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Physio Exam 2 > Released Qs > Flashcards

Released Qs Flashcards

1
Q
  1. With acute hemorrhage, which of the following occurs to COMPENSATE:
A

b) Heart Rate increases, total peripheral resistance increases, mean arterial pressure increases

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2
Q
  1. The following comprise the microcirculation:
A

e) Arterioles, capillaries, venules

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3
Q
  1. When examining the Frank-Starling curve comparing the stroke volume versus end-diastolic ventricular volume curves in a failing heart before and after fluid retention, fluid retention will initially cause (best answer):
    a) Decreased stroke volume
    b) Increased stroke volume
    c) Increased stroke volume and decreased end-diastolic volume
    d) Increased stroke volume and increased end-diastolic volume
    e) Decreased stroke volume and increased end-diastolic volume
A

d) Increased stroke volume and increased end-diastolic volume

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4
Q
  1. The increase in cardiac output during exercise is due predominantly to:
    a) Increased stroke volume
    b) Increased total peripheral resistance
    c) Increased heart rate
    d) Increased parasympathetic output to the heart
    e) None of the above
A

a and c

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5
Q
  1. With regard to the cardiac cycle, during ISOVOLUMETRIC CONTRACTION:
    a) The AV valves are closed and aortic and pulmonary valves are open
    b) The AV valves are open and the aortic and pulmonary valves are open
    c) The AV valves are closed and the aortic and pulmonary valves are closed
    d) The AV valves are open and the aortic and pulmonary valves are closed
    e) None of the above
A

C

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6
Q
  1. With regard to the Cardiac cycle, during VENTRICULAR FILLING:
    a) The AV valves are closed and the aortic and pulmonary valves are open
    b) The AV valves are open and the aortic and pulmonary valves are open
    c) The AV valves are closed and the aortic and pulmonary valves are closed
    d) The AV valves are open and the aortic and pulmonary valves are closed
    e) None of the above
A

d

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7
Q
  1. Regarding developed force during contraction and the rates of contraction and relaxation, sympathetic stimulation of ventricular contraction and relaxation causes:
    a) A stronger and more rapid contraction and more rapid rate of relaxation
    b) A stronger but less rapid contraction and more rapid rate of relaxation
    c) An equivalent forces but a less rapid contraction and less rapid rate of relaxation
    d) A diminished but more rapid contraction and a more rapid rate of relaxation
    e) A stronger but a more rapid contraction and equivalent rate of relaxation
A

a

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8
Q
  1. With regards to E-C coupling
    a) Depolarization of the plasma membrane results in opening of the L-type calcium channels that results in the flow of calcium into the cytosol
    b) Calcium binds to the calcium receptors (ryanodine receptors) on the sarcoplasmic reticulum causing opening of these channels and flow of calcium into the cytosol thereby increasing the cytosolic calcium concentration that via interaction with the actin/myosin complex results in muscle contraction
    c) Depolarization of the plasma membrane results in opening of the L-type calcium channels that results in flow of calcium out the cytosol
    d) A and B are correct
A

d

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9
Q
  1. Reopening of ___________ channels PLUS closing ________ channels are responsible for the repolarization phase of the action potential in autorhythmic cardiac cells (nodal).
    a) Potassium…sodium
    b) Sodium…potassium
    c) Hydrogen…potassium
    d) Potassium…calcium
    e) Sodium…calcium
A

d

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10
Q
  1. Factors that influence STROKE VOLUME are:
    a) Magnitude of sympathetic input to the ventricles
    b) The volume of blood in the ventricles just prior to contraction (preload, end-diastolic volume)
    c) The pressure against which the ventricle pumps (after load)
    d) All of the above
    e) None of the above
A

d

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11
Q

Beta receptors in ventricles affect

A

stroke volume, in atria they affect HR.

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12
Q
  1. The posterior pituitary comes from what embryonic structure?
    a) Diencephalon
    b) Rathke’s pouch
    c) Neurohypophyseal bud
    d) Infundibulum
A

c

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13
Q
  1. Which two hormones are released from the posterior pituitary?
    i. Oxytocin
    ii. FSH
    iii. LH
    iv. Vasopressin
    a) A and B
    b) A and C
    c) A and D
A

C

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14
Q
  1. This type of negative feedback is self-regulation by the product/hormone of the ultimate target tissue
    a) Long loop
    b) Short loop
A

a

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15
Q
  1. This type of negative feedback is self-regulation by the product/hormone from the 2nd gland affects the action of the 1st gland on the axis
    a) Long loop
    b) Short loop
A

b

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16
Q
  1. What is the function of the colloid in the thyroid?
    a) To produce calcium
    b) To excrete iodine
    c) To store T3 and T4
    d) To break down follicular cells
A

c

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17
Q
  1. ____ is the more potent thyroid hormone and constitutes only 10% of thyroid hormone released. ____ is less potent, constitutes the other 90% released but only 80% is converted to the more potent form; its function is to store iodide.
    a) T3, T4
    b) T4, T3
    c) T2, T3
    d) T2, T4
A

A

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18
Q
  1. This protein transporter shuttles iodide into the colloid
    a) Thyroid peroxidase
    b) Aromatase
    c) Tyrosine oxidase
    d) Pendrin
A

d

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19
Q
  1. This enzyme oxidizes iodide and links it to thyroglobin to make monoiodotyrosine and diiodotyrosine.
    a) Thyroid peroxidase
    b) Aromatase
    c) Tyrosine oxidase
    d) Pendrin
A

a

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20
Q
  1. Autotransfusion refers to:
    a) Donating blood prior to surgery
    b) Reduction of mean arterial pressure at the capillary level to increase absorption and reduce filtration to help protect blood volume
    c) The increase of mean arterial pressure at the capillary level to reduce adsorption and increase filtration to help protect blood volume
    d) Reduction of mean arterial pressure at the capillary level to reduce adsorption and increase filtration to help protect blood volume
    e) The increase of mean arterial pressure at the capillary level to increase filtration to help protect blood volume
A

b

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21
Q
  1. Which thyroid disease is most common?
    a) Hypothyroidism
    b) Hyperthyroidism
    c) Cretenism
    d) Autoimmune thyroiditis
A

a

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22
Q
  1. What are the main symptoms of hypothyroidism?
    a) Sensitivity to cold
    b) Weight gain
    c) Myxadema
    d) Cretinism
    e) All of the above
A

e

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23
Q
  1. Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder that involves:
    a) Trauma to the thyroid gland
    b) Antibodies to TSH receptor stimulating the thyroid gland
    c) Immune cell response to  adrenergic receptors
    d) Problems with synthesis of TH
A

b

24
Q
  1. The main concern with hyperthyroidism in dental patients is:
    a) Myxadema
    b) Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
    c) Thyroid storm
    d) Goiter
A

d

25
Q
  1. Zona glomerulosa a)
A

Aldosterone

26
Q
  1. Zona faciculata a)
A

a) DHEA, androstenedione

27
Q
  1. Zona reticularis a)
A

a) Cortisol, corticosterone

28
Q
  1. This hormone acts on the kidney and affects blood pressure through sodium and water retention.
    a) Cortisol
    b) Estradiol
    c) Aldosterone
    d) Androstenedione
A

c

29
Q
  1. This hormone primarily functions through altering metabolic activity, and making glucose available while inhibiting non-essential functions.
    a) Cortisol
    b) Estradiol
    c) Aldosterone
    d) Androstenedione
A

a

30
Q
  1. There are two principle androgens secreted by the adrenal gland. Which one is more potent and is the main extragonadal source of testosterone and estradiol?
    a) DHEA
    b) Androstenedione
A

b

31
Q
  1. Which axis is responsible for the maintenance of BP, mobilization of metabolic fuel and inhibition of non-essential functions?
    a) Growth axis
    b) Stress axis
    c) Thyroid axis
A

b

32
Q
  1. This disease affects the adrenal glands. It is usually due to a pituitary tumor that leads to excess catabolism and presents with diabetes-like symptoms.
    a) Addison’s disease
    b) Cushing’s syndrome
    c) Crohn’s disease
    d) Asthma
A

b

33
Q
  1. What enzyme converts testosterone into its most potent form?
    a) Aromatase
    b) Aldosterone synthase
    c) Cholesterol esterase
    d) 5〈 reductase
A

d

34
Q
  1. What is an action of testosterone?
    a) Regulation of ovulation in the ovaries
    b) Production of secondary sex characteristics
    c) Regulation of appetite in the brain
    d) Synthesis of LH in response to DHEA
A

b

35
Q
  1. What are the functions of Sertoli cells in the seminiferous tubules?
    i. Regulation of spermatogenesis in response to FSH
    ii. Sequester testosterone within the testis
    iii. Secretion of inhibin- negative feedback on FSH
    a) I, II
    b) II, II
    c) All of the above
A

C

36
Q
  1. Which cells are located just outside of the ovarian follicle and synthesize androstenedione in response to LH?
    a) Follicular cells
    b) Theca cells
    c) Cumulus oophorus
    d) Granulosa cells
A

b

37
Q
  1. Which cells are located in the lining of the ovarian follicle and convert androstenedione to estradiol as well as secreting inhibin in response to FSH?
    a) Follicular cells
    b) Theca cells
    c) Cumulus oophorus
    d) Granulosa cells
A

d

38
Q
  1. This hormone increases mitosis in follicles, regulates oocyte development, leads to the development of secondary sex characteristics, regulates bone deposition as well as mood.
    a) Estradiol
    b) Progesterone
    c) Testosterone
    d) DHEA
A

a

39
Q
  1. This structure forms after ovulation, when the remaining theca and granulosa cells transform into luteal cells.
    a) Cumulus oophorus
    b) Ovarian follicle
    c) Corpus luteum
    d) Zygote
A

c

40
Q
  1. During the ovarian cycle, there are increased levels of FSH and LH during follicular development. A subsequent decrease in FSH causes the dominant follicle to trigger release of increased estradiol and inhibin.
    a) Both statements are true
    b) First true second false
    c) First false second true
    d) Both statements are false
A

a

41
Q
  1. During the ovarian cycle, meiosis II is completed, ovulation occurs, and corpus luteum forms to begin the luteal phase. If pregnancy does not occur, the corpus luteum regresses, progesterone and estrogen fall and slowly GnRH and LH increase.
    a) Both statements true
    b) First true second false
    c) First false second true
    d) Both statements false
A

c

42
Q
  1. During the uterine cycle, ________ from developing follicles stimulates endometrial proliferation.
    a) FSH
    b) LH
    c) Estrogen
    d) Progesterone
A

c

43
Q
  1. If pregnancy occurs, this hormone is produced by the placenta, is similar to LH and maintains stimulation of the corpus luteum until the full development of the uterus.
    a) FSH
    b) hCG
    c) Estrogen
    d) Progesterone
A

b

44
Q
  1. What is the main cause of menopause?
    a) Loss of ovarian follicles due to atresia of oocytes
    b) Decrease in steroidogenesis leading to loss of ovarian follicles
    c) Negative feedback from the hypothalamus to cause atrophy of the ovaries.
A

a

45
Q
  1. This protein encoded on the Y-chromosome causes sexual differentiation
    a) Mullerian inhibiting substance
    b) Testosterone
    c) Wolffian duct substance
    d) SRY Protein
A

d

46
Q
  1. Which endocrine defect is due to the loss of androgen receptors and a genotype XY with female phenotype?
    a) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
    b) 5〈 reductase deficiency
    c) Androgen insensitivity
A

c

47
Q
  1. Which endocrine defect is due to the loss of an enzyme that converts testosterone to DHT?
    a) Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
    b) 5〈 reductase deficiency
    c) Androgen insensitivity
A

b

48
Q
  1. Which two hormones from the hypothalamus regulate the growth axis?
    i. ACRH
    ii. CRH
    iii. GHRH
    iv. SS
    v. Dopamine
    a) I, III
    b) II, IV
    c) III, IV
    d) III, V
A

C

49
Q
  1. Pregnant women are particularly susceptible to gingivitis and periodontal disease due to elevated hormones that promote vasodilation and angiogenesis.
    a) T
    b) F
A

true

50
Q
  1. Long bone growth is regulated by the interaction of GH and IGF-1. GH stimulates the maturation of chondroblasts and IGF-1 stimulates Calcium deposition.
    a) Both statements true
    b) First true, second false
    c) First false, second true
    d) Both statements false
A

b

51
Q
  1. This hormone stimulates prepubertal bone growth.
    a) Testosterone
    b) Estradiol
    c) Progesterone
    d) hCG
A

b

52
Q
  1. Gigantism is caused by a pituitary tumor that inhibits feedback regulation and leads to a prepubertal onset of excess GH.
    a) T
    b) F
A

b

53
Q
  1. Achondroplasia is a growth condition that is due to Fibroblast growth factor being constantly activated and inhibition of regular cartilage growth.
    a) T
    b) F
A

true

54
Q
  1. What are the common dental concerns for patients with disorders of the growth axis?
    a) Increased tongue size
    b) Delayed epithelial shedding
    c) Decreased salivary function
    d) All of the above
A

d

55
Q
  1. Diabetes can affect the oral health of a patient through reduced salivary flow, decreased crevicular fluid flushing and decreased immune function
    a) T
    b) F
A

a

Physio Exam 2 (11 decks)

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