Regulations and Publications Flashcards
1
Q
What is HATh, and what type of minimums is it used in conjunction with?
A
Height above Threshold is the height of the DH or MDA above the runway Threshold Elevation, used in conjunction with straight in minimums.
2
Q
What is HAL, and what type of approach is it used for?
A
Height above Landing is the height above a designated helicopter landing area used for helicopter instrument approach procedures.
3
Q
What is the Touchdown Zone?
A
The first 3,000’ of the usable landing surface, and used to determine the TDZE (Touchdown Zone Elevation).
4
Q
What is HAT, and what type of minimums is it used in conjunction with?
A
Height Above Touchdown is the height of the DH or MDA above the highest elevation in the Touchdown Zone, used in conjunction with straight-in minimums.
5
Q
What is HAA, and what type of minimums is it used in conjunction with?
A
Height Above Airport is the height of the MDA above the published Airport Elevation, used in conjunction with circling minimums.
6
Q
What is a DA/DH, and what type of approach is it used on?
A
Decision Altitude/Decision Height is a specified altitude or height at which a decision must be made to either continue the approach or execute a missed approach used in conjunction with a precision approach. DA is referenced to MSL and DH is referenced to Threshold Elevation.
7
Q
What is an MDA, and what type of approach is it used on?
A
Minimum Descent Altitude is the MSL altitude to which descent is authorized on final approach, or during a circle-to-land maneuver, used in conjunction with a non-precision approach.
8
Q
What does a sideways “T” on a route indicate?
A
MEA, MOCA, and/or MAA change at other than a NAVAID.
9
Q
What is a mileage breakdown point, and how is it identified?
A
A mileage breakdown point is a point on a route where the leg segment mileage ends, and a new leg segment mileage begins, often at a route turning point, It is indicated by an “x” on the route.
10
Q
What is a changeover point?
A
A changeover point indicates the point on an airway where you should change over to the next navigational frequency.
11
Q
What is an OROCA?
A
Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude - An off-route altitude which provides obstruction clearance within eac bounded lat/long quadrant as shown on IFR charts. It may not provide NAVAID signal coverage.
12
Q
What is an MVA?
A
Minimum Vectoring Altitude - The lowest MSL altitude at which IFR aircraft can be radar vectored. It meets obstacle clearance requirements, but is not published on charts. It is only available to controllers.
13
Q
What is an MAA?
A
Maximum Authorized Altitude - The maximum usable altitude for an airspace structure or route segment. On a route segment it is the highest altitude that assures navigation aid signals.
14
Q
What is an MRA, and how is it identified?
A
Minimum Reception Altitude - The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined. It is identified by a “flag” with an “R” in it.
15
Q
What is an MCA, and how is it identified?
A
Minimum Crossing Altitude - The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA. It is identified by a “flag” with an “X” in it.
16
Q
What is a MOCA, and what does it ensure?
A
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude - The lowest altitude between radio fixes which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational coverage only within 22 NM of a VOR.
17
Q
What is an MEA, and what does it ensure?
A
Minimum Enroute IFR Altitude - The lowest altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes.
18
Q
What is an MIA?
A
Minimum IFR Altitude - The minimum altitude for IFR operations. If no minimum altitude is prescribed, the minimum altitude is 1,000’ AHO (non-mountainous) or 2,000’ AHO (mountainous) within 4 NM of the course to be flown.
19
Q
On an approach plate, what is an MSA and what does it provide?
A
Minimum Safe Altitude - It is for emergency use and provides at least 1,000’ of obstacle clearance within a 25 NM radius of the fix that the procedure is predicated upon. It is either a Minimum Sector Altitude or Emergency Safe Altitude.
An Emergency Safe Altitude provides obstacle clearance of 1,000’ in non-mountainous terrain and 2,000’ in mountainous terrain within 100 NM of the fix. It is generally only used in military procedures.
20
Q
On a VFR sectional, what does a star on top of the airfield symbol (depiction of the runways) mean?
A
There is a rotating airport beacon in operation from sunset to sunrise.
21
Q
On a VFR sectional, what does a star next to a tower frequency mean?
A
That the tower operates part time.
22
Q
On a VFR sectional, what is indicated by an airport where the runways are drawn in a bold line without a circle around it?
A
It indicates that the runway is a hard-surfaced runway greater than 8069’ long.
23
Q
What is the difference between a straight-in approach and a straight-in landing?
A
A straight-in approach (IFR) is an instrument approach wherein the final approach is begun without first having executed a procedure turn.
A straight-in landing is a landing made on a runway aligned within 30 degrees of the final approach course following completion of an instrument approach.
24
Q
What are the different segments of an instrument approach?
A
1) Initial Approach Segment
2) Intermediate Approach Segment
3) Final Approach Segment
4) Missed Approach Segment
25
What phrase would you use to communicate to ATC that your fuel supply is at a state that, upon reaching the destination, you can accept little or no delay. (It's not an emergency, but could become an emergency if delays are encountered).
Minimum Fuel
26
If you are asked to Air Taxi, what airspeed/altitude is expected?
Generally at speeds greater than 20 knots and less than 100' AGL. However, the pilot is solely responsible for selecting a safe altitude/airspeed for the operation.
27
If you are asked to Hover Taxi, what airspeed/altitude is expected?
Within ground effect and less than approximately 20 knots (actual height will vary).
28
If you are asked to taxi, and your aircraft has wheels, what is expected?
Taxi (without the preface of air or hover) is used to describe ground taxi for helicopters with wheels.
29
What is the normal "remain within" distance for a Copter approach?
5 NM
30
What is the maximum airspeed during a Copter approach?
90 KIAS
31
When will a diverse departure be authorized, and how would you execute it?
If the airport has at least one IAP, and there are not published departure procedures, a diverse departure can be flown. Fly runway heading until 400' above runway elevation before executing any turns and maintain a 200' ft/NM climb gradient (unless otherwise published).
32
If you are cleared for the option, what are you allowed to do?
```
Touch-and-go
Low approach
Missed approach
Stop-and-go
Full stop
```
33
If a course reversal is published on an IAP, when would it not be authorized?
"No PT" appears on the plate.
Radar vectoring is provided to the final approach course.
A holding pattern is published in lieu of a procedure turn.
A time approach is executed from a holding fix.
Otherwise directed by ATC.
34
During holding, how much should your wind correction be outbound compared to inbound?
You should multiply your inbound correction by 3 for an outbound correction.
35
If you receive clearance to leave the fix during holding, do you have to wait until you are back over the fix to depart holding?
Yes, you must depart from over the fix, unless ATC states "cleared from your present position.
36
When does outbound timing start during intersection holding?
Wings level on the outbound holding.
37
How is the abeam point determined when holding over a NAVAID?
VOR
By the first change of the TO/FROM flag or,
By observing the 90 degree radial from the VOR
NDB
By observing the 90 degree bearing to the NDB
38
During holding, when does the outbound timing begin?
Over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later.
39
If you have lost commo during a GCA approach, what are the procedures?
1) Attempt to contact on another frequency
2) Squawk 7600
3) If you cannot proceed VMC, execute an IAP of your choosing
4) Maintain higher of last assigned altitude OR MSA until established on a segment of the approach
40
During a radar approach, when do you initiate lost commo?
If no transmissions for:
1 minute for vectoring prior to final approach
15 seconds on final for an ASR
5 seconds on final for a PAR
41
During lost commo, if you reach your clearance limit, and the clearance limit is where you approach begins, do you hold or execute the approach?
If you have received an EFC, and it has not passed, hold until EFC and then commence the approach.
If you have not received an EFC time, commence the approach according to your flight plan (as amended).
42
During lost commo, if you reach your clearance limit, and the clearance limit is NOT where your approach begins, do you hold or execute the approach?
If you have received an EFC, hold and leave the clearance limit at your EFC.
If you do not have an EFC, continue to the fix where the approach begins, hold until the ETA from your flight plan and then commence the approach.
43
During lost commo, what altitude should you fly?
The highest of:
1) Altitude last assigned
2) Altitude ATC told you can be expected
3) Minimum altitude for IFR operations (i.e. MEA, feeder route)
44
During lost commo, what route would you follow?
```
In the order below:
1) Route last assigned
2) Route ATC told you to be expected
3) Route filed in your flight plan
Note: if being radar vectored, proceed direct to the fix being radar vectored to.
```
45
What are the 3 emergency transponder codes?
7500 - Hijacked (Seven-fife, man with a knife)
7600 - Lost Communications (Seven-six, commo nix)
7700 - Emergency (Seven-seven, going to heaven)
46
When not in radar contact, when should you report an updated estimate (of time)?
When it becomes apparent that an estimate previously submitted is in error in excess of three minutes.
47
Should you make a radio call FAF inbound?
If NOT in radar contact
48
What additional reports are required to be made to ATC or the FSS without a specific ATC request?
- Weather conditions which have not been forecast or hazardous conditions that have been forecast.
- Holding (time/altitude when reaching fix, and when departing a fix...not required for instrument training with military terminal facility with radar service).
- Altitude change
- Missed approach (include request)
- Safety of flight information
- Loss of nav/comm ability
- Unable to climb/descent 500 FPM
- TAS change of 5% or 10 knots from FP (whichever is greater
- VFR on top altitude change
49
What part of ATC instructions/clearances are required to be read back?
Ground - Runway assignments and hold short instructions
| Air - Altitude assignment/restrictions, radar vectors, and altimeter settings when received from Approach Control.
50
At the completion of an IFR approach, when officially may you descend below the MDA or DH?
When you have one of the following in sight:
1) Approach lights
2) Runway threshold
3) Other marking (i.e. runway paint markings) identifiable with the approach end of the runway.
AND the aircraft is in a position from which a safe landing can be made.
51
If an IFR approach plate says "Dual VORs required" and you only have one VOR can you execute the approach?
Yes, dual VOR equipment requirements specified on approach charts do NOT apply to Army aircraft.
52
If, upon arrival at your destination, the weather is below approach weather minimums, can you do the approach anyway?
Yes, upon arrival at your destination, an approach may be initiated, regardless of ceiling and visibility.
53
What are the takeoff minimums if the aviator flying the aircraft on takeoff has less than 50 hours of actual weather time (for helicopters)?
100' ceiling, 1/4 mi visibility or RVR of 1200'
54
Can a GPS-based instrument approach be planned for at an alternate airfield?
Yes, but only if one hasn't been planned for at the destination. A GPS-based approach cannot be planned for at both the destination and the alternate.
55
During IFR planning, what criteria must the alternate airfield meet?
SWARM
Surface based class B, C, D, or E must exist and be in effect.
Worst Weather is forecast to be greater than or equal to 400-1 above the weather planning minimums for the approach to be flown OR descent from enroute minimum altitude for IFR operation, approach and landing can be made in VFR conditions.
ANA (can't say this).
Radar cannot be required for the approach.
Monitored navigation aids must be present.
56
When is an alternate required if you are filing IFR to a destination airfield?
NPR
NAVAIDS are unmonitored.
Predominant weather is forecast to be less than 400-1 (ceiling and vis) above the weather planning minimums for the approach to be flown.
Radar is required.
Note - Alternate is not required if descent from enroute minimum altitude for IFR operation, approach, and landing can be made in VFR conditions.
57
If the weather at the airfield that you are filing to is not known and if there is no weather reporting service at the airfield, then what weather forecast can you use?
GFA (Graphical Forecast for Aviation)
58
Can visibility minimums be reduced?
Category A visibility minimums may be reduced by 1/2, but not less than 1/4 mile or metric equivalent. Not authorized if noted on the approach chart, or for Copter approaches.
59
When filing IFR to a destination airfield, what must the destination weather be?
The predominant weather must be equal to or greater than the published weather planning minimums for the approach to be flown at ETA through 1 hour after ETA.
60
How long is a weather forecast valid?
1 hour 30 minutes from the time the forecast is received.
61
What are helicopter fuel reserve requirements VFR and IFR?
VFR: 20 minutes at cruise
IFR: 30 minutes at cruise
62
Can you fly through an MOA while on an IFR flight?
ATC will clear you through a MOA IF radar separation can be provided.
63
For IPF planning, must you avoid flying through a restricted area?
Yes. Unless on an airway, avoid flying through a restricted area by 3 NM. During flight, ATC will clear a pilot through if it is a Joint Use restricted area and the using agency releases the airspace to ATC.
64
If planning an IFR flight through class G airspace, what are the altitude considerations?
Remain at least 1000' AHO in flat terrain, or 2000' AHO in designated mountainous terrain. Also, you must meet the "semi-circular rule".
65
What publication lists the forms, pubs, and records that are required in the aircraft?
DA PAM 738-751
66
What is in an aircraft weight and balance file?
1) DD Form 365 - Record of weight and balance personnel.
2) 365-1 (Chart A) - Basic weight checklist record.
3) 365-2 (Chart B) - Aircraft weighing record.
4) 365-3 (Chart C) - Basic weight and balance record.
5) Chart E - Loading Data and special weighing instructions.
6) 365-4
67
The aircraft logbook forms that are required on the aircraft are as follows:
1) 2408 - Equipment Log Assembly
2) 2408-4-1 - Weapon record data
3) 2408-12 - Army Aviator's Flight Record
4) 248-13 - Aircraft status info record
5) 2408-13-1 - Aircraft inspection and maintenance record
6) 2408-13-2 - Related Maintenance Actions Record
7) 2408-13-3 - Aircraft technical inspection worksheet
8) 2408-14-1 - Uncorrected fault record
9) 2408-18 - Equipment Inspection List
10) 2408-31 - Aircraft ID Card
11) Form 1896 - Jet Fuel Identaplate
68
What forms are required to be in the aircraft?
1) Operator's Checklist
2) Operator's Manual (TM-10) including changes and related SOF or TB's
3) Current DD 365-4
4) Aircraft logbook forms (2408 series)
69
What is the pilot's responsibility in regards to closing flight plans at military and non-military installations?
Military Installation - The pilot should verbally confirm closing the flight plan with tower or base ops (usually it's done automatically).
Non-Military Installation - The pilot must close the flight plan through the nearest FSS.
70
Will an IFR flight plan automatically be canceled when landing?
If the airport of landing has an operating control tower, the flight plan is automatically canceled upon landing.
If the airport of landing does not have an operating control tower, the pilot must cancel the flight plan. This can be done after landing, or before landing, if the landing will be made in VFR conditions.
71
When can an IFR flight plan be canceled by the pilot?
Anytime the aircraft is operating in VFR conditions outside of class A.
72
How long before flight should a flight plan be filed?
At least 30 minutes. However, base ops may have their own time requirements.
73
What should be included in the ETE to Alternate block on an IFR flight plan?
The time from the MAP to the missed approach holding point, one circuit in holding, then from the missed approach holding point to the alternate including approach and landing time.
74
When departing a non-military airport, what must the pilot do in regards to the time he takes off? Why?
The pilot must ensure that the actual departure time is passed on to the tie-in FSS, so that the aircraft does not arrive unannounced.
75
When does a flight plan "time out" of the ATC system?
If it is not activated or updated by the pilot within 2 hours of the proposed departure time.
76
Is a crew and passenger manifest required for every flight?
Yes. A crew and passenger manifest is required for all flights.
77
If your aircraft is instrumented for IFR and flown by an instrument rated pilot, do you have to file an IFR flight plan.
Yes. Unless:
1) The flight is primarily for VFR training.
2) Time will not permit mission completion under IFR.
3) Mission can only be accomplished under VFR.
4) Excessive ATC departure, en route, or terminal area delays are encountered.
5) Hazardous weather conditions must be avoided.
6) Aircraft is being flown single pilot.
78
Do flight plans have to be filed to go on a flight in an Army aircraft?
Yes, unless it's a local flight and an operation's log is used. AR 95-1 states that aircraft will not be flown unless a flight plan (military or civilian) has been filed or an operation's log completed.
79
What is the purpose of a VFR flight plan? IFR?
VFR - enables search and rescue to identify an overdue aircraft and where it might be.
IFR - to communicate the pilot's intentions to ATC.
80
How often to weight and balance records need to be reviewed?
Every 12 months. They have until the last day of the 12th month to complete the review.
81
How often does a 365-4 need to be checked for accuracy?
Every 90 days.
82
What are the PC's requirements for weight and balance in accordance with AR 95-1?
Ensure:
1) The accuracy of computations on the DD 365-4
2) That a completed 365-4 is aboard the aircraft
3) Verify that weight and CG will remain within allowable limits for the entire flight. Several forms completed for other loadings can be used to meet this requirement, but the actual loading being verified must be clearly within the extremes of the loading shown on the 365-4 used for verification.
83
For what other reasons will an aircraft need to be reweighed?
1) Overhaul or major airframe repair
2) Modifications of 1% or more of AC's basic weight are applied
3) Any modifications or component replacement (including painting) for which weight and CG can't be accurately computed
4) Weight and CG data records are suspected to be in error
84
How often do class 1 and 2 aircraft need to be weighed?
Class 1 - 36 months
| Class 2 - 24 months
85
What does class 2 mean?
Those aircraft whose weight or CG limits can be readily exceeded by loading arrangement normally used in tactical operations or those AC designed primarily for transporting troops and other passengers. Therefore, a high degree of loading control is needed.
86
What the 2 classifications of aircraft, and what classification is the H60?
Class 1 and Class 2.
The H60 is a Class 2 aircraft.
87
Who will announce altitude to climb?
The PC
88
Who will announce IIMC?
Whoever goes IIMC. Both pilots may or may not be inadvertent.
89
What are the procedures for IIMC according to the ATM?
1) Announce IIMC, maintain A/C control, immediately make transition to instrument flight, and initiate a climb.
2) Initiate the correct IIMC recovery procedures:
a. Attitude - level the wings on the attitude indicator.
b. Heading - maintain heading; turn only to avoid known obstacles or as briefed for multiship operations.
c. Torque - adjust as necessary.
d. Trim - as necessary.
e. Airspeed - adjust as necessary.
3) Contact ATC as required. Comply with ATC instructions, local regulations and SOP.
90
Where is the tourniquet located?
Left shoulder.
91
When are you required to have an Emergency Breathing System?
When performing over water operations that are required to wear life preservers, or performing deck landing operations.
92
What are the life preserver requirements according to AR 95-1?
Life Preservers - All personnel aboard an aircraft without single engine flight capability and flown beyond gliding distance of land will wear life preservers. All other AC will have life preservers readily available.
93
What are the oxygen requirements for an unpressurized aircraft?
Oxygen will be used by:
- Aircrew
- -- >10,000; PA for more than 1 hour
- -- >12,000' PA for more than 30 minutes
- -- > 18,000' PA prebreathing is required by the aircrew
- Aircrew and other occupants
- -- > 14,000' PA for any period of time
94
Who will ensure that all required ALSE is onboard prior to takeoff?
The PC
95
How often is ALSE gear (Helmet and Vest) required to be inspected?
Every 180 days
96
What are the required ALSE items to fly per AR 95-1?
1) First aid kit
2) Extraction device
3) Approved survival knife
4) Fire starter
5) Signaling device
6) Survival radio
97
What are the required personal items to fly per AR 95-1?
1) Leather boots approved for aviation
2) Flight helmet
3) Flight suit
4) Flight gloves
5) Under layer of cotton, wool, NOMEX, or any blend thereof
6) ID tags
98
Which DOD FLIP contains information about MTRs?
AP/1B
99
What do 3 digits indicate on an MTR? 4 digits?
3 numbers indicate that the MTR includes at least one segment above 1500' AGL. 4 numbers indicate MRTs with no segment above 1500' AGL.
100
What are the weather requirements for SVFR?
1/2 SM and clear of clouds unless a higher minima is specified at the airfield.
101
What are the dimensions of Federal (Victor) Airways, and what airspace is it classified as?
4 NM either side of center line. Extends from 1200' AGl to 18,000' MSL. It is class E airspace.
102
How is each class of airspace depicted on a sectional chart?
Class A - Not depicted
Class B - Solid blue line
Class C- Solid magenta line
Class D - Segmented blue line
Class E (SFC) - Segmented magenta line
Class E beginning at 700' AGL - magenta vignette
Class E beginning at 1200' AGL - blue vignette
103
What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class G airspace?
- Vertical and Lateral: SFC to base of Class E.
- Communication: None
- Equipment: No requirement
- Weather:
o < 1200' AGL
- Day: 1/2 SM and Clear of Clouds
- Night: 1 SM and Clear of Clouds
o > 1200' AGL but < 10,000' MSL
- Day: 1 SM and Basic Cloud Clearance
- Night: 3 SM and Basic Cloud Clearance
o > 1200' AGL and > 10,000' MSL
- Day: 5 SM and 1000' above, 1000' below, and 1 SM horizontal
104
What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class E airspace?
- Vertical: Either starts at the ground, 700' AGL, 1200' AGL, or 14,500' MSL (if it isn't specified otherwise), up to 18,000' MSL. Also includes the airspace above FL600.
- Lateral: Entire contiguous US and Alaska extending 12 NM off the coast.
- Communication: None if VFR.
- Equipment: No requirement
- Weather:
o < 10,000' MSL - 3 SM visibility and BCC
o >/= 10,000' MSL - (5-111) 5 SM visibility, 1000' above, 1000' below, 1 SM horizontal.
105
What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class C airspace?
- Vertical: SFC to 4,000' above airport elevation (inner), 1200' to 4,000' above airport elevation (outer).
- Lateral: 5 NM (inner), 10 NM (outer).
- Communication: Establish 2-way radio communication with ATC.
- Equipment: 2-way radio, Mode C transponder.
- Weather: 3 SM visibility and BCC.
106
What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class D airspace?
- Vertical: SFC to 2,500' above airport elevation.
- Lateral: Individually tailored for IAPs, however generally 5 NM.
- Communication: Establish 2-way radio communication with ATC.
- Equipment: 2-way radio.
- Weather: 3 SM visibility and BCC.
107
What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class B airspace?
- Vertical: Usually SFC to 10,000' MSL. Each "layer" is individually tailored.
- Lateral: Individually tailored.
- Communication: Must have clearance to enter.
- Equipment: 2-way radio, Mode C transponder.
- Weather: 3 SM visibility and Clear of Clouds.
- Note: Must be IFR.
108
What are the vertical and lateral limits, communication requirements, equipment requirements, and weather requirements for class A airspace?
- Vertical: 18,000' MSL to FL600.
- Lateral: Entire contiguous US and Alaska including airspace 12 NM out from the coast.
- Communication: Must have clearance to enter.
- Equipment: IFR Equipped.
- Weather: N/A
- Note: Must be IFR.
109
What are Basic Cloud Clearance (BCC) requirements?
500' below the clouds
1000' above the clouds
2000' horizontal distance from the clouds
110
What is an alert area?
In place to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity.
111
What is a military operations area?
Used to separate military training activities from IFR aircraft. Examples of activities conducted in MOAs include, but are not limited to: air combat tactics, air intercepts, aerobatics, formation training, and low-altitude tactics. Military pilots flying in an active MOA are exempted from the provisions of 14 CFR Section 91.303(c) and (d) which prohibits aerobatic flight within Class D and Class E surface areas, and within Federal airways. Additionally, the Department of Defense has been issued an authorization to operate aircraft at indicated airspeeds in excess of 250 knots below 10,000' MSL within active MOAs.
112
What is a warning area?
Similar to a restricted area only the US government does not have jurisdiction over the airspace. Extends from 3 NM out from the coast of the US.
113
What is a restricted area?
Areas where operations are hazardous to non-participating aircraft. Contain unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft (i.e. artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles).
114
What is a prohibited area?
Areas where flight is prohibited (for reasons of national security or welfare).
115
What are the 4 types of non-regulatory special use airspace?
Warning Areas
Military Operations Areas (MOAs)
Alert Areas
Controlled Firing Areas (CFAs)
116
What are the 2 regulatory types of special use airspace?
Prohibited and Restricted
117
What are the 4 types of airspace?
Controlled
Uncontrolled
Special Use
Other
118
What are the 2 categories of airspace?
Regulatory or non-Regulatory
119
What is an RL1 Crewmember?
A crewmember that is fully qualified and proficient in base and ATP required mission and additional tasks.
120
What is an RL2 Crewmember?
A crewmember that is fully qualified and proficient in all base tasks.
121
What is an RL3 Crewmember?
A crewmember that is either not qualified in the aircraft, or is training to proficiency in base tasks.
122
If the exclusion period for RL progression exceeds 45 consecutive days, what must happen?
The crewmember must restart their current phase of RL progression.
123
If you are removed from RL1 due to a training deficiency and reclassified as RL2 or RL3, must you still meet the ATP requirements for RL1?
Yes.
124
Can RL3 designated crewmembers perform 2000 or 3000 series tasks?
No.
125
Can an RL2 designated rated crewmember fly with a PC?
Yes, they can fly with a PC and perform all tasks in each mode of flight as authorized on the CTL previously evaluated as "S" by an IP or SP.
126
Does an RL1 designated crewmember need to perform a certain number of iterations of each 1000, 2000, and 3000 series tasks on the CTL?
Yes, RL1 crewmembers must perform one iteration of each 1000, 2000, and 3000 series tasks listed in the CTL during the training year.
127
After not flying an H60 for how many days, must a crewmember undergo refresher training? What RL will they be designated?
After 180 days.
| RL3.
128
What are the semi-annual flying hour requirements for RCMs in each FAC level?
FAC 1 - 48 hours
FAC 2 - 30 hours
FAC 3 - None
129
What is the annual hood/weather requirement in the ATM?
None, it will be determined by the commander.
130
What is the aircraft currency requirement?
A flight in the last 60 days as PI or PC in the aircraft mission, type, design, and series to be flown.
131
What is the NVG currency requirement?
At least 1 hour of flight in their aircraft category at the flight controls while wearing NVGs every 60 days.
132
How many days do you have to turn in your hand-carried records after reporting for duty?
14 days.
133
If an aviator fails to meet ATP requirements and an extension is granted, what restrictions are imposed?
The aviator is restricted from performing pilot-in-command duties (primary, additional, alternate) in the aircraft, and if applicable, briefing officer duties, until the missed ATP requirements are met.
