid silicone.

66
Q

What manual should be referred to for prolong cold water diving for thermal protection of support personnel and equipment?

A

Polar operations manual.

67
Q

Tending line must be marked how?

A

Marked every ten feet and be secured on bitter end.

68
Q

What is the minimum diameter of the spoked wheel?

A

60 feet

69
Q

What kind of tending line has been proven to be the best lifeline?

A

Polypropylene braided or twisted line because it will float.

70
Q

What are the 5 methods of reducing ground reaction to aid in refloating?

A
Weight management
induced buoyancy
ground removal
lifting
temporary reductions
71
Q

What is the maximum total lift of the T-ARS50 capable of?

A

300 tons when used in bow rollers and in conjunction with the stern rollers

72
Q

What is the official record jacket for the chronological documentation of medical and dental evaluations, care, treatments and occupational health?

A

U.S. Navy

Medical Outpatient and Dental Treatment Record (NAVMED 6150/21-30)

73
Q

All Divers must have a minimum corrected visual acuity of?

A

20/25 in one eye.

74
Q

All designated divers require surveillance of hearing by having an audiogram performed at a minimum of how many years?

A

Every 5 years. If at any time a persisting significant threshold shift is documented, follow up per occupational health and audiology requirements is mandated and surveillance must occur at a mini- mum of every 2 years.

75
Q

What are the 3 categories on the AMU list?

A

Category 1- Life support diving equipment
Category 2- Non-life support equipment that is potentially hazardous
Category 3- Non-life support equipment that enhances mission capability, but is not considered hazardous

76
Q

Which manual provides general information and guidance necessary to clean,
inspect, and repair monobloc and controllable pitch propellers (CPP)?

A

NSTM

CH. 245

77
Q

For a propeller change, the ship should have a minimum of water depth at the stern of at least how many feet?

A

10 feet greater than the ship’s draft.

78
Q

Who will provide guidance on the application and quantity of explosives to be used on a case basis if the use of explosives is judged necessary?

A

NAVSEA OOC5

79
Q

Which preservative is authorized for waterborne replacement?

A

MIL-L-21260, the highest available grade 40W, minimum grade 30W

80
Q

Using a hand-held hydraulic grinder with what type of marine cleaning disk are used to externally scrub the emitter belt from the waterline to the keel?

A

D-3 or D-5

81
Q

The 37-foot lance is used for what? The 50-foot lance is used for what?

A

37’= plate access belts, 50’= plug access belts

82
Q

HP-2 pot life is approximately how many minutes?

A

50 minutes. Workability of HP-2 starts to degrade within 30 minutes.

83
Q

HP-2 maximum bond strength is not reached until a minimum cure time of how many days?

A

5 days has elapsed.

84
Q

What are the speed trials after completion?

A

One hour at 12 knots, One hour at 15 knots and One hour at 18-20 knots

85
Q

What is the maximum allowable corrosion on any area of the patch is less than or equal to a reduction?

A

25% in member thickness

86
Q

How do you Air blast test repair on welds?

A

Air blast test consists of directing 90 PSI

87
Q

How many winches are located in the hanger?

A

3 total, 1 electrical (AC Winch) , 2 hand operated

88
Q

What are all the things the DDS is dependent from its host submarine?

A

Air, Ventilation, drainage and electrical power

89
Q

What are the length, height and weight (Dry/flooded) of the DDS?

A

40’ long, 10’ high and 35 tons dry, 51 tons flooded

90
Q

Where are the DDS ops controlled?

A

From the control room

91
Q

Power distribution for all DDS Spheres is controlled from where?

A

the transfer truck

92
Q

How many K-valves does each manifold have?

A

4-manifolds consisting of 5 k-valves

93
Q

How many scuba bottles can be transported in the hanger port and Stbd?

A

24 total, 13 port & 11 Stbd

94
Q

How many swing bolts lock the hanger door in place?

A

18

95
Q

How are the Power Panels protected?

A

3-5 psi Nitrogen blanket

96
Q

How many Bibs are in the hyperbaric chamber?

A

6

97
Q

What does the transfer trunk serve as a lock between?

A

The hanger, the chamber and the host ship

98
Q

How much air can the blower in the recompression chamber move?

A

40 cfm

99
Q

How long is the portable track that extends out from the hanger?

A

21’

100
Q

What the max occupancy of the DDS hanger?

A

21 personnel

101
Q

How many cycles can the accumulator cycle the door?

A

1 ½ times

102
Q

How many portable track supports are there and what are they specifically used
for?

A

4 tracks supports used for loading and unloading the SDV pier side

103
Q

How many swing bolts?

A

18

104
Q

What are the limitations, depth and speed of the host ship during DDS ops?

A

Max 130 fsw and 1.5 knots

105
Q

Use of the ships emergency main ballast tank blow system from below a keel depth of how many feet will exceed the maximum ascent rate for divers?

A

45’

106
Q

If o2 is not added to the breathing circuit how long will the breathing mixture sustain life?

A

2-5 min

107
Q

What shall be in service at all times during DDS operations and scuba charging?

A

CO2 absorber