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apart study guide > Army Aviation SOP > Flashcards

Army Aviation SOP Flashcards

1
Q

How often should Aviation Crew Members ensure they are current on the reading file?

A

Prior to each flight.

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2
Q

For UH-60s, if a qualified and current NRCM is not available to fly, can the crew fly with only a PC and PI?

A

Yes, BN CDRs may authorize routine day training flights without a NRCM, but should include a third aviator to assist with airspace surveillance and clearing the aircraft.

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3
Q

Which UH-60 NVG tasks require a minimum crew of 4?

A

1) When Combat Cruise formation is briefed or required
2) When in-flight formation changes are briefed or anticipated
3) During training or mission Tactical Sling Load Operations, Hoist Operations, or FRIES/SPIES Operations
4) MEDEVAC

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4
Q

Can a task-current aviator be substituted for the additional CE requirement for NVG tasks that require a minimum crew of 4?

A

Yes, if a CE is not available, but only as a last resort.

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5
Q

All RCM will have a minimum requirement of _____ hours of NVD semiannually.

A

9

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6
Q

Can aided and unaided aircraft be mixed in the same formation?

A

No.

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7
Q

RCMs are required to fly a minimum of _____ hour(s) unaided flight per semi-annual period.

A

1

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8
Q

What is the minimum altitude for unaided night flights?

A

200’ AHO (except during landing and takeoff).

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9
Q

How often should crewmembers receive a no-notice evaluation?

A

Once per year, outside the APART window (minimum).

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10
Q

All _____ and _____ aviators are authorized to operate the APU regardless of seat designation unless otherwise restricted by the commander.

A

RL1

RL2

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11
Q

A minimum of _____ hours semi-annually of Hood, Weather, or STFS “W” time is required for each aviator, of which _____ will be flown in the aircraft.

A

3

1.5

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12
Q

Anytime the visibility and/or ceiling approach minimum briefed weather conditions, the PC or AMC will immediately initiate plans to adjust the mission under the following conditions: The flight descend > _____ during the day or _____ at night from the planned altitude to maintain cloud clearance, and/or slows > _____ during the day, or > _____ during Night/NVG from the planned airspeed due to visibility.

A

300’
150’
20 KIAS
10 KIAS

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13
Q

For IIMC plans, the Base Altitude is the lowest altitude that provides obstacle clearance. If able, add _____ (_____ mountainous) to the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle in the AO.

A

1000’

2000’

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14
Q

In regards to IIMC planning, normally base airspeed and airspeed changes should be used when _____.

A

aircraft separation cannot be made by heading changes.

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15
Q

In regards to IIMC planning, standard heading adjustment will be _____.

A

base +/- 10 degrees times the chalk # to the clear side of the formation.

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16
Q

In regards to IIMC planning, standard altitude adjustment will be _____.

A

base +/- 500’ for subsequent chalks.

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17
Q

Can an MBO brief a mission when he is part of the crew?

A

No, self-briefing is not authorized.

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18
Q

Can commanders conduct self-approval for missions in which they are flying as the PC/AMC?

A

Only commanders in the grade of LTC (O-5) or above.

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19
Q

Who are the standard approval authorities for Extremely High Risk, High Risk, Moderate Risk, and Low Risk Missions?

A

EH - First GO in the CoC
H - First O-6 in the CoC (normally the Aviation BDE CDR)
M - BN/SQDN/TF Commander
L - Company/ Troop Commander

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20
Q

If a “VOCO” approval is attained, what must be written on the RCOP?

A

Rank and initials/name of the VOCO approval, along with the DTG and the name of whom the VOCO came through.

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21
Q

For the purpose of attaining a mission approval, what is considered a “Bona-fide Absence” (of the BN/SQDN/TF CDR) allowing field grade Air Ambulance Commanders, XOs or S-3s to accept and approve the risk for operations that are moderate or below?

A

BN/SQDN/TF CDR not being physically present at the BN/SQDN/TF location and cannot be contacted.

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22
Q

Crew members should ensure their ALSE gear is turned in to the ALSE shop NLT _____ prior to its expiration.

A

5 days

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23
Q

Name the following Weapons Control Status:
Weapon is stowed, chamber is visually cleared of rounds, bolt is locked to the rear, weapons selector is on SAFE, and there are not rounds in the feed tray.

A

Clear

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24
Q

Name the following Weapons Control Status:

Weapon is stowed, ammunition is in the feed tray, cover is closed with the bolt forward, and weapon selector is on FIRE.

A

Stowed

25
Q

Name the following Weapons Control Status:
Weapon is manned, ammunition is in the feed tray, cover is closed with the bolt locked fully to the rear and weapon selector is on FIRE when firing and on SAFE when not firing.

A

Armed

26
Q

Name the following Weapons Control Status:

Weapon is manned, ammunition is in the feed tray, cover is closed with the bolt forward, and weapon selector is on FIRE.

A

Loaded

27
Q

Can extensions (duty day, flying hour, etc) be forced on a crewmember/crew?

A

No, all extensions must be requested.

28
Q

Commanders should not plan duty days that exceed a maximum of _____.

A

12 hours total.

29
Q

Rest periods are defined as _____ after release from duty until the start of the next duty day.

A

10 hours.

30
Q

Is a phone call in garrison and/or momentary awakening (<30 min) during other than garrison considered an interruption of a rest period?

A

No.

31
Q

If a rest period is interrupted for more than 30 minutes the command has 2 options:

A

1) Restart the rest period
2) Start the individual’s duty day (ensure risk is accepted at the appropriate level for amount of rest received prior to interruption.

32
Q

What amount of time is considered a reset day, and how often should individuals be scheduled for one?

A

24 consecutive hours in which no duty related tasks are performed.
Every 14 days.

33
Q

A shift in individual duty day cycle by _____ or more hours _____ requires a _____ reset unless approved by the BN/SQDN CDR.

A

6, earlier, 24

34
Q

Company commanders can extend duty days up to _____ hour(s) and flight hours by _____ hour(s).

A

14, 1

35
Q

Battalion commanders may extend duty day up to _____ hour(s), and flight hours by _____ hour(s).

A

16, 2

36
Q

What are the standard flying hour limitations for a 1-day period for Day, Mixed, (D, N, NG, H, W), and NVD (pure)?

A

8, 7, 6

37
Q

If a simulator period is “flown” prior to actual aircraft flight in the same duty period, do the flight hours flown in the sim count toward the maximum number of flying hours that can be flown in a duty day?

A

Yes.

38
Q

Prior to flying terrain flight (<500’ AGL) outside military reservations, what must occur?

A

A flight recon for hazard, and crews will adhere to the procedures in the Local Flying Rules.

39
Q

Avoid flight routes that are within _____ of towers or wires that have a height that is within _____ of the en-route altitude for that segment of flight.

A

1 km

100’

40
Q

Minimum height for overflight of wires is _____.

A

50’

41
Q

In regards to Mission Planning, avoid planning route segments that require heading changes of more than _____.

A

60 degrees

42
Q

In regards to Mission Planning, the SP should be _____ from the departure point and aligned with a _____ arc from the course.

A

3-8 km

30 degree

43
Q

In regards to Mission Planning, ACPs should be placed _____ apart.

A

5-20 km

44
Q

In regards to Mission Planning, the RP should be _____ from the LZ and within _____ from the LZ heading.

A

3-8 km

15 degrees

45
Q

The standard for LZ arrival in the SOP is _____ from the GTC intended landing point, _____from the air movement table touchdown time, _____ from the planned landing heading.

A

+/- 50 meters
+/- 30 seconds
+/- 15 degrees

46
Q

In regards to Multiship Operations, during the commo check, if the subsequent chalk does not respond within _____, the next chalk continues the commo check.

A

10 seconds

47
Q

In regards to Multiship Operations, how does the flight indicate they are ready for takeoff?

A

In REVERSE chalk order report when REDCON 1. When lead reports “REDCON 1”, the flight is ready for takeoff.

48
Q

In regards to Multiship Operations, during takeoff (unless otherwise briefed) lead will takeoff and smoothly accelerate to _____, climbing < ______ fpm, and use _____turns.

A

60 KIAS
500
1/2 standard rate

49
Q

In regards to Multiship Operations, when the flight is formed, trail will call _____.

A

“SADDLE, # of aircraft in flight and FENCE OUT”

50
Q

In regards to Multiship Operations, at what distance is “CLOSING” called?

A

When within 10 rotor disks.

51
Q

A “Fence Out” check consists of the following items:

A

WAILMR

Weapons armed/safe as required
ASE set as desired
IFF/Transponder modes 1,2,3,4 on as briefed
Lighting as briefed
MPD/MFD/EDM configured (as appropriate)
Recorder on (if installed)
52
Q

In regards to Multiship Operations, what is the rotor disk separation for the following formations: Tight, Close, Loose, Extended.

A

Tight: 1-2 disks
Close: 3-5 disks
Loose: 6-10 disks
Extended: Greater than 10 disks

53
Q

In regards to Multiship Operations, what is the standard rotor disk separation En route, RP inbound, Landing, and Outbound SP for Day and Night/NVG?

A

Day: 3,2,1,2

Night/NVG: 3,3,2,3

54
Q

What height are the ground-based wires or towers hazard classifications for Alpha, Bravo, and Charlie hazards?

A

Alpha: >100’
Bravo: 50’-100’
Charlie: <50’

55
Q

In regards to Multiship Operations, when executing a lead change, lead should make a heading change _____ and departs the formation. He maneuvers the aircraft to a minimum of _____ rotor disks to the announced (clear) side. After turning parallel to the flight, lead should slow _____.

A

30-90 degrees
8
10 KIAS

56
Q

Name the following Weapons Control Status:

Do not fire except in self-defense.

A

Weapons Hold

57
Q

Name the following Weapons Control Status:
PC Fires only at targets positively identified as hostile IAW established ROE as well as directed engagement and bypass criteria.

A

Weapons Free

58
Q

In regards to Multiship Operations, what is the visual signal to signal lost communications in a UH-60 during the day and at night?

A

D - Flash Visual Position

N - Flash Visual/IR Landing Light or White Flashlight

59
Q

For planning purposes, each combat troop will be considered _____ lbs to account for additionally carried equipment.

A

300

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