REHS Study Flashcards

1
Q

Most important phase in bacterial growth

A

Lag Phase

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2
Q

Exponential growth of bacteria

A

Log Phase

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3
Q

Environmental conditions and food may become restrictive, causing leveling of bacterial growth

A

Stationary Phase

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4
Q

Bacteria start accumulating waste products and toxins that kill each other

A

Death phases

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5
Q

Bacteria Growth Factors

A

Food, Acidity, Time, Temperature, Oxygen, Moisture

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6
Q

Bacteria require nutrients such as proteins and carbohydrates to reproduce

A

Food

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7
Q

Most microorganisms grow best at this pH

A

4.6pH to 7.0pH

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8
Q

This pH is considered out of potentially hazardous zone

A

<4.6 pH

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9
Q

With the right conditions bacteria reproduce…

A

every 15 - 30 minutes

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10
Q

What is the temperature danger zone

A

41F - 135F

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11
Q

Bacteria grow in aerobic and anaerobic conditions

A

Oxygen

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12
Q

Bacteria require water to survive

A

Moisture

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13
Q

Oxidation reduction potential provides…

A

ideal environment for anaerobes

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14
Q

Sous vide means…

A

Excluding air from the product

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15
Q

Key role in controlling lag phase of bacterial growth

A

Temperature and Time

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16
Q

Maximum hot food cooling time limits are as follows:

A

From 135F to 70F within first 2 hours. From 70F to 41F or below within 4 hours.

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17
Q

Hot Food Preservation

A

Do not put cold food in steam table. Steam table is used to keep hot food hot (135F- 165F), not to cook foods or warm foods. Fridge foods should be reheated to at least 165F (w/in 2 hours) prior to putting in steam table.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of canning?

A

To destroy organisms and not provide environment for which they can grow. Damaged cans introduce air, activation aerobic bacterial activity

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19
Q

Sodium nitrate

A

Malicious food additive, used to meat prevents growth of botulism and retains quality of food

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20
Q

Methemoglobinanemia

A

Infant ingestion of sodium nitrates causes Blue Baby Syndrome

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21
Q

Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)

A

Food additive produced naturally by use of bacterial decomposition. Known as flavor enhancer and meat tenderizer

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22
Q

Generally Regarded as Safe (GRAS)

A

FDA requires testing to certify if element is safe. Ex: ketchup, pepper, salad oil, vinegar

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23
Q

Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetate (EDTA)

A

Common additive to prevent botulism growth. Known to work better than nitrates, but unlike nitrates, does not stop oxidation of meat and color changes

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24
Q

Sulfurs (Sulfites)

A

Stops enzyme reaction in fruit/veggies, preserves food, prevents discoloration. Approved in manufacturing, must be labeled for use. Illegal to add in restaurants

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25
Q

Malachite Green

A

Can be used to detect addition of sulfites in food

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26
Q

Phosphoric Acid

A

Common in soft drink sodas to produce acidic reaction to enhance carbonation

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27
Q

Three categories for hamburger fat (%)

A

Regular Grade (no more than 30% fat)
Lean Grade (no more than 22% fat)
Extra Lean Grade (no more than 15% fat)
3 categories should not exceed 6-8% difference

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28
Q

Vending Machines

A

If vending machine holding temperature falls below minimum state required holding temp, then there is an automatic mechanism or switching device that locks the unit from further use until properly serviced

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29
Q

Food Illness Outbreak- CDC definition

A
  1. Two or more persons have the same disease, have similar clinical features or have the same pathogen
  2. A single case of suspect botulism
  3. A single case of mushroom poisoning
  4. A single case of ciguatera or paralytic shellfish poisoning or rare disease (Vibrio vulnificus)
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30
Q

Confirmed Case

A

Laboratory test conducted on the suspect bacteria or virus

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31
Q

Presumptive Case

A

Laboratory test showed negative on the suspect bacteria or virus

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32
Q

Suspect Case

A

No laboratory samples submitted

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33
Q

Secondary Case

A

Infected person was in contact with a primary case

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34
Q

Cal Code Definition AGI

A

Cal Code 113733- Acute gastrointestinal illness
a.) Diarrhea
b.) Vomiting in conjunction with diarrhea or two other gastrointestinal symptom such as fever or abdominal cramps

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35
Q

Foodborne Illness team consists of:

A

1.) Environmental Health
2.) Public Health Department
3.) Laboratory

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36
Q

What are the Seven Principles of the HACCP Plan?

A

1.) Conduct Hazard Analysis
2.) Identify Critical Control Points
3.) Establish Critical Limits
4.) Establishing Monitoring Procedures
5.) Establish Corrective Actions
6.) Establish Verification Procedures
7.) Record Keeping Procedure

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37
Q

Determine the Food Safety Hazardous and then identify the preventive measures that apply to control these hazards

A

Conduct Hazardous Analysis

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38
Q

Procedure in a food process (from its raw state through processing) at which control can be applied and as a result a food safety hazard can be prevented, eliminated, or reduced.

A

Identify Critical Control Points

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39
Q

Maximum or minimum value to which a physical, biological, or chemical hazard must be controlled at a critical control point to prevent, eliminate, or reduce it to an acceptable level

A

Establish Critical Limits

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40
Q

Procedure to monitor the control points

A

Establishing monitoring procedures

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41
Q

Are taken when monitoring indicates a deviation from a critical limit has not been met

A

Establish corrective actions

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42
Q

Ensures that the HACCP plan is adequate

A

Establish verification procedures

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43
Q

Written HACCP plan, records, documenting and monitoring of critical control points, critical limits

A

Record Keeping Procedures

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44
Q

Modern Sewer System

A

At most 2 days to reach plant. Travels at rate of at least 2ft/sec

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45
Q

Waste Water

A

Manholes placed 300-500 ft apart
Heaviest flow of sewage through wastewater treatment plan is between 3-9PM

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46
Q

Sanitary waste out of home, general business & institution from toilet, showers, sink, etc

A

Domestic Waste

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47
Q

Waste water discharged from manufacturing plant (restaurant, hospitals, canning, meat processors, refineries, etc)

A

Industrial Waste

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48
Q

Can infiltrate sewer system by cracks in sewer pipe

A

Ground Water

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49
Q

Certain amount of water infiltration from leaky pipes. High water table can be introduced into system by open drain

A

Storm Drain Runoff

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50
Q

Prohibiting draining of any type of wastewater onto public streets

A

National Pollution Discharge Elimination System

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51
Q

Liquid waste coming out of the ground at refuse landfills. Can be from rainfall seeping into landfill, or liquid waste intentionally dumped

A

Leachate

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52
Q

Fresh wastewater is 99.8% water and 0.2% solid concentration

A

Physical Characteristics of Waste Water

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53
Q

Fresh water water is also called..

A

Gray Water

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54
Q

Hot Zone at 113-158F

A

Thermophillic Zone

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55
Q

Medium Zone. Grows at 59-112F

A

Mesophillic Zone

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56
Q

Cold Zone. Grows at 35-50F

A

Psychrophillic Zone

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57
Q

Pipes drain liquid onto land

A

Surface Disposal

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58
Q

Shallow underground collection of pipes, title segmented loosely to allow water to percolate

A

Tile Field Disposal

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59
Q

Leach lines laid 2-5’ underground, perforated pipes (4” thick)

A

Subsurface Disposal

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60
Q

No longer accepted, Dispose of waste water into large water body, river, stream, etc

A

Dilution Disposal

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61
Q

Waste water being treated. Waste water going into a treatment plant

A

Effluent

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62
Q

Something that is taken into material

A

Absorption

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63
Q

Something that adheres to the material

A

Adsorption

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64
Q

Standard weight of one gallon of water

A

8.34 lbs

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65
Q

One cubic feet of water contains

A

7.48 gallons

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66
Q

Bar Screening (removes large objects), Grit Removal (sand/gravel), Pre-aeration (introduces oxygen, helps remove oil/scum), Flow Meter (measures rate of flow), Chlorine (optional)

A

Preliminary Treatment

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67
Q

Sedimentation (Clarification Tanks, removes solids that can settle, floating debris)

A

Primary Treatment

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68
Q

Collects raw sludge and relocates for sludge digestion, Bio/Chemical/Physical Treatment (Further removal of solids and dissolved solids of the waste water)

A

Secondary Treatment

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69
Q

Filtration (Filters to remove particles/color/odor), Disinfection (Destroys pathogenic bacteria), Used mainly for reclaimed water

A

Tertiary Treatment

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70
Q

Activated sludge, trickling filter, oxidation ponds, composting subsurface disposal field (Biological Treatment Process)

A

Aerobic Treatment Process

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71
Q

Sludge digestion, methane production, septic tanks, composting

A

Anaerobic Treatment Process

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72
Q

Holds volume of water for period of time at shallow depths (3-5’) to promote aerobic activity and purification water. Remains for 45-60 days before use.

A

Stabilization Pond (Lagoonization)

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73
Q

Solid portion of waste water

A

Sludge

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74
Q

Most biologically active, high potential to turn septic

A

Raw Sludge

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75
Q

Contains biological agents that digest sludge into inorganic materials, aka “Mixed Liquor”

A

Activated Sludge

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76
Q

Product of total anaerobic digestion, most stable

A

Digested Sludge

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77
Q

Simple hole dug, only used in past, now only used for emergencies

A

Pit Privy

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78
Q

Wastewater designed to seep into ground from _____ vault

A

Cesspool

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79
Q

If cannot connect to sewer, then next best option is ______. Water water retained in multi-compartment tank for ~24 hours where 60-70% of sludge settles.

A

Septic Tanks

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80
Q

What pipe color is reclaimed water?

A

Purple

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81
Q

What pipe color is steam, gas, oil?

A

Yellow

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82
Q

What pipe color is sewer?

A

Green

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83
Q

What pipe color is potable water?

A

Blue

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84
Q

What pipe color electrical?

A

Red

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85
Q

What pipe color are leach lines?

A

White

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86
Q

The concentration of a contaminant that, if exceeded, triggers treatment or other requirements that a water system must follow

A

Action Level (AL)

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87
Q

The highest level of a contaminant that is allowed in drinking water.

A

Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL)

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88
Q

Set as close to the public health goal or Maximum contaminant level goal as economically or technological feasible

A

Primary MCL

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89
Q

Set to protect the odor, taste, and appearance of drinking water

A

Secondary MCL

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90
Q

The level of a contaminant in drinking water, below which there is no known or expected health risk

A

MCL Goal

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91
Q

The level of disinfectant added for water treatment that may not be exceeded at the consumer’s tap

A

Maximum residual disinfectant level (MRDL)

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92
Q

The level of a disinfectant added for water treatment below, which there is no known or expected health risk.

A

Maximum residual disinfectant level goal (MRDLG)

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93
Q

The level of a contaminant in drinking water below, which there is no known or expected health risk.

A

Public Health Goal (PHG). Set by the California EPA

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94
Q

MCLs and MRDLs for contaminants that affect health along with their monitoring and reporting requirements, and water treatment requirements

A

Primary Drinking Water Standard (PDWS)

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95
Q

When was the Safe Drinking Water Act signed into law?

A

December 16, 1974

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96
Q

When was the Safe Drinking Water Act amended?

A

1986 & 1996

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97
Q

What did the Safe Drinking Water Act do?

A
  1. Set national standards regulating the levels of contamination in drinking water
  2. Require public water systems to monitor & report their levels of identified contaminants
  3. Establish uniform guidelines specifying acceptable treatment technologies
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98
Q

Federal & State Laws

A
  1. California Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA)
  2. Bulletin 74-90 and 74-81
  3. Jurisdiction & authority of local construction standards
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99
Q
  1. Caused by polluting runoff (phosphate detergents, nitrate, fertilizers, sewage)
  2. Increase in nutrients cause algae blooms, algae, fish die and decompose to bottom creating oxygen loss, and new oxygen produced by living algae towards surface
A

Algae Blooms (Eutrophication)

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100
Q

Oligotrophic (Young), Mesotrophic (Middle-aged), Eutrophic (Old/Mature Lake)

A

Lake Age

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101
Q

Drinking Water Treatment

A

Untreated Water –> Coagulation –> Flocculation –> Sedimentation –> Filtration –> Disinfection –> Treated Water

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102
Q
  1. Chemical reaction that occurs when a coagulating chemical is added to water.
  2. Most common is aluminum sulfate (alum)
  3. Coagulant reacts with water & minerals in the water to form floc particles
  4. Neutralize negative charge on suspended particles - form larger clumps that are heavy enough to settle
A

Coagulation

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103
Q
  1. Process of slow, gentle mixing of the water to encourage tiny floc particles to clump together & grow to a size that will settle quickly
  2. Flocculent particles at 1.5 mm (1/16 inch) are usually heavy enough to settle within a few minutes
  3. Mechanical mixers (preferred) or hydraulic mixing
  4. Primary concern is the degree of mixing
A

Flocculation

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104
Q
  1. Process of holding the water in quiet, low-flow conditions so suspended matter & particles can be settled out by gravity to the bottom of the tank & removed as sludge
  2. Purpose is to remove as much of the flocculent & other suspended material as possible before water flows to the filters
  3. The final step in pretreatment prior to filtration
  4. An economic means of clarifying water
A

Sedimentation

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105
Q
  1. Variation of gravity filtration
  2. Uses biological processes as well as physical straining
  3. Simple, cost-effective
A

Slow Sand Filters

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106
Q
  1. Much greater water treatment filtration rate and the ability to clean automatically using back washing
  2. Complete filtration cycle (filtration and back washing) occurs sequentially
A

Rapid Sand Filter

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107
Q

_____ are a convenient and economical choice for applications that require gross particulate removal.
Particulates are trapped in the bag for quick disposal. ____ are available for low flow and come in welded styles. They have multiple micron removal efficiencies.

A

Bag Filter

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108
Q

_____ is a valuable water purification process when mineral-free water is the desired end product.
Most mineral constituents of water are physically larger than water molecules. Thus, they are trapped by the semi-permeable membrane and removed from drinking water when filtered through a reverse osmosis system. Such minerals include salt, lead, manganese, iron, and calcium. ____ will also remove some chemical components of drinking water, including the dangerous municipal additive fluoride.

A

Reverse Osmosis

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109
Q

The selective destruction or inactivation of pathogenic organisms

A

Disinfections

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110
Q

Disinfection types:

A
  1. Chlorine
  2. Ozone
  3. UV light
  4. Boiling
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111
Q

Chlorine in this form has the highest disinfecting ability

A

Free available residual chlorine

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112
Q

_______ process of adding chlorine to water until the chlorine demand has been satisfied

A

Breakpoint Chlorination

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113
Q

Zone of saturation of groundwater, easy to find in flat areas, hard in hills

A

Water Table

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114
Q

Well bored into aquifer that has enough pressure to bring water to surface without pump

A

Artesian Well

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115
Q

Aeration Zone, Saturation Zone, Impervious Rock, Aquifer Water

A

Ground levels

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116
Q

97% of world’s fresh water. Water percolates at 3ft/yr into aquifer

A

Aquifer

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117
Q

Caused by over drilling of aquifer, creating cone at top of well

A

Cone of Depression

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118
Q

When constructing, 3 things to consider (expense, depth of water table, type of construction)

A

Wells

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119
Q

Best type of quality, solid casing installed with perforation at bottom for aquifer. Large kinetic hammer drives casing into ground and past point of saturation. Well uses submergible pumps. Required 50’ well seals

A

Case Driven Well

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120
Q

Use earth augers, depth is limited to length of auger used

A

Bored Well

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121
Q

Manually dug by man, machine, finished well lined with concrete, bricks, tile or clay pipes. Not deep

A

Dug Well

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122
Q

Prevents contaminants from entering the well casing

A

Sanitary seal

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123
Q

Supports pumping equipment & aids in sealing against surface water

A

Well Slab

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124
Q

Metal tube placed in the well to keep the well open

A

Well Casing

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125
Q

Mixture of cement, water, and sometimes sand

A

Grout

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126
Q

Space between the drilled hole and the casing. Grout seals the well against contamination

A

Annulus

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127
Q

At the bottom of the casing, penetrating the aquifer. The screen provides enough open spacing for unrestricted water flow. Gravel packing aids in filtering & increases well efficiency.

A

Well Screen (intake screen) & Gravel Packing

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128
Q

Allow you to connect your water pipe from your water well pump to an under ground discharge, to go to your house.

A

Pitless Adaptor

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129
Q

When your well is constructed the hole in the ground is bigger than in the ground is bigger than the well casing

A

Faulty Annular Seal

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130
Q

CO & O can have corrosive effects, H2S & CH4 can effect odor/taste

A

Entrained gas

131
Q

Salts (Ca/Mg/K/Na), bicarbonates, nitrates/phosphates. Effects taste/odor/color/corrosion

A

Dissolved Minerals

132
Q

Bacteria, fungi, mold, viruses, algae, clay

A

Suspended/Colloidal Solids

133
Q

From mining, improper waste disposal and contamination

A

Radioactive Waste

134
Q

Suspended solids, BOD, DO, COD, Nitrates, H2S, pH

A

Chemical Exam of H2O

135
Q

Coliform (Most probable number MPN, Colilert Testing), MPN confirmation, membrane filter

A

Bacterial Exam

136
Q

Inorganic, has threshold limit value (TLV) of 5 mg/L. High concentration yield metallic taste, can cause vomiting

A

Zinc

137
Q

at 250mg/L, can cause health problems (heart disease)

A

Chlorides

138
Q

Diff TLV depending on form. NaSO4 (Sodium Sulfate), MgSO4 (Magnesium Sulfate, Epsom salt), CaSO4 (Calcium Sulfate). High levels cause laxative effects to human body.

A

Sulfate Compounds

139
Q

Common in detergents. Conc. Limit Value 0.5 mg/l. Common pollution indicator for human domestic sewage. Found carcinogenic. Replaced by LAS (Linear Alkanate Sulfonate)

A

ABS (Alkyl-Benzene Sulfanate)

140
Q

Nitrates should not be found in fresh water sources

A

Limit - 10mg/l

141
Q

High levels of nitrates can lead to

A

Blue Baby Syndrome (methemoglobinemia)

142
Q

common in processed meats to counteract growth of botulism

A

Nitrates

143
Q

Copper

A

1 mg/dl

144
Q

Iron

A

3 ppm

145
Q

Fluoride

A

0.6 - 1.7ppm

146
Q

Defluorization

A

Two methods, Bone char & activated alumina

147
Q

Nuclides (Radium Ra226):

A

3 micro-micro curie/l limit

148
Q

Strontium 90 (Sr90)

A

10 micro-micro curie/l limit

149
Q

Most sampling containers (300ml), sterilized w/ leak proof caps. Samples taken at 2ft below water surface.

A

Water Sampling

150
Q

Standard for water clarity. Indexes of 5 units can be distinguishable. Soil, Silt, algae, microorganisms can affect…

A

Turbidity

151
Q

Used while utilizing light of flame. Sample poured until flame is not seen down tube.

A

Jackson Turbidity Meter

152
Q

Used for clarity tests in pools. Clarity= how deep disk seen from surface, should be min 4 feet.

A

Secchi Disk

153
Q
  1. Provides a media that contains specific indicator nutrients for total coliform & E. coli
  2. As these nutrients are metabolized, yellow color & fluorescence are released confirming their presence
  3. Noncoliform bacteria are chemically suppressed
  4. Identified in 24 hours or less
A

Coli-alert Test

154
Q
  1. Uses a cellulose ester filter, called a membrane filter, the pore size is manufactured to close tolerances
  2. Pore size selectively traps bacteria from water filtered through the membrane
  3. Nutrients are diffused through the membrane to grow bacteria into colonies
  4. Colonies are recognizable as coliform because the nutrients contain a dye
A

Membrane Filter Test

155
Q
  1. Standard method for determining coliform since 1936
  2. Tubes of laurel tryptose broth are inoculated with a water sample
  3. Coliform density is calculated from statistical probability formulas that predict the most probable number of (MPN) of coliform in a 100-mL sample necessary to produce certain combinations of gas positive (gas-forming) and gas-negative tubes in the series of inoculated tubes
A

Multiple Tube Fermentation

156
Q

3 distinct test states

A

presumptive, confirmed, completed

157
Q

Group 1: Water found satisfactory (low to no coliform), does not need treatment to be potable
Group 2: Water has low contamination levels but requires disinfection
Group 3-5: Contaminated water. Requires extensive disinfection process

A

Water Quality Classification

158
Q

Best type, purest form of water, expensive, time consuming, boiling water then condense steam

A

Distillation

159
Q

Use of electric current, + charge placed in H20, dissolved solids ions go through +/- membrane

A

Electro dialysis

160
Q

Removes mineral compound (Ca, Mg) by increasing [Na]

A

Ion Exchange (Water softening)

161
Q

any connection between piping that carries drinking water and the piping that carry other types of water or substances that may not be safe to drink (non-potable)

A

Cross Connection

162
Q

The level of hazard determines the type of cross-connection prevention

A

Control Devices- Air Gap

163
Q

Physical separation of drain pipe and drain

A

Air Gap

164
Q

Flow of contaminated water into potable water supply caused by back pressure

A

Backflow

165
Q

Form of back flow when pressure in potable water drops below pressure in flow of contaminated water

A

Back Siphonage

166
Q

Used in toilet tank and commercial sink faucets, uses atmospheric pressure in event of back flow to force a valve to close, preventing waste water from entering potable water

A

Atmospheric Vacuum Breaker

167
Q

Safest is Diagonal Jet Fountain. Air gap created when fountain jet used. Schools

A

Drinking Fountain

168
Q

Connect to faucets, protects hose siphonage

A

Hose Bib Vacuum Breaker

169
Q

Used as protection connection to all non-potable water supplies where line is not subject to back pressure. Under continuous pressure and must be installed above usage point.

A

Pressure Type Vacuum Breaker

170
Q

Valve in toilet tank, discharges specific water amount activated by water pressure

A

Flushometer

171
Q

Commercial water mains to protect municipal water supply. Must be certified and checked annually by certified backflow plumber

A

Reduced Pressure Backflow Prevention Device

172
Q

Used in low hazard situations, where water may be polluted but not contaminated

A

Double Check Valve

173
Q

Formed during drinking water chlorination (chlorination by-products). Considered potential human carcinogens

A

Trihalomethanes (THM)

174
Q

Pesticide used to control nematode pesticides. Strong carcinogen. Factory workers found to have sterility problems.

A

1,2-dibromo-3-chlorompropane (DBCP)

175
Q

Organic solvent, degreasing agent. Carcinogen

A

Trichloroethylene (TCE)

176
Q

Similar organic solvent to TCE with toxic effects at 20PPB

A

Perchloroethylene (PCE)

177
Q

Toxic to humans at high concentrations, known carcinogen. Used to manufacture chloroflouromethanes for refrigeration, air conditioners, aerosols. Causes ozone depletion in atmosphere

A

Carbon Tetrachloride

178
Q

Mosquitos - wiggle horizontally up and down, no breathing tube. Adults stand 45 degree angle on flat surface.

A

Anopheles larvae (malaria)

179
Q

Mosquitos- lies at ~45 angle, long breathing tube

A

Culex larvae (Western St. Louis Encephalitis)

180
Q

Mosquito- have shorts thick breathing tube, relies on surface tension to stay afloat

A

Aedes larvale (Yellow Fever/Dengue)

181
Q

Mosquito Control- Use long Mosquito Larvae Dipper to not scare larvae, count sample

A

Larval Surveys

182
Q

Mosquito Control- Utilizes carbon dioxide as attractant for mosquitoes (such as piece of lard)

A

Dry Ice Traps

183
Q

If possible, drain water. Floating debris cleared. Larvicide breaks surface tension of water and kills larvae

A

Large Water Bodies

184
Q

Gambia Affinis (Mosquitos fish, consumes 200/day), Dragon Fly (larvae eats larvae & adult eats adult)

A

Natural Enemies

185
Q

Last resort, pose hazard to environment

A

Pesticides

186
Q

Fogging (insecticide), screening, bednet, protective clothing, repellents

A

Adult Mosquito Control

187
Q

Fly species

A
  1. House Fly
  2. Blow Fly
  3. Bottle Fly
  4. Black Fly
  5. Fruit Fly
188
Q

Musca domestica, most dangerous for transfer of germs, breeds in feces (horse, pig, chicken, dog, man, NOT cattle).
Can live up to 60 days.

A

Common House Fly

189
Q

Breeds in dead animal flesh. Attracted to substance called mercaptan

A

Blowfly/ Bottle Fly

190
Q

Mechanical transmitter of diarrhea and dysentery. Common cause of myaisis in sheep and cattle.
Commonly found in wounds or skin opening scars.
Life cycle is 10-25 days.

A

Black Blow Fly

191
Q

Infestation of tissue w/ fly larvae

A

Myaisis

192
Q

Second only to mosquitos for blood sucking characteristics (primarily female).
Eggs laid in free flowing, fast moving water (river/streams)
Larvae attach to submerged rocks
Can transmit human onchocerciasis (filariasis disease known as river blindness)

A

Black Fly

193
Q

Chrysops discalis, bites often painful/remain swollen.
Lay eggs in vegetation near still water (ponds, lakes)
Larvae develop in wet soil/water.
Known to transmit Tularemia

A

Deer Fly

194
Q

Drosophilidae Family. Breed in decaying fruit.
Nuisance in bars for fruit liquor bottles.

A

Fruit Fly

195
Q
  1. Sanitation
  2. Larvae Control
A

Fly Control

196
Q

Introduce natural enemies

A

Biological/Physical Control

197
Q

Conducted with airplane, helicopter. Fixed amount per target area.

A

Aerial Spraying

198
Q

Chemical vaporizes which causes immediate death to nearby flies/insects

A

Fly Cords and Resin Strips

199
Q

Doesn’t work well because of depth the larvicide cannot penetrate to kill larvae

A

Larviciding

200
Q

Short reproduction cycle, evolve quickly. Regularly switch formulas

A

Resistance Factors

201
Q

Economical and effective. Min 16 mesh gauge (16 strands/inch)

A

Screening

202
Q

Uses U.V. light Ex: Zap Trap

A

Electrocution

203
Q

Fly Exclusion devices/fly fans. Commonly used over delivery doors of food facilities. Strong current of air provides barrier (min 1600 ft/min air)

A

Air Curtains

204
Q

To control mass infestation, introduce…

A

Sterile Male Flies

205
Q

Non chemical fly capture methods, baited traps fly cone surveys, fly grill surveys

A

Domestic Fly Survey Techniques

206
Q

Most common device to determine local fly population and density. Places on natural attractant manure or garbage then count number of flies land on grill in 30 seconds

A

Fly Grill Survey

207
Q

Most common to invade home/restaurant. Lays and carries eggs mass of 30-50 eggs called an ootheca

A

German Cockroach

208
Q

Radio/TV roach, ootheca contains 18 eggs, hatch in 50-75 days

A

Brown Banded Cockroach

209
Q

Screams, “real” water bug, cannot climb (unlike Brown-Banded/German), ootheca cary ~8 eggs which hatch in ~60 days

A

Oriental Cockroach

210
Q

Largest. Ootheca contains ~14 - 16 eggs, hatch in 50 days. Flies often

A

American Cockroach

211
Q

Cockroach Control:

A
  1. Identify cockroach and lifecycle
  2. Determine level of infestation, in full blown infestation identify source
  3. Determine type of extermination (tenting with fumigation usually best, or spray/fog each unit)
212
Q

Rattus norvegicus, most vicious/territorial.
Tails short/thick. Burrow in ground, swim

A

Norway Rat

213
Q

Not vicious, agile climbers, long/slender tail live in high places

A

Roof Rat

214
Q

Smallest of three, long tail, live in any convenient place, short migration range

A

House Mouse

215
Q

What Kind of Rat?
Average length of dropping: 3/4 inch
Rounded ends

A

Norway Rat

216
Q

What kind of rat?
Average length of dropping: 1/2 inch
Pointed ends

A

Roof Rat

217
Q

What kind of rat?
Average length of dropping: 1/4 inch
Pointed ends

A

House Mouse

218
Q

Rodent Control

A
  1. Eliminate food source, proper sanitation, rodent harborage site must be removed, Norway rat burrows at 45 angle, plug holes and entrances
  2. Roof Proofing: Ventilation should be screened/sealed, pipes no larger than 1/4”, trees & branches should not touch building, clean all dropped fruit/veggies/plants
219
Q

Last method, after proper sanitation technique. Most effective usually most poisonous

A

Pesticides

220
Q

Classification of Pesticides -Route of Absorption:

A
  1. Stomach Poison (must ingest)
  2. Contact Poison (touch)
  3. Fumigant Poison (inhalation)
  4. Desiccants (release body fluid of insect by removing body silica gel, dries out insect)
221
Q

chemicals are now classified in relation to lethal dose of chemical amount where 50% tested population dies.

A

LD50

222
Q

LD50 toxic levels:

A
  1. highly toxic LD50 (5-50mg/kg)
  2. toxic (50-500mg/kg)
  3. moderately (500-1000mg/kg)
  4. slightly (1000-5000mg/kg)
  5. non-toxic (5000+mg/kg)
223
Q

LD50 1500mg/kg, natural organic insecticide produced from chrysanthemums

A

Pyrethrum

224
Q

Synthesized form of pyrethrum. Moderately toxic.

A

Allethrin

225
Q

Mostly banned because stay in environment for long time (DDT)

A

Chlorinated Hydrocarbons

226
Q

LD50 150, used in low concentration to treat head lice

A

Lindane

227
Q

LD50 500, remains stable in environment for long periods of time

A

DDT

228
Q

LD50 5000, used effectively against fleas

A

Methoxychlor

229
Q

Ingested, causes internal bleeding. Common anticoagulants are Prival, Warfarin, Fumarin

A

Anticoagulants

230
Q

Bait with 25% anticoagulant in box

A

Bait Box Trap

231
Q

Extremely toxic, used in single dose applications, limited to pest control professionals

A

Toxic Poisons

232
Q

Natural emetics are agents which cause an animal to regurgitate. Cause vomit to enter lungs, leading to drowning

A

Red Squill

233
Q

Resembles white sugar and flour. Extremely toxic

A

1080 (Sodium Fluoroacetate)

234
Q

Used in sewer systems. Toxicity <1080.

A

1081 (Sodium Fluroroacetamide)

235
Q

Safest single dose, highly toxic to Norway rat, low toxicity to other mammals

A

Nor-Bromide

236
Q

A pungent garlic, grayish/black powder favored by all domestic rodents

A

Zinc Phosphide

237
Q

Arsenic compound

A

Paris Green

238
Q

Central Nervous System inhibitor

A

Organophosphates and carbamates

239
Q

Concentration exposure (oral/dermal) at which 50% of tested population dies

A

Lethal Dose 50 (LD50)

240
Q

Concentration exposure (inhalation) at which 50% tested population dies

A

Lethal Concentration 50 (LC50)

241
Q

Chemical concentrations to which workers may be exposed all day without adverse effects. ACGIH sets levels. Levels published by NIOSH. Toxicity exposure is function of time & dose.

A

Threshold Limit Values (TLV)

242
Q

Average concentration workers can be repeatedly exposed to during 8 hr day, 40 hr week without developing adverse chronic effects

A

Time Weighted Average (TWA)

243
Q

Concentration that cannot be exceeded even instantaneously because of serious health effects. Ceiling Value.

A

TLV-C

244
Q

Short term exposure limit (STEL) is allowable exposure concentration for short time period. A 15 min average exposure period, repeated no more than 4 times per day, with a minimum of 1 hr between exposures, provided 8 hr TWA not exceeded

A

TLV-STEL

245
Q

Cal-OSHA mandated values to enforce workplace violations

A

Permissible Exposure Limits (PEL’s)

246
Q

Maximum exposure concentration at any time

A

Ceiing

247
Q

Standard for Acute Toxicity Ratings:

A

Acute Oral LD50 < 5,000 mg/kg single dose
Dermal LD50 < 4,300mg/kg in 4 hour period
Inhalation LC50< 10,000PPM gas vapor

248
Q

Standard for Extremely Toxic Ratings

A

Oral LD50 < 50mg/kg single dose
Dermal LD50 < 43mg/kg in 4 hr period
Inhalation LC50 < 100PPM gas vapor

249
Q

Consists of face piece connected to hose and regulator to air source (compressed air/oxygen or oxygen-generating chemical). Recommended in atmospheres that are Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH). Avg usage time is 30 minutes, limited to air supply/usage

A

Self Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA)

250
Q

supplies air, never oxygen. Not for use in IDLH environments

A

Supply Air Respirators (SAR’s)

251
Q

remove airborne contaminants.
Not for IDLH, oxygen deficient, unventilated, confirmed, and unidentified contaminant atmospheres.
Types include particulate filters, cartridges, canisters which contain sorbents for gas, vapors, or a combination of both.

A

Air-Purifying Respirators

252
Q

PPE Levels: Offers highest level of protection for both respiratory & dermal. Used when handling extremely hazardous chemicals, in unventilated areas or working with unknown substance

A

Level A

253
Q

PPE Levels: Offers highest level of protection for both respiratory & dermal. Used when working in unventilated area or low O2 environment with little to no splash hazards

A

Level B

254
Q

PPE Levels: Lower level of respiratory and dermal protection, used when working in known airborne contaminants. Offers no chemical or splash hazards

A

Level C

255
Q

PPE Levels: Offers little to no respiratory or low dermal protection. Used when working in known low level contaminants. Offers no chemical or splash hazards

A

Level D

256
Q

Mixture of organic and inorganic materials

A

Refuse

257
Q

Inorganic material component of refuse, does not break down by decomposition (bottles/cans)

A

Rubbish

258
Q

Organic Waste material component of refuse, readily breaks down. Makes up 50% of refuse

A

Garbage

259
Q

Commonly used in level terrain. Large earth moving equipment digs trenches through excavation, solid waste filled into trench, backfilled, and compacted. “cut and fill” method

A

Trench Method

260
Q

Uses side of hill or sloped area, refuse dumped and covered with dirt. Most common method in the US and is continued until the entire slop is leveled

A

Area method

261
Q

Landfill located in area with large depressions or slopes such as a valley or ravine. Refuse dumped, filled with dirt and compacted. Once leveled or exhausted, can be used as golf course or parks. Commonly used by large cities.

A

Valley or Ravine Method

262
Q

Hazardous Materials accepted for disposal

A

Class 1 Landfill

263
Q

Low level hazardous material accepted for disposal

A

Class 2 Landfill

264
Q

No hazardous materials accepted

A

Class 3 Landfill

265
Q

Sandy Loam is soil choice

A

Landfill Soil

266
Q

Minimum daily cover is 6” compacted to prevent fly larvae emergence. Min final cover is 24”

A

Landfill Cover

267
Q

Ideal Slope for Landfill (1:2, 50%, 26.3 degrees)
Final Closing Slop (1:3), 33%, 18.3 degrees)

A

Slope of Landfill Cell

268
Q

Methane, CO2, Hydrogen Sulfide

A

Decomposition Gases Produced via Anaerobic Decomposition

269
Q

Aerobic State is between 4-60 days, Anaerobic State is after 60 days.

A

State of a Landfill

270
Q

Any liquid waste that comes out of a landfill

A

Leachate

271
Q

Rows of compost piles positioned to allow air to flow through promoting aerobic decomposition

A

Windrows

272
Q

Burning of waste products. For smokeless incineration, temperature should be maintained at 1500-1800F

A

Incineration

273
Q

Landfills must be min ____ feet from lakes/streams, and min ____ feet from human habitation (communities)

A

200’;500’

274
Q

Citing landfill sites should be for duration of at least ______

A

30-40 years

275
Q

Soil Science (most absorptive to least absorptive)

A

Sand –> Sand Loam –> Loam –> Silt Loam –> Clay Loam –> Clay

276
Q

Results in good water absorption

A

Red/Brown Color

277
Q

Usually bad PERC results

A

Blue/Black Color (slow water absorption)

278
Q

Not very good soil for water absorption

A

Mottled Soil

279
Q

Sampling Collection Methods

A
  1. Grab Samples
  2. Composite (Batch) Sampling
  3. Number of Samples
  4. Preservation and Storage of Samples
280
Q

Emergency Inspections without a Warrant

A
  1. Authorized if seizure of Hazardous Food
  2. Sewage overflow
  3. Vaccination against Small Pox
  4. Quarantine of Communicable Disease
  5. Destruction of diseased animals
281
Q

Minimum PPM for Chlorine

A

minimum 100ppm for 30 seconds in cool water.
Too much chlorine causes odor/tarnish. Loses effectiveness if water is too dirty or too warm.

282
Q

Minimum PPM for Quaternary Ammonia

A

minimum 200ppm. Less effected by dirty water, stays effective for longer time, less affected by hard water, safe to use with bare hands

283
Q

Minimum PPM for Iodine

A

Minimum 12.5 ppm, less effected by dirty water, stays effective for longer time, less affected by hard water, metallic odor, brownish color.

284
Q

What is the set up for Manual/Hand Washing

A

3 compartment sink, wash –> rinse –> sanitize

285
Q

Lithium (Li)

A

Pharmaceutical; used to treat mental disorders as an anti-depressive

286
Q

Potassium (K)

A

Naturally occurring radioactive isotopes.
Occurs in all soils, essential in plant growth and human/animal nutrition.
Can ignite spontaneously in moist air, extinguish with soda ash or graphite

287
Q

Sodium (Na)

A

Peroxides are irritants & corrosives. Pure Na is fire risk (reacts w/ any form of water, ignites spontaneously in dry air when heated, extinguish using soda ash, salt, lime)
Radioactive forms used in tracer studies/medicine

288
Q

Barium (Ba)

A

Causes respiratory problem in lungs when dust is inhales (baritones pneumonitis)
Used as digestive tract survey in medicine

289
Q

Beryllium (Be)

A

Highly toxic (inhalation of dust)
Tolerance 0.002 mg/m^3 of air, known carcinogen

290
Q

Magnesium (Mg)

A

Central element of the chlorophyll molecule, component of red blood capsules

291
Q

Strontium (Sr)

A

Radioactive Sr is bone seeking element (collects in bones),
Byproducts from nuclear reaction

292
Q

Chromic Acid (CRO5)

A

Highly toxic and corrosive to skin

293
Q

Cobalt (Co)

A

Important trace element in soils, animal nutrition, radioactive Co cancer treatment

294
Q

Copper (Cu)

A

Necessary trace element in human diet
Factor in plant metabolism
Nontoxic in elemental form
Noncombustible except as powder. Cu pipe with soda water.

295
Q

Iron (Fe)

A

Siderosis (disease caused by inhalation of metallic particles)
Gives water metallic taste.

296
Q

Manganese (Mn)

A

Fumes.
Dust/powder is flammable.
Exposure has caused spastic/psychological symptoms, pneumonitis

297
Q

Nickel (Ni)

A

Flammable/toxic as dust or fume, carcinogen, exposure can cause dermatitis

298
Q

Tin (Sn)

A

All organic tin compounds are toxic, stenosis (tin poisoning), block tin used in coating copper cooking utensils and lead sheets

299
Q

Zinc (Zn)

A

Fume fever (dust), flammable, fire and explosion risk

300
Q

Arsenic (As)

A

Known carcinogen, dermatitis, gastrointestinal, possible teratogen, respiratory impairment.
Highly toxic ingestion/inhalation
OSHA employee exposure 10ug/m^3 air
ACGIH is 0.2mg/m^3 air
Common industrial waste product considered as hazardous waste

301
Q

Cadmium (Cd)

A

Kidney, testes necrosis, poisoning, vomiting, diarrhea, cramps, fumes, pneumonitis, emphysema, food poisoning

302
Q

Lead

A

FDA regulations 0 Pb in food, 0.05% in house paint

303
Q

Lead Poisoning

A

Avg adult blood level 5-10ug/dl
Children 10-15ug/dl should be monitored for lead poisoning
Subclinical 20-35ug/dl
Moderate/High Toxic >35ug/dl
Treatment may include chelation using Ethylene Diamine Tetra Acetic acid or EDTA

304
Q

Tool to assess lead

A

X-ray Fluorescence Refractor (XFR)

305
Q

Mercury (Hg)

A

Gastrointestinal impairment, inflamed mouth/gums, CNS tremors, psychological symptoms (tolerance 0.05mg/m^3)

306
Q

Asbestos

A

OSHA PEL-TWA is 0.2 fibers/cc for fibers
>5um in length

307
Q

Carbon Monoxide (CO)

A

Highly toxic inhalation, highly flammable, fire/explosion risk, flammable limits in air (12-75% by volume

308
Q

Carbon Monoxide tolerance

A

50ppm (industrial), U.S. standard is 35ppm

309
Q

Liquid waste coming out of the ground at refuse landfills.

A

Leachate

310
Q

Fresh wastewater is 99.8% water and 0.2% solid concentration

A

Physical Characteristics of Waste Water

311
Q

Fresh water is also called

A

Gray Water

312
Q

Hot Zone at 113-158F

A

Thermophillic Zone

313
Q

Medium Zone. Grows at 59-112F

A

Mesophillic Zone

314
Q

Cold Zone. Grows at 35-50F

A

Psychorophillic Zone

315
Q

____ pipes drain liquid onto land

A

Surface Disposal

316
Q

Easy to use and cost efficient for pools

A

Hyperchlorous Chlorine (HOCl)

317
Q

Samples should be taken at 12-18” depth with forward sweeping motion for pools

A

Testing for Chlorine

318
Q

Measures total residual chlorine, heat sensitive

A

Orthotoludene (Ortho Test)

319
Q

Measures free & combined levels, not heat sensitive, more accuratee

A

D-P-D (Diethyl-Phenylene-Diamine)

320
Q

Minimum turnover rate for pool

A

6 hours

321
Q

Minimum turnover rate for a spa

A

0.5 hour

322
Q

Minimum turnover rate for a wading pool

A

1 hour

323
Q
A