Regulatory and Legal Environment MCQs Flashcards

1
Q

You are an apprentice at Price Prior, and your friend is an apprentice at Mynett Ruby Solicitors. Both firms have 10 partners. You are having lunch with your friend before attending Price Prior’s Equality, Diversity and Inclusion Policy (‘EDIP’) training course in the afternoon. Your friend says she has never heard of an EDIP and is sure that Mynett Ruby does not have any such policy in place. In addition, she has certainly never had any training on the matter.

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

Given the fact that Mynett Ruby is a 10 partner firm, its failure to have an equality and diversity policy will, of itself, amount to a breach of the Code of Conduct for Solicitors and the Code of Conduct for Firms.

You should suggest that, in order to comply with the Codes, the partners of Mynett Ruby Solicitors should cut and paste a ‘standard’ equality, diversity and inclusion policy from the internet and e-mail all staff at the firm immediately with a copy of the policy.

Your friend should make an enquiry when she returns to the office as to whether the firm has an equality, diversity and inclusion policy. She should ask her employers for training in this area because the Code of Conduct for Solicitors contains a requirement not to unfairly discriminate which binds not only the partners and managers of the firm, but also the rest of the staff, including apprentices.

You should tell your friend not to worry because it is the responsibility of the partners of the firm, not your friend, to ensure that everyone in the firm complies with the obligation not to unfairly discriminate.

The Codes requires that each firm must appoint an ‘Equality, Diversity and Inclusion Manager’ whose responsibility it is to ensure the firm’s equality, diversity and inclusion policy is written and implemented across the firm.

A

Your friend should make an enquiry when she returns to the office as to whether the firm has an equality, diversity and inclusion policy. She should ask her employers for training in this area because the Code of Conduct for Solicitors contains a requirement not to unfairly discriminate which binds not only the partners and managers of the firm, but also the rest of the staff, including apprentices.

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2
Q

You work at a large international firm and have been asked to go to the reception of your firm’s offices to meet Aarya, a prospective client. Aarya has never been to your firm before and your firm has never acted for her. You have been asked to bring her to a meeting room for a preliminary meeting with your supervisor.

Bearing in mind the different factual scenarios set out below, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

When you get to reception you discover that Aarya’s first language is Bengali and her understanding of English appears to be limited. As your understanding of Bengali is non-existent, your best course of action is to recommend to Aarya that she seeks advice from another law firm.

When you get to reception you discover that Aarya is profoundly deaf. She is able to lip read but has asked your firm to record the meeting and have the meeting notes transcribed so she can review them before deciding whether or not to instruct your firm. Your firm does not usually transcribe meetings and will have to pay someone to transcribe the meeting notes. The firm can pass the cost of paying for the notes to be transcribed to Aarya.

When you get to reception to you discover that Aarya has come for advice on a prenuptial agreement in relation to her forthcoming marriage to her partner Sarah. You are strongly opposed to the idea of gay marriage hand have asked your supervisor if you can be excused from acting for Aarya as you do not feel you will be able to give her objective advice. Your supervisor permits your request and is right to do so on the ground that insisting you act for Aarya means you will not be able to comply with requirement to act in the best interests of your client under Principle 7.

In the meeting Aarya reveals she is transgender and she has been denied the right to compete as a female at her local archery club and she would like to challenge the decision. Your supervisor believes that women who are transgender should not be able to compete in such circumstances and refuses to act for her. It is likely your supervisor will be found to be in breach of the requirement not to unfairly discriminate in the Code of Conduct for Solicitors.

When you get to reception you discover that Aarya is in a wheel chair. The meeting room is on the first floor and your office does not have a lift. The best course of action for you to take is to apologise to Aarya and recommend that she seeks advice from another law firm.

A

When you get to reception you discover that Aarya is in a wheel chair. The meeting room is on the first floor and your office does not have a lift. The best course of action for you to take is to apologise to Aarya and recommend that she seeks advice from another law firm.

Correct. Under CCS 1.1 you must ensure that you do not unfairly discriminate by allowing your personal views to affect your professional relationships and the way in which you provide your services, the supervisor will have breached this provision if they refuse to act for Aarya even though Aarya is not yet a client of the firm.
Sexual orientation is a protected characteristic under the Equality Act (‘EA’). and refusing to act for Aarya on the grounds of her sexual orientation would be discriminatory and unlawful under EA. In addition the supervisor would be breaching CCS 1.1.
In relating to transcribing the notes for the meeting, you have an obligation under CCS 3.4 to take account of your client’s attributes, needs and circumstances. You will therefore need to transcribe the notes. You also have a duty to make reasonable adjustments to the service you provider under section 29 EA. Given you work at a large international firm, it is unlikely that the cost involved in transcribing meeting notes will be so great as to make the adjustment unreasonable. You will not be able to pass on the costs for these adjustments, see the Guidance on the SRA’s approach to equality, diversity and inclusion.

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3
Q

You work in the corporate department of a large national firm. Arshad wishes to instruct your firm in connection with the acquisition of a small abattoir business which processes and supplies Halal meat to butchers who serve the Islamic community. The purchase price for the business is to be £750,000 and the agreement will be governed by English law.

Which ONE of the following reasons would your supervisor be able to rely on to refuse to accept Arshad’s instructions?

It is your firm’s policy not to accept instructions in relation to corporate acquisitions where the purchase price is less than £1 million

Your supervisor will not be able to effectively communicate with Arshad as Arshad’s first language is Bengali and he only has a limited understanding of English.

Your supervisor considers that they do not have enough time to be able to advise on the sale of the abattoir business.

Your supervisor will is vegetarian and will therefore not be able to act in the best interests of the client.

Your supervisor considers that they do not have sufficient religious knowledge to be able to advise on the sale of the abattoir business.

A

It is your firm’s policy not to accept instructions in relation to corporate acquisitions where the purchase price is less than £1 million

Race and religion or belief are both protected characteristics under the Equality Act. Under section 29, a person concerned with the provision of a service to the public, or a section of the public must not discriminate against a person requiring the service by not providing the person with the service. It would be discriminatory to refuse to provide the service because of either of these protected characteristics.
In relation to the language issue, while there may be a communication problem, this can be resolved by making arrangements for a translator to assist in translation of documents and to attend meetings.
In relation to religious knowledge it is unlikely that religious knowledge is necessary to complete the legal work in purchasing the business. The client will be looking to the solicitor for legal advice, not advice on the religious aspects of slaughtering animals in an abattoir, and to the extent knowledge of Islamic practice is needed, the solicitor will need to obtain this from the client.
Not having enough time to complete the work might be a good reason in a small firm with a limited number of lawyers. However this is a large firm so the supervisor should be able to refer the work to a colleague if they themselves are too busy.
Turning down the instructions because the supervisor is vegetarian would amount to a breach of the obligation not to unfairly discriminate by allowing your personal views to affect your professional relationships and the way you provide your services under CCS 1.1.
The policy not to accept instructions where the purchase price is less than £1 million is not discriminatory and would apply regardless of the race or religion of the client.

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4
Q

Nisha appointed a law firm to administer the estate of her mother. A year after appointing the firm, the administration has not been completed and the Nisha has become increasingly frustrated at the length of time it takes the solicitor to respond to her questions and requests for action. Nisha follows the law firm’s complaints procedure but eight weeks after making the complaint, the issue has not been resolved to her satisfaction.

Which option best sets out the action Nisha should take next?

She should refer her complaint to the Legal Services Board.

She should refer her complaint to the Law Society

She should refer her complaint to the Solicitors Disciplinary Tribunal.

She should refer her complaint to the SRA

She should refer her complaint to the Legal Ombudsman

A

She should refer her complaint to the Legal Ombudsman

Correct. As the firm’s internal complaints procedure has been exhausted, Nisha, as an individual should refer the complaint to the Legal Ombudsman.
Clients can refer complaints concerning misconduct, dishonesty or breaches of the SRA’s rules to the SRA, but there is nothing on these facts to suggest misconduct or dishonesty or breach of the SRA’s rules. It is possible the firm has breached CCS 3.2 which requires solicitors to provide a service that is competent and delivered in a timely manner, but we do not know enough in this scenario to determine whether there is a breach of this provision or whether there is a reason for the perceived delay.
The SDT deals with serious breaches of the SRA’s rules.
The Law Society would not be the appropriate body as it represents solicitors in England and Wales and supports them in their careers.
The Legal Services Board is also not the appropriate body.

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5
Q

You are a solicitor in the litigation department in a large firm. You receive a telephone call from a new client who is seeking advice in relation to a medical negligence claim against a health authority. The client tells you that she is blind. She informs you that she will need you to load some new software onto your computer so that any documents that you send her are compatible with her voice activation software. You do have the capacity to take on more work and it sounds like this client has a good case. However, you are concerned about the client’s additional needs. Making the adjustments will involve moderate expense. In addition your firm will have to install the software onto their IT systems. Your IT department is not particularly helpful and you know that you will have to spend a large amount of time liaising with them.

What should you do?

Tell the client that you are too busy to take on her case.

Tell the client that you cannot take on her case because your firm’s IT department is unable to install the software.

You should take on the new client despite your concerns

Tell the client that you can act for her but that she will have to bear the costs of installing the voice activated software.

Tell the client that she has a good case, but you cannot act for her because you have no experience of advising blind clients.

A

You should take on the new client despite your concerns

Correct. Your firm has an obligation to make reasonable adjustments necessary to ensure that a disabled person is not placed at a substantial disadvantage compared to those who are not disabled. On the facts the client has a good case and the only reason you would not be taking her on as a new client is because of her disability and additional needs.

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6
Q

You are acting for the claimant in a litigation matter. You are sitting behind your client’s counsel, Mary Davis (‘Mary’), in the High Court taking notes. During the lunch adjournment, your client shows you a document which was previously thought to have been lost, and which is prejudicial to your client’s case. Your client tells you not to tell anyone, not even Mary.

What should you do?

You should not tell Mary about the document. Mary would have to disclose the existence of the document to the court, but you have no obligation to do so.

You should tell Mary about the document, as in doing so you would be complying with Principle 7 (act in the best interests of each client).

You should not tell Mary about the document as you should comply with Principle 7 (act in the best interests of each client).

You should not tell Mary about the document, as in doing so, you would lose the trust of your client.

You should tell Mary about the document in order to comply with Principle 1 (act in a way that upholds the constitutional principle of the rule of law, and the proper administration of justice).

A

You should tell Mary about the document in order to comply with Principle 1 (act in a way that upholds the constitutional principle of the rule of law, and the proper administration of justice).

Correct. This is an example of where your duty under Principles 1 (and 2) come into conflict with your duty to your client under Principle 7. The introduction to the Principles makes it clear that in these circumstances the Principles which safeguard the wider public interest such as the rule of law take precedence over an individual client’s interest.

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7
Q

You are an apprentice solicitor in the litigation department. Peter is an apprentice solicitor at the firm which is acting for the other side in a litigation matter. Yesterday, you said the following to Peter in a telephone conversation:

“I promise to forward the witness statement of X to you by first class post today”.

On the basis Peter is acting reasonably in placing reliance on what you said, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

Your words cannot amount to an enforceable undertaking because you did not use either of the words ‘undertaking’ or ‘undertake’.

Your words cannot amount to an enforceable undertaking because they were said in a telephone conversation, but they would have amounted to an enforceable undertaking if they had been put in writing.

Your words cannot amount to an enforceable undertaking because Peter is not legally qualified.

Your words amount to an enforceable undertaking and you must therefore do what you have promised to do.

Your words cannot amount to an enforceable undertaking because you are an apprentice solicitor.

A

Your words amount to an enforceable undertaking and you must therefore do what you have promised to do.

Correct. Undertaking is defined in the SRA Glossary as “a statement, given orally or in writing, whether or not it includes the word “undertake” or “undertaking”, to someone who reasonably places reliance on it, that you or a third party will do something or cause something to be done, or refrain from doing something.”
An undertaking can be given by anyone provided the recipient reasonably places reliance on it. So it can be given by an apprentice or any other employee of the law firm. It can be given orally, and it does not have to contain the work “undertake’ or ‘undertaking’. Your words do therefore amount to an undertaking, and under CCS 1.3 you must ensure that you perform the undertaking within the time you specified.
As a legal professional, you will be deemed to comply with your word and do what you promise to do. You need to be careful that you do not give undertakings unwittingly.

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8
Q

Two years ago, at your previous firm, you acted for Andrew in connection with his claim for unfair dismissal. Andrew had been dismissed for turning up to work drunk and the Employment Tribunal found in favour of Andrew’s employer (‘Employment Tribunal Decision’).

You are now an employment lawyer at another firm. A new client of the firm, BCD Limited (‘BCD’) is seeking your advice in relation to a disciplinary hearing it is about to hold in relation to one of its employees. The employee in question is Andrew. BCD alleges that Andrew has repeatedly returned to work after his lunch break smelling of alcohol and appearing drunk.

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

You should not act for BCD because you would be under a duty to disclose the Employment Tribunal Decision to them, which conflicts with your duty of confidentiality to Andrew.

You must disclose details of Andrew’s previous case to BCD because the information is material to the advice you have been instructed to give BCD.

You should not act for BCD on this matter because you have a conflict of interest.

You can act for BCD in this matter because your duty of confidentiality to Andrew terminated when you left your old firm.

You can act for BCD because your duty to disclose information does not apply to information you acquired at your previous law firm.

A

You should not act for BCD because you would be under a duty to disclose the Employment Tribunal Decision to them, which conflicts with your duty of confidentiality to Andrew.

Correct.
You have a duty of confidentiality to Andrew under CCS 6.3. This duty applies to current and former clients unless disclosure is required by law or the client consents.
If you accepted the instructions from BCD you would have a duty to disclose information of which you have knowledge which is material to the matter under CCS 6.4. The information about the Employment Tribunal finding in favour of Andrew’s former employer in his unfair dismissal case is material to this matter. However CCS 6.5 applies here. You cannot act for a client (BCD) in a matter where that client has an interest adverse to a former client (Andrew) for whom you hold confidential information which is material to that matter. Andrew and BCD have adverse interests here and the information is material to BCD’s matter. Condition (a) is that effective measures have been taken which result in there being no real risk of disclosure of the confidential information – here you already know the information so it is not possible to put effective measures in place. Condition (b) is that the former client (Andrew) consents to you acting. It is very unlikely that Andrew would consent to you acting for his employer on this matter.
The issue here is confidentiality, not conflicts of interest.

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9
Q

Your law firm, based in Kent, has a referral agreement with another firm based in Southampton under which if one firm (the ‘Introducer’) refers a client to the other firm (the ‘Recipient’), the Recipient will pay the Introducer 7% of the net fees paid by the client in the matter (‘Referral Fee’).

In which ONE of the following circumstances would your firm be able to accept instructions from the client referred by the other firm and pay the Referral Fee?

A client seeking to defend a charge of assault alleged to have taken place in a pub.

A client seeking to bring a claim for damages for personal injury after being hit by a car.

A client seeking to defend a charge of theft from a petrol station.

A client seeking advice on a dispute against their former landlord.

A client seeking advice on an employment dispute, in circumstances where the solicitor introducing the client insists that the client should not be told of the Referral Fee.

A

A client seeking advice on a dispute against their former landlord.

Correct. Under CCS 5.1(d) you do not make payments to an introducer in repost of clients who are the subject of criminal proceedings. You cannot therefore accept the referral in relation to the client who has been charged with assault or with theft.
Section 56(1) of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 (‘LASPO’) prohibits solicitors from referring or receiving referrals in respect of a claimant’s claim for damages in respect of personal injury or death to each other in consideration for a referral fee. You would not therefore be able to accept the instructions in relation to the client seeking damages for personal injury and pay the Referral Fee to the other firm. Note that under CCS 5.2, your firm would have to show that the Referral Fee was not paid in breach of s. 56(1) LASPO.
There is nothing to stop your firm from accepting the instructions in relation to the dispute with the former landlord and paying the Referral Fee, provided you and your firm comply with CCS 5.1. CCS 5.1 (b) states that the client must be informed of any fee sharing that is relevant to their matter. Your firm therefore would not be able to accept the referral of the employment dispute where the solicitor introducing the client insists on the Referral Fee being kept confidential.

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10
Q

A law firm has just won a landmark settlement in a divorce case for a client which was reported in the legal press. The firm would like to refer to its involvement in the case in its marketing literature.

Which ONE of the following methods of marketing the firm’s involvement in the case is PROHIBITED under the Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and FRLS (‘CCS’)?

Emailing a copy of the article from the legal press to former family law clients of the firm.

Emailing a copy of the article from the legal press to existing clients of the firm.

With your client’s consent, referring to your involvement in the case, in an interview with a legal magazine.

Writing an article on your involvement in the case for a family law publication with the permission of your client and their former spouse.

Handing out leaflets referring to the case to individuals leaving the local family law court.

A

Handing out leaflets referring to the case to individuals leaving the local family law court.

Correct.
CCS 8.9 states “you do not make unsolicited approaches to members of the public, with the exception of current or former clients, in order to advertise legal services provided by you or your business or employer”. Handing leaflets to recipients leaving the family law court would breach this provision.
As there is an exception under CCS 8.9 for current and former clients, emailing the article to current and former family law clients of the firm would not breach CCS.
Writing an article with the permission of the client and their former spouse would not breach CCS and neither would referring to your involvement in the case in an interview with a legal magazine, with your client’s consent.

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11
Q

A solicitor is advising a client who wants to leave a considerable sum of money to a charity in his will.

The following day the solicitor sits next to a new acquaintance at a dinner party. The new acquaintance tells the solicitor that he is concerned that the charity he works for is bound for financial failure because the directors are being sued for misappropriation of the charity’s funds. The new acquaintance then tells the solicitor the name of the charity he works for. Much to the solicitor’s surprise it is, by coincidence, the charity the client is proposing to bequeath to.

Is the solicitor obliged to inform the client of the reported concerns about the prospects of the charity?

No, because the information was obtained in the course of the solicitor’s personal life and therefore does not impact on his professional obligations.

Yes, because the information is material to the client’s matter.

No, because the duty of confidentiality overrides the duty of disclosure.

Yes, because the duty of disclosure overrides the duty of confidentiality.

No, because information obtained from clients must be kept confidential unless disclosure is required or permitted by law or the client consents.

A

Yes, because the information is material to the client’s matter.

CORRECT: this is a situation where the solicitor has received information from the acquaintance which is material to the client’s matter. The solicitor must disclose it to the client under CCS 6.4 unless one of the exceptions applies. None of the exceptions apply.

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12
Q

You are representing a client as a solicitor-advocate. The trial of the client’s claim started yesterday.

Last night, you were reading through the law reports in a national newspaper when you realised that one of the reported cases appears to be highly prejudicial to your client’s claim. You believe that neither the court nor the defendant’s legal representatives are aware of this reported case (the ‘Case’).

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

You may only give the court details of the Case if you have first obtained your client’s prior consent.

The Code of Conduct for Solicitors RELs and RFLs (‘CCS’) 6.4 imposes a duty on you to disclose to the court all material information relating to the Case.

You are not obliged to disclose the Case to the court because if you do so, you will be in breach of Principle 7.

You must not disclose the Case to the court because your duty of confidentiality to your client takes precedence over your duty to the court.

Although the Case is prejudicial to your client’s claim, you should provide the court with details of it. You do not need your client’s prior consent to do this.

A

Although the Case is prejudicial to your client’s claim, you should provide the court with details of it. You do not need your client’s prior consent to do this.

Correct. Under Code of Conduct for Solicitors RELs and RFLs (‘CCS’) 1.4, you must not mislead or attempt to mislead your clients, the court or others, either by your own acts or omissions or allowing or being complicit in the acts or omissions of others (including your client). You will be misleading the court if you allow the case to continue without the court being aware of the Case.
CCS 2.7 states: you draw the court’s attention to relevant cases and statutory provisions… of which you are aware, and which are likely to have a material effect on the outcome of the proceedings. Under CCS 2.7 you must therefore draw the Case to the court’s attention, and there is no requirement to obtain your client’s consent first. This is a matter of court procedure between you and the court.
There is a conflict here between your duty to your client under Principle 7 and your duty to uphold the constitutional principle of the rule of law (Principle 1). The introduction to the Principles states that where the Principles come into conflict, those which safeguard the wider public interest, such as the rule of law, take precedence over an individual client’s interests. It follows that your duty of confidentiality to your client does not take precedence over your duty to the court.
CCS 6.4 contains a duty on you to make your client, not the court, aware of information material to their matter of which you have knowledge.

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13
Q

Question 1
A client has complained about the manner in which a junior solicitor dealt with their case.
In accordance with the firm’s complaints procedure, the complaint has been passed to the
senior partner for investigation. The senior partner has a very heavy caseload and has
not been able to consider the complaint. After several weeks, having heard nothing from
the senior partner or the firm, the client takes the complaint to the Legal Ombudsman. The
Legal Ombudsman finds that the original complaint is unjustified.
What action can the Legal Ombudsman take?
A The Legal Ombudsman can take no further action against the senior partner or
the firm.
B The Legal Ombudsman may require the firm to pay compensation to the client but can
take no further action with regard to the senior partner personally.
C The Legal Ombudsman can both require the firm to pay compensation to the client and
report the senior partner to the SRA.
D The only action that the Legal Ombudsman can take is to ask the firm to apologise for
the delay in dealing with the complaint.
E The Legal Ombudsman may report the senior partner to the SRA but can take no
further action with regard to the firm.

A

Answer
Option C is correct. Although the complaint was unjustified, it has not been dealt with properly
and so the Legal Ombudsman may still take action, including requiring the client to be
compensated for inconvenience and so on. The senior partner is in breach of Paragraph 8.5
because the complaint has not been dealt with promptly and the Legal Ombudsman may
report the senior partner to the SRA for that reason.

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14
Q

Question 2
A solicitor is acting for a client in a litigation matter. Whilst the solicitor is presenting the
client’s case at the final hearing, the solicitor forgets to refer to a recently decided case that
would help the client’s case. Consequently, the judge finds in favour of the opponent.
Which of the following best explains the solicitor’s duties in this situation?
A The solicitor must not tell the client about the failure to refer to the recent case because
that would risk bringing the firm’s name into disrepute.
B The solicitor is under no obligation to tell the client about the failure to refer to the
recent case because the client has not yet indicated that they intend to bring a claim
for negligence.
C The solicitor is under no obligation to tell the client about the failure to refer to the
recent case because any loss to the client will be covered by the firm’s insurance.
D The solicitor has a duty to be open and honest with the client and so must immediately
tell the client about the failure to refer to the recent case.
E The solicitor has a duty to be open and honest with the client, but should delay telling
the client about the failure to refer to the recent case until the solicitor has discussed
the matter with the firm’s senior partner.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. Paragraph 7.9 requires a solicitor to be open and honest if things go
wrong so the solicitor should tell the client about the omission immediately. The duty is not
dependent on the client intending to bring a claim against the solicitor. There is no justification
for delay. It is irrelevant that the firm’s reputation may be damaged or that any claim would
be covered by insurance.

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15
Q

Question 3
A solicitor is instructed by a new client. In conversation at the first interview the solicitor
explains that the client has a right to complain about the solicitor’s services and charges;
how complaints may be made and to whom; and that the client has a right to make a
complaint to the Legal Ombudsman and when such a complaint could be made. The
solicitor says that they will send a letter to the client confirming the information. However,
the solicitor forgets to send the letter.
A few days later the solicitor receives a letter from the client, alleging that at the interview
the solicitor had been rude and made a sexist remark. In accordance with the firm’s
complaints procedure the solicitor hands the letter to the firm’s senior partner. The client’s
allegations about the solicitor are untrue.
Did the solicitor breach the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs?
A No, because the solicitor followed the firm’s complaints procedure.
B No, because the solicitor provided the client with all the information about complaints
required by the Code.
C No, because the solicitor was not rude and did not make a sexist remark.
D Yes, because the client is unhappy with the legal services they have received.
E Yes, because the solicitor did not provide the information about complaints in writing.

A

Answer
Option E is correct. The solicitor acted correctly at the interview and properly complied with
the complaints procedure. The solicitor provided all the required information about costs, but,
in breach of Paragraph 8.3 did not provide that information in writing. The fact that the client
is unhappy does not of itself place the solicitor in breach of the Code.

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16
Q

Question 1
A solicitor’s husband is caught by a speed camera travelling in his car at 100 mph on a 40
mph road. The husband already has several points on his driving licence and so, to avoid
the husband being disqualified from driving, the solicitor makes a false statement to the
police stating that she was driving the car at the time of the speeding offence.
The solicitor has been qualified for six months and works in her firm’s commercial property
department.
Which of the following statements best describes the professional conduct sanctions
that the solicitor is likely to face?
A The solicitor will face mild sanctions in view of her junior status.
B The solicitor will face no sanctions because the SRA Principles do not apply to a
solicitor’s private life.
C The solicitor will face mild sanctions because speeding is a minor offence.
D The solicitor will face mild sanctions for failing to uphold public trust and confidence in
the solicitors’ profession.
E The solicitor will face severe sanctions for acting dishonestly.

A

Answer
Option E is correct. The SRA Principles apply both inside and outside practice. The conduct
issue here is the making of the false statement. In making a false statement the solicitor has
acted dishonestly. Dishonesty is always regarded as serious and will attract severe sanctions.
The solicitor’s junior status is a relevant factor, but is unlikely to result in mild sanctions given
such a deliberate and flagrant breach of Principle 4 (and Principles 2 and 5 and, arguably,
Principle 1 by making a false statement to the police).

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17
Q

Question 2
A solicitor is instructed by a client in relation to a commercial contract. The solicitor attends
a meeting with the other party’s solicitor to negotiate the terms of the contract. Later that
day, the solicitor tells the client that they will immediately produce a written note of what
was said at the meeting. The solicitor fails to make the written note.
Some months later, a disagreement arises over the implementation of one of the terms
of the contract and the client believes that having sight of exactly what was said at the
meeting will resolve the disagreement. The client contacts the solicitor asking for the
written note.
The solicitor cannot recall the meeting in detail, but types up a note of what the solicitor
thought must have been discussed and presents it to the client, dated with the date of the
meeting.
Has the solicitor acted in accordance with the SRA Principles?
A Yes, because the solicitor has acted honestly in taking the best course of action that
they could in the circumstances.
B Yes, because the solicitor’s duty to act in the best interests of the client outweighs all
other considerations.
C Yes, because the solicitor’s actions have saved their firm from professional
embarrassment.
D No, because the solicitor has not acted with integrity.
E No, because the solicitor has not acted with independence.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. In producing a backdated note and presenting it to the client as if it were
an accurate record made a year earlier, the client has not acted with integrity (the solicitor
has probably additionally breached Principle 2 and Principle 4). The solicitor’s independence
is not an issue of the facts (option E is therefore wrong). Producing a note which may well be
inaccurate is unlikely to be in the client’s best interests and in any event, Principle 7 does not
outweigh all other considerations (option B is therefore wrong). Option C is wrong because
acting simply in order to avoid professional embarrassment would not be complying with the
Principles.

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18
Q

Question 3
A client instructs a solicitor to carry out the conveyancing work on the sale of a house. The
client has put the house on the market for an asking price of £500,000. The solicitor thinks
that the asking price is cheap. The solicitor suggests to his wife that she should buy the
house. The solicitor’s wife buys the property for £500,000 and sells it three months later,
making a profit of £75,000.
Which of the following best describes the professional conduct implications of the
solicitor’s actions?
A The solicitor did not do anything wrong because the client achieved their objective of
selling the house.
B The solicitor’s actions are likely to diminish public trust and confidence in the solicitors’
profession because a profit has been made at the client’s expense.
C The solicitor did not do anything wrong because the client did not suffer a loss.
D The solicitor acted with integrity because the solicitor did not make a profit himself.
E The solicitor acted in the client’s best interests in securing the price the client wanted
for the house.

A

Answer
Option B is correct. The solicitor placed his own interests and those of his family above those
of a client. The solicitor’s wife has made a profit at the client’s expense. Such behaviour is
likely to diminish public trust and confidence in the profession and therefore breach Principle
2. The solicitor has not acted with integrity in making a profit for his family and so has
breached Principle 5 (accordingly, option D is wrong). The client has achieved the objective
of selling the house, but the solicitor did not act correctly (option A is wrong). The solicitor is
in breach of Principle 2 irrespective of the fact that the client has not suffered a loss and was
paid the asking price (accordingly, options C and E are wrong).

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19
Q

Question 1
A solicitor is invited by the manager of a local care home to give an informative talk to the
home’s elderly residents on the importance of making a will. The solicitor gives the talk
to those residents who have expressed an interest in the subject matter and, in doing so,
presents an even- handed and accurate explanation of the advantages and disadvantages
of making a will. At the end of the talk the solicitor hands out leaflets advertising the
solicitor’s firm’s will drafting services. The solicitor also offers to draw up a will there and
then for any residents that would like the solicitor to do so.
Which of the following best describes the consequences of the solicitor’s actions under
the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELS and RFLs?
A All of the solicitor’s actions breach the Code because they are unsolicited approaches
to members of the public.
B The solicitor is unlikely to have done anything wrong in giving the talk, but handing out
the leaflets and offering to draw up wills breach the Code as unsolicited approaches
to members of the public.
C The solicitor is unlikely to have done anything wrong in giving the talk and handing
out the leaflets, but offering to draw up wills breaches the Code as an unsolicited
approach to members of the public.
D None of the solicitor’s actions breach the Code because making a will is in the client’s
best interests.
E None of the solicitor’s actions breach the Code because the solicitor has acted
in response to the manager’s invitation and so the solicitor’s approaches are not
unsolicited.

A

Answer
Option B is correct. Giving an informative and even- handed talk to an interested audience
is unlikely to breach the Code (option A is therefore wrong). But in going beyond this the
solicitor is publicising services through a targeted and intrusive approaches to members of
the public, and consequently is in breach of Paragraph 8.9 (the solicitor may also be criticised
for taking advantage of a vulnerable client (see 4.4.3)). Option E is wrong; the approaches
are unsolicited by the ultimate clients and so the manager’s invitation is irrelevant. Option D
is wrong; it may be a good idea for the client to make a will, but this does not absolve the
solicitor of their obligations under Paragraph 8.9.

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20
Q

Question 2
A solicitor has been acting in a divorce case for a successful local businessman. The
divorce case is now at an end. The firm’s senior partner tells the solicitor to telephone the
businessman in order to promote the firm’s corporate department in the hope that the
businessman will transfer the corporate work arising from his various business interests from
his current lawyers to the solicitor’s firm.
Which of the following best explains what the solicitor should do?
A Make the telephone call because any breach of the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors,
RELs and RFLs will be the senior partner’s responsibility.
B Make the telephone call because such a call would not constitute an unsolicited
approach to a member of the public.
C Refuse to make the telephone call because such a call would constitute advertising.
D Refuse to make the telephone call because the solicitor no longer acts for the client.
E Refuse to make the telephone call because the solicitor could not make such a call and
comply with their duty to act with integrity.

A

Answer
Option B is correct. Paragraph 8.9 prohibits a solicitor making unsolicited approaches to
members of the public. However, a former client is an exception (accordingly, option D is
wrong). There is nothing inherent in the making of the call which would place the solicitor in
breach of the duty to act with integrity (option C is wrong). Solicitors are able to advertise.
Option A is wrong – a solicitor is personally accountable for compliance with the SRA Code of
Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs.

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21
Q

Question 3
An estate agent is undertaking a marketing campaign trying to acquire new clients by
making targeted face- to- face visits to properties in the area worth over £1 million to see if
the owners are willing to sell.
The estate agent contacts a solicitor and suggests that it would be mutually beneficial
for the estate agent to recommend to all clients acquired from the campaign that they
instruct the solicitor to do the conveyancing work for them. The estate agent suggests that in
return they are paid 1% of the solicitor’s conveyancing fees for each client who instructs the
solicitor as a result of the recommendation.
The solicitor agrees to the estate agent’s suggestion and they enter into a written
agreement to that effect. The agreement provides that every client must be informed of the
estate agent’s financial interest in making the recommendation.
Does the agreement breach the SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs?
A No, because the agreement is in writing.
B No, because every client is informed of the estate agent’s financial interest in making
the recommendation.
C No, because the solicitor is not making any direct approach to the clients.
D Yes, because solicitors are not permitted to share their fees.
E Yes, because the estate agent is acquiring the clients by making unsolicited
approaches to members of the public.

A

Answer
Option E is correct. Solicitors are permitted to enter into fee- sharing arrangements of this kind
(as a result option D is wrong). Such agreements must be in writing (Paragraph 5.1(c)) and
clients must be informed of the introducer’s financial interest (Paragraph 5.1(a)). However, the
solicitor must ensure that clients are not recruited in a way which would be in breach of the
Code of Conduct for Solicitors if done by the solicitor themselves (Paragraph 5.1(e)).
Here the clients are being recruited by cold calling and so the solicitor is in breach of
the Code of Conduct for Solicitors (Paragraph 8.9).

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22
Q

Question 1
A solicitor is instructed by a long- standing client to draw up the client’s will. The client’s
instructions are that, in recognition of all the work the solicitor has done for the client over
the years, the will is to include a legacy of £10,000 to the solicitor.
Which of the following best describes what the solicitor should do?
A Refuse to draw up the will.
B Draw up the will, but omit the legacy.
C Draw up the will, as instructed, after the client has taken independent advice.
D Draw up the will, but make the legacy payable to the solicitor’s children.
E Draw up the will, as instructed, after giving the client the details of local solicitors able
to advise on wills.

A

Answer
Option C is correct. The guidance from the SRA is that usually a solicitor should refuse to act
where the client is proposing to make a significant gift to the solicitor or a family member etc
unless the client agrees to take independent advice. It is not sufficient simply to give the client
details of other solicitors (option E is wrong). The solicitor should not take it upon themselves
to deviate from the client’s express instructions (options B and D are wrong). Option A is
wrong because it would be premature to refuse to draw up the will at this stage – the client’s
instructions can be accommodated if the client agrees to take independent advice.

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23
Q

Question 2
A father and daughter are buying a property together. The daughter instructs a solicitor
to deal with the purchase on their joint behalf. The daughter explains that the father is
elderly and too frail to attend at the solicitor’s office. The daughter tells the solicitor that
the property is to be held by them as beneficial joint tenants, but that the father will be
providing all the money for the purchase price. The daughter says that they are buying the
property so that the daughter can move in to live with the father and care for him in his
old age.
Should the solicitor act on the daughter’s instructions and immediately proceed with the
purchase?
A No, because a solicitor cannot accept instructions from a third party in any
circumstances.
B No, because the solicitor has reason to suspect that the instructions do not represent
the father’s wishes.
C Yes, because the daughter alone is the client.
D Yes, because proceeding with the purchase is in the father’s best interests.
E Yes, because, as the father’s carer, the daughter is automatically authorised to give
instructions on his behalf.

A

Answer
Option B is the best answer. The solicitor is being instructed by joint purchasers (option C
is wrong). The solicitor can accept instructions from a third party who is authorised to give
those instructions (option A therefore overstates the matter). However, the daughter’s status
as a carer would not give her that authority (option E is therefore wrong). The father’s age,
frailty and the fact that he alone is providing the entire purchase price mean that there
is reason to suspect that the instructions do not represent the father’s wishes (option D
therefore does not represent the best answer). The solicitor should not proceed until they
have satisfied themselves that the instructions do accord with the father’s wishes. The solicitor
cannot establish that the purchase is in the father’s best interests until the father’s wishes are
established

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24
Q

Question 3
A female solicitor is instructed by a male client in an acrimonious litigation matter. The
case progresses properly for two months. Then the solicitor receives a letter from the client
saying that the client has come to the view that women are too weak for robust litigation.
The client goes on to say that he has now instructed a male solicitor in a different firm. The
client asks for his file to be transferred to his new solicitor without delay.
On looking at the client’s file the solicitor sees that there are fees outstanding of £2,000 for
the work that the she has completed to date on the case.
Which of the following best describes the professional conduct position?
A The client cannot terminate the retainer because his grounds are discriminatory.
B The solicitor can retain the file until her proper fees are paid.
C The client cannot terminate the retainer because the solicitor has dealt with the case
properly to date.
D The solicitor must transfer the file to the new solicitor immediately, but is entitled to be
paid her proper fees.
E The client cannot terminate the retainer because he has not given reasonable notice to
the solicitor.

A

Answer
Option B is correct. The solicitor has a lien over the file until her proper fees are paid. Option
D is wrong because the solicitor is under no obligation to hand the file over until payment
unless ordered to do so by the court (although the solicitor may agree to hand over the file).
Options A, C and E are wrong – a client has the right to terminate the retainer at any time
and for any reason.

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25
Q

Question 1
A solicitor receives a telephone call from a client complaining about the bill which the
solicitor sent to the client last week. The client wants the bill reduced, but the solicitor thinks
that the bill is entirely justified.
Which of the following best describes what the solicitor should do?
A Tell the client to take the complaint to the Legal Ombudsman.
B Ask the court to assess the bill.
C Refer the client to the firm’s complaints procedure.
D Warn the client that the firm will charge a set fee for dealing with the complaint.
E Sue the client for the full amount of the bill.

A

Answer
Option C is correct. Complaints should be dealt with following the firm’s complaints procedure
(option A accordingly is not the best answer). It is only appropriate to involve the Legal
Ombudsman if the complaint cannot be concluded to the client’s satisfaction following the
firm’s complaints procedure. Complaints must be dealt with free of charge (option D is
therefore wrong). Having costs assessed by the court is the right of the client, not the solicitor
(option B is wrong). Option E is not the best answer as to sue the client is clearly premature.

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26
Q

Question 2
A solicitor is instructed by a new client in relation to an acrimonious divorce. The breakdown
of the marriage is very recent and, when giving instructions at the first meeting with the
solicitor, the client becomes distressed.
The solicitor’s costs will be dealt with on the basis of an hourly charging rate. However,
given the complexity of the case it is not possible for the solicitor to give an accurate
estimate of how much the case, as a whole, will cost.
Which of the following best describes how the solicitor should deal with the question
of costs?
A During the meeting the solicitor should tell the client about the hourly charging rate.
B The solicitor should say nothing about costs as this will only cause the client more
distress.
C During the meeting the solicitor should tell the client about the hourly charging rate and
warn that the overall cost will run into many thousands of pounds.
D During the meeting the solicitor should tell the client about the hourly charging rate and
set a date for reviewing costs.
E During the meeting the solicitor should explain that an accurate estimate cannot be
given for the overall cost of the case.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. Paragraph 8.7 requires the solicitor to ensure that the client receives the
best possible information about how the matter will be priced and the likely overall cost of
the matter. On these facts this would require the solicitor to explain the hourly charging rate
as the basis of the charge (options B and E are therefore wrong). Additionally, as no accurate
estimate can be given for the overall costs, the solicitor should set a date for reviewing costs
(setting a costs ceiling would be an acceptable alternative). By simply referring to the hourly
charging rate, option A does not go far enough. Finally, option C is not the best answer.
Saying that the overall cost will be ‘many thousands of pounds’ is too vague and unhelpful to
qualify as best possible information.

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27
Q

Question 3
A solicitor refers a client to a surveyor for advice on some structural damage to the client’s
property. This is the first client that the solicitor has referred to this particular surveyor.
Following the referral the solicitor is surprised to receive £150 from the surveyor. The
surveyor explains that their usual practice is to pay £150 commission for any referral as a
gesture of goodwill.
Which of the following best explains what the solicitor should do about the £150?
A There is no need to tell the client about the £150 because it is a private matter
between the solicitor and the surveyor, so the solicitor can just keep the payment.
B The solicitor must tell the client about the £150, but the solicitor is entitled to keep the
payment because it was just a gesture of goodwill.
C The solicitor must immediately return the £150 because solicitors are not permitted to
receive commission fees under any circumstances.
D The solicitor must tell the client about the £150, and keep the payment, if the client
agrees.
E The solicitor must immediately pay the £150 to the client.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. Paragraph 5.1 requires a solicitor to inform the client of any financial
benefit the solicitor has in referring the client to another person. The client must therefore be
told about the payment (option A is accordingly wrong). Paragraph 4.1 requires a solicitor
to account to the client for any financial benefit received, unless the client agrees otherwise.
Option B therefore is wrong in that the solicitor can only keep the payment with the client’s
agreement. Option C is wrong in stating that the solicitor must return the payment – the money
will either go to the client or remain with the solicitor, depending on whether or not the client
agrees that the solicitor can keep the money.
However, there is no requirement to actually pay it to the client. The solicitor can keep the
payment with the client’s consent. Option E therefore is not the best answer.

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28
Q

Question 1
A solicitor is acting for the claimant in a contract dispute. Shortly before the final hearing,
the defendant’s brief to counsel in the case is delivered to the solicitor’s office by mistake.
What should the solicitor do?
A Read the brief and then make the client aware of any of the contents which are
material to the client’s matter.
B Immediately return the brief to the defendant’s solicitors without reading it.
C Read the brief and then make use of its contents at the final hearing.
D Ask the client for instructions on whether to return the brief.
E Destroy the brief without reading it.

A

Answer
Option B is correct. Where a solicitor receives confidential information by mistake, immediately
on becoming aware of the error, the solicitor must return the papers to the originating solicitor
without reading them or otherwise making use of their contents (Ablitt v Mills & Reeve [1995]).
Paragraph 6.4 (d) provides for an express exception to the duty to disclose information
material to a client’s matter when such information is mistakenly disclosed via a privileged
document.

29
Q

Question 2
A solicitor drew up a will for a client. The terms of the will appointed the client’s widow as
executor and left the entire estate to the client’s son. The client died last week. The client’s
son contacts the solicitor and explains that he is in debt and that he urgently needs proof
that he will soon receive an inheritance to show to his main creditor otherwise the creditor
will start bankruptcy proceedings against him. The son requests a copy of the will.
Which of the following best explains how the solicitor should respond to the request?
A Immediately email a copy of the will to the son because this is in the client’s best
interests.
B Immediately email a copy of the will to the son because the solicitor’s duty of
confidentiality ceased on the client’s death.
C Offer to immediately write a letter to the creditor confirming that the entire estate will
pass to the son because the duty of confidentiality only arises in respect of a copy of
the will itself.
D Ask the widow for consent to release a copy of the will because the duty of
confidentiality has passed to the widow.
E Immediately email a copy of the will to the son because the need to avoid bankruptcy
proceedings is an example of the disclosure of confidential information being required
by law.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. The duty of confidentiality in Paragraph 6.3 extends to current and former
clients and survives death of a client. On death the duty of confidentiality passes to the
personal representatives. Accordingly, the solicitor cannot provide a copy of the will in the
absence of consent from the widow as executor, and options A and B are therefore wrong.
(Once the Will is proved it will become a public document but in the interim the solicitor must
maintain confidentiality.) The content of the will, not just a copy of it, is confidential (with the
result that option C is wrong). Option E is wrong – there is no legal requirement on the facts
necessitating disclosure of confidential information.

30
Q

Question 3
A solicitor is instructed by a new client in the purchase of a house. One of the solicitor’s
former clients sold the house to its current owner 12 months ago at a much reduced price
because the house had been flooded twice in the previous three years. The new client does
not know that the house is at risk of flooding.
Which of the following best describes the position with regard to the solicitor’s duty of
disclosure?
A The solicitor can only disclose the risk of flooding to the new client with the former
client’s consent.
B The solicitor must disclose the risk of flooding to the new client because the duty of
disclosure takes precedence over the duty of confidentiality.
C The solicitor has no duty to disclose the risk of flooding to the new client because the
information is not material to the retainer.
D The solicitor can disclose the risk of flooding to the new client because the solicitor
owes no duty of confidentiality to the former client following termination of the retainer.
E The solicitor must disclose the risk of flooding to the new client because this is in the
new client’s best interests.

A

Answer
Option A is correct. The solicitor owes a duty of confidentiality to the former client; option D
therefore is wrong. Option E is wrong as the duty of confidentiality can only be overridden with
the former client’s consent (note that disclosure is not required or permitted by law on these
facts). The duty of disclosure does not take precedence; option B is wrong. Option C is wrong
as the risk of flooding will have an effect on price and insurability which will affect whether
the new client wants to buy the property and so the information is material to the retainer.

31
Q

Question 1
A solicitor is asked to act in a boundary dispute. The prospective client owns a piece of
land adjacent to a company’s warehouse premises. The company has recently erected
a fence which encroaches onto the land. The solicitor tells the prospective client that
the solicitor is on the company’s board of directors. However, the solicitor reassures the
prospective client that the solicitor does not act for the company and that the solicitor will
keep the prospective client’s information confidential.
Is the solicitor able to act for the prospective client?
A Yes, because the prospective client is aware of the solicitor’s directorship.
B Yes, because effective safeguards are in place to protect the prospective client’s
confidential information.
C Yes, because there is no connection between the directorship and the solicitor’s
professional work.
D No, because there is an own interest conflict.
E No, because there is a conflict of interest between the prospective client and the
company.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. This is an own interest conflict and therefore the solicitor cannot act in
any circumstances (Paragraph 6.1). There are no exceptions contained in Paragraph 6.1. The
company is not a client and so there can be no conflict of interest.

32
Q

Question 2
A father is selling one of his many properties to his daughter at a substantial undervalue to
help her to get a start on the property ladder. They both ask the same solicitor to carry out
the conveyancing work for them.
Which of the following best explains who the solicitor can act for?
A The solicitor cannot act for either as there is a conflict of interest between father and
daughter.
B The solicitor cannot act for either as there is an own interest conflict.
C The solicitor can act for both as they are ‘competing for the same objective’.
D The solicitor can act for both as the risk of a conflict of interest is not significant.
E The solicitor cannot act for the father as selling the property at a substantial
undervalue is not in his best interests.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. Paragraph 6.2 provides that you must not act if there is a client conflict or
significant risk of a client conflict. Usually, there will be a client conflict in acting for both seller
and buyer in a residential property transaction. However, this will not always be the case. On
the facts, this is a case where a conflict is unlikely to arise (option A therefore is not the best
answer). The solicitor is not personally involved so there is no own interest conflict (option B
is wrong). ‘Competing for the same objective’ is not involved – they are not in competition to
acquire the property (option C is therefore not relevant). Even if a conflict of interest arose it
would not prevent the solicitor acting for both parties – the solicitor could act for one. Option E
is wrong, as selling the property, even at an undervalue, would achieve the father’s objective.

33
Q

Question 3
A solicitor receives instructions to act for the claimant in a litigation matter. The solicitor’s
colleague in the firm’s litigation department, already acts for the defendant in the same
matter.
Can the solicitor act for the claimant?
A Yes, because the parties have a ‘substantially common interest’ in the matter.
B Yes, because the parties are ‘competing for the same objective’.
C Yes, because there is no conflict of interest where the parties are represented by
different solicitors within the same firm.
D No, because there is a conflict of interest.
E No, because there is an own interest conflict.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. The clients here have opposite interests as they are on different sides
in the dispute. This gives rise to a conflict of interest. Neither exception in Paragraph 6.2
can apply to opponents in litigation, accordingly, options A and B are wrong. Paragraph
6.2 is replicated in the Code for Firms and so applies to the firm as a whole and not just to
individual solicitors or employees, meaning that option C is wrong. Option D is wrong as the
solicitor has no personal involvement and so there is no own interest conflict

34
Q

Question 1
A solicitor works for an unincorporated law firm. The solicitor is acting for the buyer in a
protracted residential conveyancing matter. The solicitor receives a telephone call from the
seller (who is unrepresented). The seller is becoming increasingly frustrated at the delay
and threatens to pull out of the deal. To prevent this, the solicitor says to the seller, ‘My firm
will pay the deposit of £20,000 to you by 10 am tomorrow.’
Which of the following statements best explains who is liable to pay the £20,000?
A Neither the solicitor nor the firm are liable because the solicitor did not use the word
‘undertake’ when speaking to the seller.
B The firm is liable, but not the solicitor, because this was an undertaking expressly made
on the firm’s behalf.
C The firm is liable, but not the solicitor, because the solicitor was acting in the best
interests of the client.
D The solicitor is liable, but not the firm, because an undertaking is only binding on the
person who gave it.
E Both the solicitor and the firm are liable, because the statement made by the solicitor
amounts to an undertaking binding on both the individual and the firm.

A

Answer
Option E is correct. The statement is an undertaking even though the word ‘undertaking’ is
not used (option A is therefore wrong). The SRA Glossary definition makes it clear that it
is not necessary to include the word ‘undertake’ for an oral or written statement, on which
reliance is placed, to constitute an enforceable promise. The undertaking is binding both on
the individual and the firm. The fact that the solicitor was motivated by trying to save the deal
does not exclude the solicitor from liability.

35
Q

Question 2
A solicitor is in practice as a sole practitioner. The solicitor is acting for a client in a litigation
matter. At the hearing, the client loses the case and is ordered to pay £5,000 towards the
opponent’s costs. Outside court the solicitor says to their opponent, ‘Don’t worry. I’ll make
sure that the £5,000 will be paid within the next 14 days.’ Fourteen days have now elapsed
and the client has still not provided the solicitor with any funds to pay the costs.
Who can force the solicitor to comply with the promise?
A The Solicitors’ Regulatory Authority.
B The Solicitors’ Disciplinary Tribunal.
C The Legal Ombudsman.
D The court.
E No one.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. The solicitor’s statement would amount to a solicitor’s undertaking and the
solicitor has not complied with its terms. Whilst a failure to perform an undertaking may result
in disciplinary proceedings being taken against the solicitor, only the court has the power to
enforce a solicitor’s undertaking.

36
Q

Question 3
A solicitor is acting for the seller in a residential conveyancing transaction. At 5 pm, the
solicitor receives a telephone call from the buyer’s solicitors to say that in breach of their
agreement, the seller has failed to finish some repairs to the property. Completion is due to
take place the following morning and the buyer is threatening to pull out of the transaction
unless the repairs are completed. To ensure that the transaction proceeds, the solicitor
confirms to the buyer’s solicitor that the seller will carry out the repairs before completion.
The solicitor immediately telephones the seller. The seller’s voicemail message says the
seller has been unexpectedly called away on business and cannot be contacted until
tomorrow afternoon.
Which of the following best explains the solicitor’s professional conduct position?
A The solicitor has given an undertaking which is binding upon the solicitor personally.
B The solicitor has acted dishonestly in making a promise which could not be met.
C There are no professional conduct issues because the promise was that it would be the
client, rather than the solicitor, who would carry out the repairs.
D There are no professional conduct issues because the telephone conversation was not
confirmed in writing.
E There are no professional conduct issues because the promise was too ambiguous to
be construed as an undertaking.

A

Answer
Option A is correct.
Option E is wrong. There is no ambiguity in the solicitor’s statement (and in any event any
ambiguity is likely to be resolved in favour of the recipient). It would be construed as an
undertaking.
Option D is wrong. The definition of an undertaking makes it clear that it does not matter that
the undertaking was given orally.
Option C is wrong. An undertaking ‘on behalf’ of a client is binding on the solicitor personally.
The solicitor may have been foolish in giving the undertaking without speaking to the client
first, but their behaviour would not be considered dishonest. Option B is therefore wrong.

37
Q

Question 1
A solicitor is acting for a client on a plea of guilty to a charge of assault on a member of
staff in a public house. At the sentencing hearing the court asks the solicitor to confirm that
the client’s list of previous convictions is accurate. The client instructs the solicitor to confirm
that the list is accurate despite the fact a conviction for assaulting a bartender last year has
been omitted. The solicitor advises the client that this omission should be corrected, but the
client does not want to do this.
Which of the following best explains what the solicitor should do?
A Tell the client that the solicitor must cease to act because the solicitor cannot knowingly
mislead the court.
B Do as the client instructs because the solicitor’s duty to act in the best interests of the
client overrides the solicitor’s duty not to mislead the court.
C Continue to act but tell the court that the list is inaccurate because keeping quiet
would be a breach of the solicitor’s duty to act in a way which upholds the proper
administration of justice.
D Correct the list and then cease to act because this accords with the solicitor’s duty to
uphold the proper administration of justice.
E Continue to act but refuse to confirm or deny the accuracy of the list because the
solicitor will not mislead the court by remaining silent.

A

Answer
Option A is correct. The solicitor cannot continue to act knowing that the list is inaccurate as
this would be misleading the court (Paragraph 1.4). However, the solicitor cannot disclose
confidential information without the client’s consent (Paragraph 6.3). Hence, the solicitor would
have to cease to act, without correcting the list.

38
Q

Question 2
A solicitor is acting for the defendant in a criminal case. The solicitor interviews a potential
witness. During the course of the interview, it transpires that the witness’ evidence works
against the defendant’s case.
Which of the following best describes how the solicitor’s duties apply in this situation?
A The solicitor’s duty to act in the client’s best interests requires that the solicitor try to
persuade the witness to change their evidence.
B The solicitor is not obliged to call the witness, but the solicitor must be careful to
adhere to the solicitor’s duty not to mislead the court.
C The solicitor’s duty to uphold the administration of justice requires the solicitor to call
the witness regardless of the evidence the witness will give.
D The solicitor is under a duty to draw the court’s attention to the witness’ evidence
because it is likely to have a material effect on the outcome of the case.
E The solicitor’s duty to act with integrity requires the solicitor to tell the prosecution about
the witness’ evidence.

A

Answer
Option B is correct There is no obligation to call the witness (option C therefore is wrong),
but Paragraph 1.4 requires that a solicitor does not mislead the court. Option D is wrong
as there is no duty to inform the court of evidence which prejudices the solicitor’s client (cf.
cases, statutes and procedural irregularities in Paragraph 2.7). Option A is wrong as trying
to persuade the witness to change their evidence would breach Paragraph 2.2. There is
no duty to inform the prosecution of a potential witness’ evidence and therefore option E is
also wrong.

39
Q

Question 3
A solicitor is acting for the claimant in a litigation matter. The defendant is unrepresented.
On the journey to court for the final hearing the solicitor is reading a legal journal
and discovers that the solicitor has overlooked a case which completely destroys the
client’s case.
What should the solicitor do on arrival at court?
A Cease to act.
B Provide the defendant with the name of the case and its citation.
C Draw the court’s attention to the case.
D Ask for the client’s consent to the solicitor drawing the case to the court’s attention.
E Tell the client that the case cannot proceed because of a procedural irregularity.

A

Answer
Option C is correct. Under Paragraph 2.7 a solicitor is under a duty to draw the court’s
attention to cases which are likely to have a material effect on the case. Compliance with the
duty is not dependent on the client’s consent (option D is wrong). Immediately ceasing to act
would not assist the client, and would not comply with Paragraph 2.7; option A is therefore
not the best answer. Option B is not the best answer, as providing details of the case would
not assist an unrepresented party and may be considered to be taking unfair advantage of a
third party. Option E is wrong – the solicitor must draw the court’s attention to the case. What
that means for the ongoing conduct of the final hearing will ultimately be a matter for the
court (unless the claimant decides to discontinue its claim).

40
Q

Question 1
A solicitor attends a private party at a friend’s house. A good deal of alcohol is consumed.
Tempers flare and the solicitor is caught up in a fight outside the house. The neighbours call
the police. The solicitor is arrested for assault. The police decide to issue the solicitor with a
caution rather than proceed with a prosecution.
Which of the following best describes how the solicitor’s duties operate in this situation?
A The solicitor is not obliged to do anything as they have not been convicted of a
criminal offence.
B The solicitor will meet all their duties by informing their manager about the caution.
C The solicitor is not obliged to do anything as the SRA will not consider this to be a
serious matter.
D The solicitor is under a duty to notify the SRA about the caution.
E The solicitor is not obliged to do anything as the incident occurred outside the solicitor’s
practice.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. Paragraph 7.6 requires the solicitor to notify the SRA if they are subject to
a criminal caution – a conviction is not required (option A is wrong). The requirement to notify
the SRA in these circumstances is a strict one; the seriousness or otherwise of the matter is
not relevant (option C is wrong). The duty applies irrespective of whether the offence occurs
outside practice (option E is wrong). The solicitor could satisfy their duty by notifying the firm’s
compliance officers, not the solicitor’s manager (which means that option B is wrong).

41
Q

Question 2
A solicitor is acting for a defendant in a personal injury matter. The case is settled on the
basis that the defendant will pay damages of £10,000. The solicitor undertakes that the
£10,000 will be paid within seven days. The firm’s policy is that when an undertaking is
given, a written note must be placed on the client’s file. The solicitor puts a written note on
the file and then goes on two weeks’ holiday. No one from the firm looks at the file in the
solicitor’s absence and consequently the £10,000 is not paid on the due date.
Which of the following best describes who has breached the SRA Codes of Conduct?
A As the person who gave the undertaking, the solicitor alone has breached the Codes
of Conduct.
B The firm’s managers bear ultimate responsibility and so they alone have breached
the Codes of Conduct.
C The firm’s COLP bears ultimate responsibility and so they alone have breached
the Codes of Conduct.
D The solicitor is not in breach of the Codes of Conduct because they have complied with
the firm’s policy.
E The solicitor, the firm and the COLP are all in breach of the Codes of Conduct.

A

Answer
Option E is correct. The solicitor is in breach of their duty to comply with the undertaking. The
firm’s policy is clearly inadequate. Whilst the managers bear ultimate responsibility for the
firm’s compliance with the Codes, such an inadequate policy places the COLP in breach of
their obligations under Paragraph 9.1 of the SRA Code of Conduct for Firms.

42
Q

Question 3
One evening a solicitor goes to a restaurant for a meal with various colleagues from the
solicitor’s firm. At the end of the meal, a colleague says that they have left their wallet at
home, but the colleague is still able to pay their £100 contribution to the bill in cash. The
following day the colleague tells the solicitor that a client had given the colleague £500 in
cash as costs on account for the work that the firm would be doing on the client’s case. As it
was too late to give the money to the finance department, the colleague had kept the cash
with them on their evening out for safekeeping. The solicitor queries the colleague using the
cash, but the colleague insists that they were only borrowing the money.
What should the solicitor do?
A The solicitor is not obliged to do anything as the colleague was only borrowing
the money.
B Report the matter to the SRA.
C The solicitor is not obliged to do anything because £100 is only a small amount
of money.
D Tell the colleague to repay the money immediately.
E Report the matter to the firm’s compliance officers.

A

Answer
Option E is the best answer. This is a misuse of client money and as such is likely to be viewed
as a serious breach of the regulatory requirements, irrespective of the amount involved or the
colleague’s intent. This is therefore a matter which the solicitor must report under Paragraph
7.7. The solicitor could report the matter to the SRA direct, however, the solicitor will discharge
their duty if they report the matter to the compliance officers (Paragraph 7.12). This would
be a better option as it would enable the compliance officers to review all the circumstances
before, if necessary, formally involving the SRA.

43
Q

Question 1
Three friends decide to set up a firm offering conveyancing services to members of the
public. None of the friends are solicitors.
Which of the following best describes the position regarding the regulatory
requirements which will apply to the proposed firm?
A The firm must be authorised by the SRA.
B There is no need for the firm to be authorised.
C The firm must be authorised by the Legal Services Board.
D The firm must be authorised by an approved regulator.
E Authorisation for the firm is dealt with outside the Legal Services Act 2007.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. As the firm will be offering conveyancing services it will be carrying out
reserved instrument activities – one of the reserved legal activities. The firm must therefore be
authorised (option B is wrong) within the regulatory framework set down by the Legal Services
Act 2007 (option E therefore is wrong). Authorisation can be given by any of the approved
regulators (here probably the Council of Licensed Conveyancers) and is not restricted to the
SRA (option A therefore is not the best answer). Option C is wrong as the Legal Services
Board is responsible for the oversight of regulation; it does not authorise firms itself.

44
Q

Question 2
A solicitor is authorised to provide legal services by the SRA.
Which of the following best describes the effect of authorisation?
A The solicitor can provide all reserved legal activities.
B The solicitor will be subject to regulation by the SRA in respect of all the legal services
they provide.
C The solicitor is only subject to regulation by the Legal Services Board in respect of the
reserved legal activities they carry out.
D The solicitor is absolved from the need to comply with any further regulatory
requirements.
E The solicitor is only subject to regulation by the SRA in respect of the reserved legal
activities they carry out.

A

Answer
Option B is correct. An authorised provider is subject to regulation by their own regulator
(here the SRA) in respect of all the legal services they provide, not just those falling within
the definition of reserved legal activities. The SRA cannot authorise an individual to carry out
notarial activities, and so the solicitor cannot carry out all types of reserved legal activity.

45
Q

Question 1
Having completed all the necessary training requirements a man wishes to apply for
admission to the roll of solicitors.
At the end of their final year at university the man was drinking with some fellow students in
a local bar. A fight broke out in which the barman was punched in the face and sustained
a black eye. The fight was broken up by the other bar staff. The bar owner put the fight down to student ‘high spirits’ and decided not to call the police; instead they reported
the incident to the university authorities. The university carried out an investigation. At first
the man denied being in the bar, but CCTV footage showed that it was the man who had
punched the barman. The man was formally disciplined by the university. The incident was
completely out of character. The man has not been involved in anything similar before
or since.
Should the man tell the SRA about the disciplinary proceedings?
A No, because the man was not convicted of a criminal offence.
B No, because the incident took place too long ago to be of relevance in assessing the
man’s character and suitability.
C No, because the fact that it was an isolated incident demonstrates that the man is of
good character.
D Yes, because there is a risk that the university will inform the SRA.
E Yes, because the incident is relevant to the assessment of the man’s character and
suitability.

A

Answer
Option E is the best answer. The incident and the disciplinary proceedings are relevant in
assessing an application irrespective of when they took place (so Option B is not correct).
Option A is not correct because the SRA looks at all types of behaviour, not just criminal
or recent behaviour. Rule 4.1 sets out examples of ‘other conduct and behaviour’ including
violence, dishonesty and being subject to disciplinary proceedings by a regulatory body.
The man’s behaviour was violent (punching the barman) and dishonest (lying to the university
authorities) and they were disciplined by the university. The fact that the incident has not been
repeated will be taken into account by the SRA, but it is not a justification for withholding
the information (so, Option C is not correct). Option D is not the best answer because,
whilst there is a risk that the university will inform the SRA, this should not be the reason for
disclosure – the man is under an obligation to be open and honest.

46
Q

Question 2
A solicitor decides to set up in business as a sole practitioner carrying out niche private
client work for high net worth individuals. The solicitor anticipates that they will regularly be
dealing with estates in excess of £20 million. The solicitor will be authorised by the SRA as
a recognised sole practice.
Which of the following best describes how the requirements in respect of professional
indemnity insurance applies to the solicitor?
A The solicitor can limit their liability at below £2 million.
B The cover must be for at least £3 million.
C The cover will need to be in excess of the minimum terms and conditions set under the
SRA Indemnity Insurance Rules.
D Having taken out professional indemnity insurance the solicitor will be absolved from
liability for negligence.
E The solicitor is not required to meet the minimum terms and conditions set under the
SRA Indemnity Insurance Rules

A

Answer
Option C is correct. As a recognised sole practice the cover required under the minimum
terms and conditions is £2 million. The ability to limit liability below this sum only applies to
freelance solicitors. The solicitor is required to take out ‘adequate and appropriate insurance’.
Given the size of the estates that the solicitor will be dealing with, the cover will need to be
in excess of the minimum. Indemnity insurance does not absolve a solicitor from liability for
negligence.

47
Q

Question 3
Having completed all the necessary training requirements, a prospective solicitor has
been offered a position as an assistant solicitor in the Family Department of a large firm
of solicitors authorised by the SRA. In order to take up the offer, the prospective solicitor
will be applying for admission to the roll of solicitors. There is no reason to think that the
application will be refused.
Is it necessary for the prospective solicitor to obtain a practising certificate in order to
take up the position?
A Yes, because having a practising certificate is a mandatory prerequisite for being
admitted to the roll of solicitors.
B Yes, because otherwise in taking up the position the prospective solicitor will be
committing a criminal offence.
C Yes, because the firm is authorised by the SRA.
D No, because given the nature of the job the prospective solicitor will not be carrying
out reserved legal activities.
E No, because the prospective solicitor will not be a partner in the firm.

A

Answer
Option B is the best answer. The job is that of a solicitor. Section 1 Solicitors Act 1974, inter
alia, requires anyone acting as a solicitor to have a practising certificate. Practising as a
solicitor without satisfying the requirements of s 1 is a criminal offence. The requirement is not
dependent on the firm being SRA authorised (option C is wrong). The requirement applies
irrespective of whether the solicitor will be carrying out reserved legal activities (option D
is wrong). The requirement applies to employed solicitors as well as partners (option E is
wrong). Finally, option A is wrong as it is possible to be on the roll without having a practising
certificate.

48
Q

Question 1
A secretary working in a firm of solicitors is subjected to a number of unwanted sexual
advances by a solicitor working in the same firm. The firm has never provided training for
its employees on the Equality Act 2010. The secretary makes a complaint to the firm’s senior
partner. The senior partner says that the firm was completely unaware of the solicitor’s
behaviour. The senior partner promises to speak to the solicitor in question and insist that
the behaviour stops. Despite this the solicitor continues to make sexual advances to the
secretary. In view of the solicitor’s behaviour the secretary is now contemplating making a
claim to the Employment Tribunal.
Which of the following best describes the likely outcome of such a claim?
A The solicitor’s behaviour will not be considered unlawful because it amounts to normal
workplace banter.
B The solicitor and the firm will be liable for harassment.
C The firm is not liable for the solicitor’s behaviour because it did not know about the
behaviour.
D The firm alone will be liable for harassment.
E The secretary will not be entitled to damages because they have not suffered any
financial loss.

A

Answer
Option B is correct. The solicitor’s behaviour amounts to harassment under the Act (option
A is wrong). The solicitor’s behaviour occurred in the course of their employment and so the
firm will also be vicariously liable even though the firm did not know about the behaviour;
accordingly, option C is wrong. It is highly unlikely that the firm will be able to show that it
took reasonable steps to prevent the behaviour because it had not provided training and its response to the complaint was inadequate. If the firm is found liable, the individual employee
cannot escape liability (option D is wrong). Finally, option E is wrong, as even though the
secretary has not suffered a financial loss, they may be awarded damages for injury to
feelings.

49
Q

Question 2
A solicitor’s brother is going through an acrimonious divorce. The whole family is finding the
divorce proceedings very upsetting. One evening, having drunk a considerable amount of
alcohol, the solicitor goes onto social media and makes various sexist remarks about his
brother’s wife. The solicitor’s firm is not acting in the divorce.
Which of the following best describes the repercussions of the solicitor’s actions under
the Equality Act 2010?
A The solicitor’s actions amount to direct discrimination.
B The solicitor’s actions amount to victimisation.
C The solicitor’s actions are not unlawful under the Equality Act 2010 and do not breach
the rules of professional conduct.
D The solicitor’s actions are not unlawful under the Equality Act 2010 but they are likely to
breach the rules of professional conduct.
E The solicitor’s actions amount to indirect discrimination.

A

Answer
Option D is correct. The Equality Act 2010 only makes discrimination unlawful in certain
contexts (eg in the provision of legal services and in the workplace). As the comments were
made outside those contexts they do not amount to unlawful discrimination under the Act. The
SRA Principles apply to a solicitor’s private life. Making sexist comments is likely to place the
solicitor in breach of Principle 2 and Principle 6.

50
Q

Question 3
A client instructs a large commercial firm of solicitors in connection with a medical
negligence claim. At the first meeting the solicitor conducting the case hands the client a
standard leaflet explaining the firm’s complaints procedure. The client looks at the leaflet
for the first time later that day. The client, who has learning difficulties, contacts the firm and
asks to have the leaflet provided in ‘Easy Read’ format. The firm has not previously given
any consideration to the provision of information in an ‘Easy Read’ format. The client is told
that the firm does not produce its leaflets in ‘Easy Read’ format.
Which of the following best describes how the firm’s duty to make reasonable
adjustments under the Equality Act 2010 applies in this situation?
A The firm has acted unlawfully in not providing the client with the leaflet in ‘Easy Read’
format at the initial interview.
B Now that the firm is aware of the client’s disability, it must provide the client with the
leaflet in ‘Easy Read’ format without delay.
C Now that the firm is aware of the client’s disability, it should provide the leaflet in ‘Easy
Read’ format at the client’s expense.
D It is not reasonable to expect the firm to provide the leaflet in ‘Easy Read’ format.
E The firm has not breached its duty under the Equality Act 2010 but is likely to be in
breach of its professional conduct obligations

A

Answer
Option A is correct. The duty to make reasonable adjustments in the context of the provision
of services is anticipatory. The firm should have anticipated the need for clients with some
disabilities to have the leaflet in ‘Easy Read’ format and to have had the leaflet produced
accordingly. The client’s need for adjustments should have been established by the solicitor
at the first interview and the client given the leaflet in the correct format. Given the situation
that has arisen, the firm should provide a leaflet in the correct format without delay, but option
B is not the best answer because the firm’s duty had already arisen; it is not dependent on
knowledge of the client’s disability. Option C is wrong as the cost of making adjustments
cannot be passed on to the disabled person. Given the size of the firm, the importance
of providing clients with information about complaints (Paragraph 8.3 of the SRA Code for
Solicitors, RELs and RFLs requires written information to be provided at the outset) and the
fact that the firm has chosen to present that information in leaflet form, it would not be
unreasonable to expect the firm to also produce the leaflet in ‘Easy Read’ format (accordingly,
option D is wrong). Finally, option E is not the best answer here. While the firm is likely to be
in breach of its professional conduct obligations (eg SRA Principle 6 and Paragraph 8.6 of the
SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs), it is also in breach of the requirements
under the Equality Act 2010.

51
Q

A disabled employee at a firm of solicitors has requested that the firm buy some computer software for him to use at work. This software enables a person with the employee’s disability to use a computer more effectively. The partners in the firm want advice on their obligations under the Equality Act 2010 (‘the Act’).

What must the partners in the firm do to meet their obligations under the Act?

A. They must make substantial adjustments to ensure that the disabled employee is not placed at a disadvantage compared to those who are not disabled.

B. They must make reasonable adjustments to ensure that the disabled employee is not placed at a substantial disadvantage compared to those who are not disabled.

C. They must make adjustments to ensure that the disabled employee is not placed at a significant disadvantage compared to those who are not disabled.

D. They must make significant adjustments to ensure that the disabled employee is not placed at a disadvantage compared to those who are not disabled.

E. They must make adjustments to ensure that the disabled employee is not placed at an unreasonable disadvantage compared to those who are not disabled.

A

B - They must make reasonable adjustments to ensure that the disabled employee is not placed at a substantial disadvantage compared to those who are not disabled.

52
Q

A paralegal has been employed for 18 months at a law firm. She appeared as a witness in a colleague’s successful claim under the Equality Act 2010 (‘the Act’) against the firm at the Employment Tribunal. The paralegal and the colleague continue to work for the firm after the claim concluded.

A few months later, the firm pays a discretionary bonus to staff in their salary to thank them for their hard work that financial year. The paralegal and the colleague do not receive a bonus unlike all other staff. They are the only employees to have been involved in Employment Tribunal proceedings against the firm. The paralegal raises the matter with her line manager but with no success, which leaves her feeling humiliated.

The paralegal seeks advice on whether she can bring a claim under the Act for the failure to pay her the discretionary bonus.

Is the firm likely to be in breach of its duties under the Act by not paying the paralegal the discretionary bonus?

A. No, as the bonus is at the firm’s discretion only and not a contractual term.

B. Yes, there is a likely claim of direct discrimination.

C. Yes, there is a likely claim of victimisation.

D. Yes, there is a likely claim of harassment.

E. No, as the paralegal has not worked at the firm for two years

A

C - Yes, there is a likely claim of victimisation.

53
Q

To fund a breach of contract claim a claimant enters into a damages-based agreement with a firm of solicitors set at 20%. The claimant’s solicitors pay disbursements of £5,000. The action is settled. A settlement order is drawn up under which the defendant agrees to pay the claimant damages in the sum of £150,000 and agrees to pay the claimant’s solicitors’ costs of £10,000 plus disbursements of £5,000. The defendant pays the amounts due to the claimant’s solicitors.

The claimant’s solicitors calculate the amount they can deduct under the damages-based agreement. The solicitors will remit the balance to the claimant.

What sum will the claimant receive from his solicitors?

A. £130,000

B. £120,000

C. £115,000

D. £148,000

E. £117,000

A

A - £130,000

54
Q

A litigation solicitor volunteers one day a week in a law centre defending clients on debt claims. Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
Select one alternative:

The law centre must be authorised by the SRA because advising on debt claims is a regulated activity.

The law centre does not need to be authorised by the SRA unless the solicitor will be appearing before the court.

The law centre does not need to be authorised by the SRA but the solicitor must comply with the Code of Conduct for Solicitors.

The law centre does not need to be authorised by the SRA because the solicitor is working on a voluntary basis.

The law centre must be authorised by the SRA because the conduct of litigation is a reserved legal activity.

A

The law centre must be authorised by the SRA because the conduct of litigation is a reserved legal activity.

Law centres must be authorised by the SRA if they provide reserved legal activities regardless of whether the solicitor works on a voluntary basis. Reserved legal activities are set down in section 12 and Schedule 2 to the Legal Services Act 2007. Rights of audience (the right to appear before court) is a reserved legal activity, but so is the conduct of litigation, so the law centre will need to be authorised in this case. The solicitor must comply with the Code of Conduct for Solicitors, but the law centre must also be authorised by the SRA. This was covered in Adapt: Good Business Practice: Managing Risk, element ‘types of legal businesses’ and the recording, ‘Introduction to the regulation of law firms’.

55
Q

A junior solicitor was preparing a first draft of a contract and made an error in a clause. If the contract was signed in its draft form, the clause would be unenforceable following a recent case. The law firm held training on the case which the junior solicitor did not attend. The junior solicitor’s supervisor, who is five years qualified, missed the error when he sent the draft contract to the client. The partner responsible for the work of the junior solicitor and the supervisor identified the error when reading the draft contract two days later and took action to rectify it.

Which one of the following statements best sets out the correct position regarding the Code of Conduct for Solicitors (‘Code’)?

Select one alternative:

The junior solicitor has breached the Code but the supervisor has not.

The supervisor has breached the Code but the junior solicitor has not.

The junior solicitor and the supervisor have both breached the Code.

The partner has breached the Code, but the junior solicitor and the supervisor have not.

The Compliance Officer for Legal Practice has breached the Code, but the junior solicitor and the supervisor have not.

A

The junior solicitor and the supervisor have both breached the Code.

This question concerns the obligations of competence on solicitors under the Code of Conduct for Solicitors (‘CCS’). CCS applies to all solicitors and lawyers authorised by the SRA to provide legal services. CCS 3.3 requires solicitors to maintain their competence and keep their professional knowledge and skills up to date. CCS 3.5 requires solicitors who supervise others to effectively supervise work being done for clients. CCS 3.6 requires lawyers to ensure the individuals they manage are competent to carry out their role. The junior solicitor has breached CCS 3.3, the supervisor has breached CCS 3.5. The partner may have breached CCS 3.6, but he has taken action to rectify the error. It is possible that the COLP has failed to ensure the firm complies with all its regulatory obligations here, but this is a breach of the Code of Conduct for Firms, not the Code of Conduct for Solicitors. These points were covered in the recording ‘Introduction to the regulation of law firms’.

56
Q

You are on the panel interviewing candidates for a role as solicitor at your firm. Your office is a modern three storey building. A candidate of exceptional quality presents herself for interview. Her CV is impressive and she answers the panel’s questions extremely well. She is blind and, at the end of the interview, mentions that she would need a small ramp outside the entrance of the building and railings on the stairs to the upper floors in order to be able to access the building safely. After all the candidates have all been interviewed, the committee is deciding who should be offered the job. You are very keen on the blind candidate, but the others are not keen on offering it to her as this would involve paying for a ramp and railings. The ramp and railings would require minimal cost and disruption to the business of the firm.

How should you advise the committee?

Select one alternative:

If the candidate is the best person for the role, the law firm must appoint her and must provide the ramp and railings.

If the candidate is the best person for the role, the law firm must appoint her. However, it has a discretion as to whether it provides the ramp and railings.

The law firm does not have to appoint the candidate to the post and does not have to provide the ramp and railings.

If the candidate is the best person for the role, the law firm must appoint her. However, as the candidate can access the building perfectly well, the law firm does not have to provide the ramp and railings.

If the law firm appoints the candidate, it must provide the ramp and railings. If the firm does not wish to incur this expense, they should appoint a different candidate.

A

If the candidate is the best person for the role, the law firm must appoint her and must provide the ramp and railings.

This question concerns the requirement to make reasonable adjustments and not to discriminate against a person because of their disability under the Equality Act. The Equality Act 2010 puts a positive obligation on organisations to make reasonable adjustments to make sure that a disabled person is not placed at a substantial disadvantage compared to a non-disabled person. If the adjustments are reasonable which they are here (minimal cost and disruption to the business), there is no discretion to make the adjustments. In addition, the firm must not discriminate against a person because of their ‘protected characteristic’ which includes a disability, e.g. blindness. If this candidate is the best candidate for the job, she should be offered the role and the firm should pay for the adjustments.

57
Q

A solicitor has agreed a fixed fee of £500 to draft a will for a long standing client of the firm. Some of the provisions in the will were complex and took more time for the solicitor to draft than she originally anticipated. When preparing a bill for the client, the solicitor notices that she has recorded fees of £700 based on her hourly rate for the time she spent on the matter.

Which of the following best states the action she should take?
Select one alternative:

She should write to the client with a revised cost estimate of £700 and then invoice the client the full amount.

She should charge the client £700.

She should invoice the client £500 for drafting the will and transfer the remaining £200 to the client’s general file so that the firm can bill for this time at a future date.

She must invoice the client £500 and write off the additional £200.

She should invoice the client £500 now and invoice the client £200 next month.

A

She must invoice the client £500 and write off the additional £200.

This question concerns fixed fee agreements which are common for drafting a will or conveyancing. With a fixed fee the law firm must invoice the client for the fixed amount agreed with the client regardless of the time spent by fee earners. In the absence of any agreement with the client to vary the fee, any time spent by fee earners in excess of the fixed fee must be written off. If the firm had incurred less time on the file, the firm would still be able to charge the fixed fee of £500. Transferring £200 to another file of the client would be a very serious breach of the SRA’s regulations and potentially fraud.

58
Q

A solicitor, who is acting for a company in a contract negotiation with a supplier, receives an email from the supplier’s solicitor, which appears to have been intended for the supplier but sent to the the company’s solicitor in error.

Which of the following statements best describes how the company’s solicitor should respond?

Select one alternative:

The solicitor should explain the situation to their client and ask their client to give them permission in writing not to disclose the information in the email, as it could unfairly prejudice the negotiation.

The solicitor should not read the email and should return the email to the supplier’s solicitor, as the email was sent by mistake.

The solicitor should not read the email and should not tell the client about it, as it could unfairly prejudice the negotiation.

The solicitor should read the email as it could help them succeed in the negotiation and a solicitor has a duty to act in best interests of each client.

The solicitor should read the email and make their client aware of its contents, as a solicitor has a duty to make their client aware of all information material to the client’s case.

A

The solicitor should not read the email and should return the email to the supplier’s solicitor, as the email was sent by mistake.

This question concerns the solicitor’s duty to make their client aware of all information material to their client’s matter of which they have knowledge and the specific exceptions to this rule. There is an exception in SRA Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs 6.4 (d), stating that a solicitor should not make a client aware of information material to their matter if the reason the solicitor has knowledge of the information is because it was in a privileged document which was mistakenly disclosed.

59
Q

You completed your training contract three years ago and you are now working for a different law firm. One of the partners asks you to assist them with a long-standing client who is purchasing a factory. You go to the meeting and recognise the client. When you were a trainee solicitor you worked on a personal injury case where an employee was injured in a factory. You acted for the employee. The client who is purchasing the factory was the employer.

What should you do?

Select one alternative:

There is a conflict of interest and your firm will no longer be able to act for the client purchasing the factory.

There is a conflict of interest and you should tell the partner that you cannot be involved in the purchase of the factory.

There is no conflict of interest and you do not owe any duty to your former client because you now work for a different law firm.

There is no conflict of interest and your firm can act for the client and you can be involved with the purchase.

There is no conflict of interest but you cannot be involved with the purchase of the factory.

A

There is no conflict of interest and your firm can act for the client and you can be involved with the purchase.

This question concerns conflicts of interest and confidentiality. You will need to maintain the duty of confidentiality that you owe to your previous client. However, there is no conflict of interest on the facts here. The information that you are aware of from the personal injury case is unlikely to affect the purchase of the factory.

60
Q

You are an apprentice solicitor in the litigation department. Peter is an apprentice solicitor at the firm which is acting for the other side in a litigation matter. Yesterday, you said the following to Peter in a telephone conversation:

“I promise to forward the witness statement of X to you by first class post today”.

On the basis Peter is acting reasonably in placing reliance on what you said, which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

Your words cannot amount to an enforceable undertaking because you are an apprentice solicitor.

Your words cannot amount to an enforceable undertaking because they were said in a telephone conversation, but they would have amounted to an enforceable undertaking if they had been put in writing.

Your words amount to an enforceable undertaking and you must therefore do what you have promised to do.

Your words cannot amount to an enforceable undertaking because you did not use either of the words ‘undertaking’ or ‘undertake’.

A

Your words amount to an enforceable undertaking and you must therefore do what you have promised to do.

Correct. Undertaking is defined in the SRA Glossary as “a statement, given orally or in writing, whether or not it includes the word “undertake” or “undertaking”, to someone who reasonably places reliance on it, that you or a third party will do something or cause something to be done, or refrain from doing something.”
An undertaking can be given by anyone provided the recipient reasonably places reliance on it. So it can be given by an apprentice or any other employee of the law firm. It can be given orally, and it does not have to contain the work “undertake’ or ‘undertaking’. Your words do therefore amount to an undertaking, and under CCS 1.3 you must ensure that you perform the undertaking within the time you specified.
As a legal professional, you will be deemed to comply with your word and do what you promise to do. You need to be careful that you do not give undertakings unwittingly.

61
Q

You are representing a client as a solicitor-advocate. The trial of the client’s claim started yesterday.

Last night, you were reading through the law reports in a national newspaper when you realised that one of the reported cases appears to be highly prejudicial to your client’s claim. You believe that neither the court nor the defendant’s legal representatives are aware of this reported case (the ‘Case’).

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

Although the Case is prejudicial to your client’s claim, you should provide the court with details of it. You do not need your client’s prior consent to do this.

You are not obliged to disclose the Case to the court because if you do so, you will be in breach of Principle 7.

You may only give the court details of the Case if you have first obtained your client’s prior consent.

The Code of Conduct for Solicitors RELs and RFLs (‘CCS’) 6.4 imposes a duty on you to disclose to the court all material information relating to the Case.

A

Although the Case is prejudicial to your client’s claim, you should provide the court with details of it. You do not need your client’s prior consent to do this.

Correct. Under Code of Conduct for Solicitors RELs and RFLs (‘CCS’) 1.4, you must not mislead or attempt to mislead your clients, the court or others, either by your own acts or omissions or allowing or being complicit in the acts or omissions of others (including your client). You will be misleading the court if you allow the case to continue without the court being aware of the Case.
CCS 2.7 states: you draw the court’s attention to relevant cases and statutory provisions… of which you are aware, and which are likely to have a material effect on the outcome of the proceedings. Under CCS 2.7 you must therefore draw the Case to the court’s attention, and there is no requirement to obtain your client’s consent first. This is a matter of court procedure between you and the court.
There is a conflict here between your duty to your client under Principle 7 and your duty to uphold the constitutional principle of the rule of law (Principle 1). The introduction to the Principles states that where the Principles come into conflict, those which safeguard the wider public interest, such as the rule of law, take precedence over an individual client’s interests. CCS 6.4 contains a duty on you to make your client, not the court, aware of information material to their matter of which you have knowledge.

62
Q

Two years ago, at your previous firm, you acted for Andrew in connection with his claim for unfair dismissal. Andrew had been dismissed for turning up to work drunk and the Employment Tribunal found in favour of Andrew’s employer.

You are now an employment lawyer at another firm. A new client of the firm, BCD Limited (‘BCD’) is seeking your advice in relation to a disciplinary hearing it is about to hold in relation to one of its employees. The employee in question is Andrew. BCD alleges that Andrew has repeatedly returned to work after his lunch break smelling of alcohol and appearing drunk.

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

You should not act for BCD on this matter because you are unlikely to be able to fulfil the conditions set out in CCS 6.5.

You must disclose details of Andrew’s previous case to BCD because the information is material to the advice you have been instructed to give BCD.

You can act for BCD in this matter because your duty of confidentiality to Andrew terminated when you left your old firm.

You should not act for BCD on this matter because you are unlikely to be able to fulfil the conditions in CCS 6.2.

A

You should not act for BCD on this matter because you are unlikely to be able to fulfil the conditions set out in CCS 6.5.

Correct.
You have a duty of confidentiality to Andrew under CCS 6.3. This duty applies to current and former clients unless disclosure is required by law or the client consents.
If you accepted the instructions from BCD you would have a duty to disclose information of which you have knowledge which is material to the matter under CCS 6.4. The information about the Employment Tribunal finding in favour of Andrew’s former employer in his unfair dismissal case is material to this matter. However CCS 6.5 applies here. You cannot act for a client (BCD) in a matter where that client has an interest adverse to a former client (Andrew) for whom you hold confidential information which is material to that matter. Andrew and BCD have adverse interests here and the information is material to BCD’s matter. Condition (a) is that effective measures have been taken which result in there being no real risk of disclosure of the confidential information – here you already know the information so it is not possible to put effective measures in place. Condition (b) is that the former client (Andrew) consents to you acting. It is very unlikely that Andrew would consent to you acting for his employer on this matter.
CCS 6.2 relates to conflicts of interest. The issue here is confidentiality, not conflicts of interest.

63
Q

You are an apprentice solicitor in the corporate department of a firm. Your firm has been instructed to act for Kurtz Cars Limited (‘KCL’) which is interested in buying the shares in Bill’s Spares (‘BS’), a company which sells car parts. The shares in BS are being sold by way of auction. Neither you nor your supervisor has acted for KCL in the past.

Speedy Motors Ltd (‘SML’) has been reported in the press as being interested in acquiring the shares in BS and has contacted another partner in your firm with the intention to instruct him on their bid to buy the shares in BS. Your firm has never acted for SML.

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

There is no risk of a conflict of interest here. KCL and SML will not be on opposite sides of the transaction so there is no risk of their interests in the matter conflicting. Your firm will therefore be able to act for both KCL and SML.

Your firm may be able to act for SML because both SML and KCL have a substantially common interest. Here the clear common purpose for SML and KCL is the acquisition of BS. However in order to do so, both KCL and SML must give informed consent to your firm acting; you must put in place effective safeguards to protect KCL and SML’s confidential information; and you must be satisfied it is reasonable for you to act for both KCL and SML.

Your firm may be able to act for SML because both SML and KCL are competing for the same objective. However in order to do so, both KCL and SML must give informed consent to your firm acting; you must put in place effective safeguards to protect KCL and SML’s confidential information; and you must be satisfied it is reasonable for you to act for both KCL and SML.

This is a situation where if your firm accepted the instructions from SML, it would owe separate duties to act in the best interests of KCL and SML in relation to the same matter, and there is a risk that those interests may conflict. Neither of the exceptions in CCS 6.2 (a) or (b) apply and your firm should not accept the instructions from SML

A

Your firm may be able to act for SML because both SML and KCL are competing for the same objective. However in order to do so, both KCL and SML must give informed consent to your firm acting; you must put in place effective safeguards to protect KCL and SML’s confidential information; and you must be satisfied it is reasonable for you to act for both KCL and SML.

Correct.
There is a potential conflict of interests here. If your firm accepted the instructions from KCL and SML it would have separate duties to act in the best interests of KCL and SML in relation to their bids for the shares in BS and there is a risk that these duties may conflict.
Under CCS 6.2 your firm should not act for both KCL and SML unless one of the exceptions applies.
Substantially common interest means “a situation where there is a clear common purpose between the clients and a strong consensus on how it is to be achieved”. There is no clear common purpose or strong consensus on how it is to be achieved here (KCL and SML will be competing against each other for BS, not working together to purchase it), so the exception in CCS 6.2(a) does not apply.
The exception under CCS 3.2(b) applies where the clients are competing for the same objective, defined in the SRA Glossary as:
“any situation in which two or more clients are competing for an objective which if attained by one client will make that objective unattainable to the other client and objective means an asset, contract or business opportunity which two or more clients are seeking to acquire or recover through a liquidation (or some other form of insolvency process) or by means of an auction or tender process or a bid or offer, but not a public takeover…”
Here the objective is buying the shares in BS at the auction. Both KCL and SML are competing for that objective, as they are bidding against each other in the auction. If one client wins the auction, the other will not be able to attain the objective.
The firm might therefore be able to act for both KCL and SML if it can comply with the conditions listed in CCS 6.2 (i) – (iii).

64
Q

Your law firm, based in Kent, has a referral agreement with another firm based in Southampton under which if one firm (the ‘Introducer’) refers a client to the other firm (the ‘Recipient’), the Recipient will pay the Introducer 7% of the net fees paid by the client in the matter (‘Referral Fee’).

In which ONE of the following circumstances would your firm be able to accept instructions from the client referred by the other firm and pay the Referral Fee?

A client seeking advice on a dispute against their former landlord in Margate.

A client seeking to defend a charge of assault alleged to have taken place in a pub in Canterbury.

A client seeking to bring a claim for damages for personal injury after being hit by a car in Broadstairs.

A

A client seeking advice on a dispute against their former landlord in Margate.

Correct. Under CCS 5.1(d) you do not make payments to an introducer in repost of clients who are the subject of criminal proceedings. You cannot therefore accept the referral in relation to the client who has been charged with assault.
Section 56(1) of the Legal Aid, Sentencing and Punishment of Offenders Act 2012 (‘LASPO’) prohibits solicitors from referring or receiving referrals in respect of a claimant’s claim for damages in respect of personal injury or death to each other in consideration for a referral fee. You would not therefore be able to accept the instructions in relation to the client seeking damages for personal injury and pay the Referral Fee to the other firm. Note that under CCS 5.2, your firm would have to show that the Referral Fee was not paid in breach of s. 56(1) LASPO.
There is nothing to stop your firm from accepting the instructions in relation to the dispute with the former landlord and paying the Referral Fee, provided you and your firm comply with CCS 5.1.

65
Q

A law firm has just won a landmark settlement in a divorce case for a client which was reported in the legal press. The firm would like to refer to its involvement in the case in its marketing literature.

Which ONE of the following methods of marketing the firm’s involvement in the case is PROHIBITED under the Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and FRLS (‘CCS’)?

Handing out leaflets referring to the case to individuals leaving the local family counselling service offices and encouraging the recipients to instruct the firm with respect to their relationship problems.

Emailing a copy of the article from the legal press to current and former family law clients of the firm.

Writing an article on your involvement in the case for a family law publication with the permission of your client and their former spouse.

A

Handing out leaflets referring to the case to individuals leaving the local family counselling service offices and encouraging the recipients to instruct the firm with respect to their relationship problems.

Correct.
CCS 8.9 states “you do not make unsolicited approaches to members of the public, with the exception of current or former clients, in order to advertise legal services provided by you or your business or employer”. Handing leaflets to recipients leaving a family counselling office would breach this provision.
As there is an exception under CCS 8.9 for current and former clients, emailing the article to current and former family law clients of the firm would not breach CCS.
Writing an article with the permission of the client and their former spouse would also not breach CCS.

66
Q

Bell Ambrose LLP is a two partner firm of solicitors providing residential conveyancing services. Which of the following costs information is the firm NOT required to publish on its website:

Details of what services are included in the price displayed, including the key stages of the matter and the likely timescales for each stage and details of any services that might be expected to be included in the price displayed but are not

Whether any fees or disbursements attract VAT, and if so, the amount of VAT.

The basis for its charges, including hourly rates and fixed fees.

The qualifications and experience of all the staff employed by Bell Ambrose LLP.

A

The qualifications and experience of all the staff employed by Bell Ambrose LLP.

Correct.
Under the SRA Transparency Rules, authorised bodies who publish the availability of certain services to individuals and businesses must publish certain costs information on their websites. The services include conveyancing of residential property.
The costs information is listed in Rule 1.5 and includes:
the basis for the firm’s charges, including hourly rates and fixed fees;
details of what services are included in the price displayed, including the key stages of the matter and the likely timescales for each stage and details of any services that might be expected to be included in the price displayed but are not;
whether any fees or disbursements attract VAT, and if so, the amount of VAT; and
the experience and qualifications of anyone carrying out the work, and their supervisors.
However the Transparency Rules do not require the experience and qualifications of all the staff employed by the firm to be published

67
Q

Which ONE of the following statements about the Compliance Officer for Finance and Administrations (‘COFA’) and the Compliance Officer for Legal Practice (‘COLP’) of a law firm is CORRECT?

The COLP and the COFA of a law firm are solely responsible for compliance within the firm. The managers of the firm pass responsibility for compliance to the COLP and the COFA.

The COFA and the COLP must be approved by the Solicitors Regulation Authority. Unlike the COFA, the COLP must be an individual who is authorised to carry on reserved legal activities by an approved regulator.

The COLP of a law firm is not permitted to also fulfil the role of the firm’s COFA; these are two distinct roles within a law firm.

The managing partner of a law firm is the only person to whom a serious breach of the Code in relation to a client matter can be disclosed.

A

The COFA and the COLP must be approved by the Solicitors Regulation Authority. Unlike the COFA, the COLP must be an individual who is authorised to carry on reserved legal activities by an approved regulator.

Correct. These requirements are set out in Rule 8.2 of the Authorisation of Firms Rules. Under CCF 8.1 the managers are jointly and severally responsible for compliance by the firm with CCF, not the COLP and COFA. Under CCF 9.1, the COLP must ensure the SRA is informed of any facts of matters that amount to a serious breach of the SRA’s regulatory arrangements.
The roles of COLP and COFA can be undertaken by the same person.

68
Q

Which ONE of the following statements is CORRECT?

The SRA requires that a firm must have at least one manager or employee or must procure the services of an individual who is a lawyer of England and Wales and has practised as such for a minimum of three years to ​supervise the work undertaken by the authorised body.​

The SRA requires that anyone responsible for supervising client files must have practised law for a minimum of three years.

The SRA requires that anyone responsible for supervising the work undertaken by a law firm as a whole must have practised law for a minimum of five years and must be approved by the SRA.

A

The SRA requires that a firm must have at least one manager or employee or must procure the services of an individual who is a lawyer of England and Wales and has practised as such for a minimum of three years to ​supervise the work undertaken by the authorised body.​

Correct. This is a requirement under Rule 9.4 of the SRA Authorisation of Firms Rules and requires firms to have a lawyer to supervise the business of the firm as a whole. The SRA’s concern here is that non lawyers should not supervise ‘reserved legal activities’ as defined in section 12 Legal Services Act. Alternative business structures must therefore employ at least one lawyer to supervise reserved legal activities.
Note that supervision of the work undertaken by the authorised body, i.e. the firm as a whole is different to supervising the work on client files. There is no minimum requirement of expertise to supervise client files so long as the supervisor has suitable experience, knowledge and competence to deal with any issue that may arise and has clear guidance on when and to whom matters outside their competence should be referred.

69
Q

Which ONE of the statements below, when added to the phrase in the box below, combine to create a CORRECT sentence?

The Code of Conduct for Solicitors, RELs and RFLs (‘CCS’) requires solicitors to:

ensure clients’ complaints are dealt with promptly, fairly and free of charge

send a client care letter to all clients explaining the firm’s responsibilities and those of the client

ensure that all client care letters set out the total cost of their service.

A

ensure clients’ complaints are dealt with promptly, fairly and free of charge

Correct. This is a requirement under CCS 8.5.
Note that there is no requirement in CCS to send out a client care letter, but most firms do as a matter of good practice.
CCS 8.7 requires solicitors to ensure that clients receive the best possible information about how their matter will be priced and, both at the time of engagement and as their matter progresses, about the likely overall costs of the matter. But there is no requirement in CCS that client care letters should set out the total cost of the service. In fact in many cases this would not be possible.
There is no requirement in CCS for client care letters to set out the responsibilities of the client and of the firm. However in its Guidance on good client care letters, the SRA recommends that this is one of the points a good client care letter would contain.