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Commercial Pilot Oral Questions > Regulations > Flashcards

Regulations Flashcards

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1
Q

Does your commercial pilot certificate expire?

A

No

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2
Q

What do you need to do in order to remain current?

A

Flight review every 24 calendar months.
To carry passengers:
- 3 takeoffs and 3 landings in the category and class
For night:
- 3 TOLs between the times of 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise and they must be full stops.

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3
Q

To act as a required flight crew member, what documents must you personally have on you?

A
  • Photo ID
  • Pilot License
  • Current Medical Certificate
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4
Q

What is the definition of a high-performance aircraft, and what requirements must you have completed to fly one?

A
  • An aircraft with an engine more than 200 HP.
  • You must receive ground/flight training from an authorized instructor of a high-performance airplane.
  • You must receive a one time logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor of a high-performance airplane.
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5
Q

What are some types of airplanes that require a one-time logbook endorsement?

A
  • High-Performance
  • Complex
  • Tailwheel
  • High-Altitude
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6
Q

Which medical certificate is required to operate as PIC for commercial operations and does it expire?

A

A 2nd class medical and it expires every 12 calendar months.

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7
Q

What are the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate?

A

General. A person who holds a commercial pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of an aircraft -

(i) Carrying persons or property for compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation; and
(ii) For compensation or hire, provided the person is qualified in accordance with this part and with the applicable parts of this chapter that apply to the operation.

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8
Q

What is common carriage?

A

Common carriage refers to the carriage of passengers or cargo for hire as a result of advertising the availability of the carriage to the public (holding out).

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9
Q

What is private carriage?

A

Carriage for hire that does not involve holding out.

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10
Q

Four elements defining a “Common Carrier”?

A
  1. A holding out or willingness to
  2. Transport persons or property
  3. From place to place
  4. For compensation
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11
Q

What is a wet lease?

A

A wet lease means that the organization or person who owns the aircraft will provide that aircraft as well as one or more crew members to the lessee. Even more important, the owner also promises to conduct adequate maintenance and procure the insurance necessary to operate.

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12
Q

What is a dry lease?

A

In a “dry” lease situation, the lessee provides its own crew and the lessee exercises operational control of its flights.

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13
Q

What are the exceptions in part 119?

A

(1) Student instruction;
(2) Nonstop Commercial Air Tours conducted after September 11, 2007, in an airplane or helicopter having a standard airworthiness certificate and passenger-seat configuration of 30 seats or fewer and a maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less that begin and end at the same airport, and are conducted within a 25-statute mile radius of that airport, in compliance with the Letter of Authorization issued under § 91.147 of this chapter. For nonstop Commercial Air Tours conducted in accordance with part 136, subpart B of this chapter, National Parks Air Tour Management, the requirements of part 119 of this chapter apply unless excepted in § 136.37(g)(2). For Nonstop Commercial Air Tours conducted in the vicinity of the Grand Canyon National Park, Arizona, the requirements of SFAR 50-2, part 93, subpart U, and part 119 of this chapter, as applicable, apply.
(3) Ferry or training flights;
(4) Aerial work operations, including -
(i) Crop dusting, seeding, spraying, and bird chasing;
(ii) Banner towing;
(iii) Aerial photography or survey;
(iv) Fire fighting;
(v) Helicopter operations in construction or repair work (but it does apply to transportation to and from the site of operations); and
(vi) Powerline or pipeline patrol;
(5) Sightseeing flights conducted in hot air balloons;
(6) Nonstop flights conducted within a 25-statute-mile radius of the airport of takeoff carrying persons or objects for the purpose of conducting intentional parachute operations.
(7) Helicopter flights conducted within a 25 statute mile radius of the airport of takeoff if -
(i) Not more than two passengers are carried in the helicopter in addition to the required flightcrew;
(ii) Each flight is made under day VFR conditions;
(iii) The helicopter used is certificated in the standard category and complies with the 100-hour inspection requirements of part 91 of this chapter;
(iv) The operator notifies the responsible Flight Standards office at least 72 hours before each flight and furnishes any essential information that the office requests;
(v) The number of flights does not exceed a total of six in any calendar year;
(vi) Each flight has been approved by the Administrator; and
(vii) Cargo is not carried in or on the helicopter;
(8) Operations conducted under part 133 of this chapter or 375 of this title;
(9) Emergency mail service conducted under 49 U.S.C. 41906;
(10) Operations conducted under the provisions of § 91.321 of this chapter; or
(11) Small UAS operations conducted under part 107 of this chapter.

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14
Q

What is considered a high-altitude aircraft (pressurized)?

A

An aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL. (61.31)

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15
Q

What is service ceiling?

A

The definition of the service ceiling is the height above sea level at which an aircraft is unable to climb faster than 100 feet per minute under standard air conditions.

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16
Q

What is maximum operating altitude?

A

The maximum altitude up to which operation is allowed, as limited by flight, structural, powerplant, functional, or equipment characteristics, must be established.

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17
Q

What is required to operate as PIC of a pressurized aircraft?

A

Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft (an aircraft that has a service ceiling or maximum operating altitude, whichever is lower, above 25,000 feet MSL), unless that person has received and logged ground training from an authorized instructor and obtained an endorsement in the person’s logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who certifies the person has satisfactorily accomplished the ground training. The ground training must include at least the following subjects:

(i) High-altitude aerodynamics and meteorology;
(ii) Respiration;
(iii) Effects, symptoms, and causes of hypoxia and any other high-altitude sickness;
(iv) Duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen;
(v) Effects of prolonged usage of supplemental oxygen;
(vi) Causes and effects of gas expansion and gas bubble formation;
(vii) Preventive measures for eliminating gas expansion, gas bubble formation, and high-altitude sickness;
(viii) Physical phenomena and incidents of decompression; and
(ix) Any other physiological aspects of high-altitude flight.
(2) Except as provided in paragraph (g)(3) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of a pressurized aircraft unless that person has received and logged training from an authorized instructor in a pressurized aircraft, or in a full flight simulator or flight training device that is representative of a pressurized aircraft, and obtained an endorsement in the person’s logbook or training record from an authorized instructor who found the person proficient in the operation of a pressurized aircraft. The flight training must include at least the following subjects:
(i) Normal cruise flight operations while operating above 25,000 feet MSL;
(ii) Proper emergency procedures for simulated rapid decompression without actually depressurizing the aircraft; and
(iii) Emergency descent procedures.

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18
Q

When are type ratings required?

A
  1. Aircraft is over 12,500 pounds MTOW
  2. Turbo-Jet powered
  3. Required by administrator
19
Q

What are airworthiness directives?

A

An AD is when the FAA notifies current aircraft owners of unsafe conditions that may exist because of design defects, maintenance, or other causes. It specifies what must be done in order to safely operate the aircraft. There are two types of AD’s. One-Time AD’s and Recurring AD’s.

20
Q

What aircraft documents are required to be on board during flight?

A
  • A : Airworthiness Certificate
  • R : Radio License (For operating outside of U.S)
  • R : Registration (Expires every 3 years)
  • O : Operating Limitations (Found in POH)
  • W : Weight and Balance (Found in POH)
21
Q

What are the required inspections to be performed on aircrafts?

A
  • A : Annual Inspection (Required every 12 months)
  • V : VOR Inspection (Required every 30 days) (IFR)
  • 1 : 100 Hour Inspection (Only for compensation or hire)
  • A : Altimeter (Required every 24 months) (IFR)
  • T : Transponder (Required every 24 months)
  • E : ELT (Overall ELT inspection / ELT battery inspection)(Required every 12 months)
  • S : Static/Pitot System (Required every 24 months) (IFR)
22
Q

If the annual date has passed for the annual inspection, can an aircraft be flown to a location to get the annual inspection done?

A

Yes. It can be done by requesting a special flight permit from the FAA.

23
Q

What instruments are required for VFR day flight?

A
  • A : Anti-Collision Lights (Beacon / Strobes)
  • T : Tachometer for each engine
  • O : Oil Pressure Gauge
  • M : Manifold Pressure Gauge
  • A : Altimeter
  • T : Temperature Gauge for liquid-cooled engine
  • O : Oil Temperature Gauge for air-cooled engine
  • F : Fuel Quantity Gauge
  • L : Landing Gear Position Indicator
  • A : Airspeed Indicator
  • M : Magnetic Compass
  • E : ELT
  • S: Safety Belts
24
Q

What instruments are required for VFR night flight?

A

Everything for VFR day flight plus:

  • F : Fuses
  • L : Landing Light
  • A : Anti-Collision Lights
  • P : Position Lights (NAV Lights)
  • S : Source of electrical energy
25
Q

What is an MEL?

A

An MEL(Minimum Equipment List) is a precise listing of instruments, equipment and procedures that allow the aircraft to be operated under specific conditions with inoperative equipment.

26
Q

What is the difference between proficiency and currency?

A

Currency is the legal requirements to continue practicing your pilot privileges, while proficiency is being able to safely and efficiently conduct a flight (No legal status). If you are current, but not proficient, while it is still legal to fly, it’s probably not safe.

27
Q

What is a special flight permit and how do you get one?

A

It is a permit issued for an aircraft that may not meet airworthy requirements, but is still safe to fly. You would get one to fly to a location where maintenance can be done. You can obtain one by contacting FSDO.

28
Q

What is preventative maintenance?

A

Simple and minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operation. Certified pilots, excluding student, sport and recreational may perform preventative maintenance. (Oil changes, wheel bearing lubrication, hydraulic fluid/brakes, landing gear system refills) part 43 appendix C

29
Q

What is the difference between an annual and a 100 hour?

A

An annual must be signed off by an IA (Inspection Authorization), but a 100 hour can be signed off by an A&P.

30
Q

Can you overfly a 100 hour?

A

Yes, but only by 10 hours if it is being flown to a base where the inspection will be completed. The time you fly over is subtracted from the next 100-hour interval.

31
Q

Can a 100 hour take the place of an annual?

A

No, but an annual can take the place of a 100 hour.

32
Q

What defines night?

A
  1. Purpose of navigation lights: Sunset to Sunrise (91.209(a)(1)).
  2. Purpose for logging: The period of time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight (14 CFR 1.1).
  3. Purpose for carrying passenger currency: One hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise (61.57(b)).
33
Q

What flight time must you log?

A

Anything that is used for currency or any time that is to be applied to an additional rating or endorsement.

34
Q

What steps would you follow to determine you can or cannot fly with a piece of inoperative equipment?

A 
1. Does the aircraft have an MEL?
Yes - Follow the MEL
No - Continue to next step
2. Is it required per Day (or Night) VFR type certification of aircraft?
Yes - Do not fly
No - Continue to next step
3. Is it required per the equipment list?
Yes - Do not fly
No - Continue to the next step
4. Is it required per 91.205?
Yes - Do not fly
No - Continue to next step
5. Is it required by an airworthiness directive?
Yes - Do not fly
No - Continue to next step
6. Are you comfortable flying with it?
No - Do not fly
Yes - Continue to next step
7. Has the equipment been removed or deactivated and placarded inoperative?
No - Do not fly
Yes - You can fly!
35
Q

Why else could you obtain a Special Flight Permit?

A
  1. Exporting or delivering an aircraft.
  2. Flying an aircraft to a base where maintenance or inspections will be completed.
  3. Evacuating an aircraft from impending danger.
  4. Customer demonstration flights.
  5. Flight testing.
  6. Flying an aircraft overweight.
36
Q

What is the definition of a complex airplane?

A

Complex airplane means an airplane that has a retractable landing gear, flaps, and a controllable pitch propeller, including airplanes equipped with an engine control system consisting of a digital computer and associated accessories for controlling the engine and propeller, such as a full authority digital engine control.

37
Q

If you receive a DUI, must you notify the FAA?

A

Yes you must send a written report within 60 days of the incident.

38
Q

Must you notify the FAA of an address change?

A

You must notify the FAA within 30 days if you change your permanent mailing address.

39
Q

What is considered an “accident” by the NTSB?

A

an occurrence associated with the operation of an aircraft which takes place between the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight and all such persons have disembarked, and in which any person suffers death or serious injury, or in which the aircraft receives substantial damage. For purposes of this part, the definition of “aircraft accident” includes “unmanned aircraft accident,” as defined herein.

40
Q

What is considered “serious injury” by the NTSB?

A

Means any injury which: (1) Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the date of the injury was received; (2) results in a fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose); (3) causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage; (4) involves any internal organ; or (5) involves second- or third-degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5 percent of the body surface.

41
Q

What is considered “substantial damage” by the NTSB?

A

Means damage or failure which adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft, and which would normally require major repair or replacement of the affected component. Engine failure or damage limited to an engine if only one engine fails or is damaged, bent fairings or cowling, dented skin, small punctured holes in the skin or fabric, ground damage to rotor or propeller blades, and damage to landing gear, wheels, tires, flaps, engine accessories, brakes, or wingtips are not considered “substantial damage” for the purpose of this part.

42
Q

What does “incident” mean by the NTSB?

A

Means an occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

43
Q

What requires immediate notification of the NTSB?

A
  1. An aircraft accident occurs
  2. A serious incident occurs:
    (1) Flight control system malfunction or failure;
    (2) Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness;
    (3) Failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in the escape of debris other than out the exhaust path;
    (4) In-flight fire;
    (5) Aircraft collision in flight;
    (6) Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair (including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less.
    (7) For large multiengine aircraft (more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight):
    (i) In-flight failure of electrical systems which requires the sustained use of an emergency bus powered by a back-up source such as a battery, auxiliary power unit, or air-driven generator to retain flight control or essential instruments;
    (ii) In-flight failure of hydraulic systems that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic or mechanical system for movement of flight control surfaces;
    (iii) Sustained loss of the power or thrust produced by two or more engines; and
    (iv) An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is utilized.
    (8) Release of all or a portion of a propeller blade from an aircraft, excluding release caused solely by ground contact;
    (9) A complete loss of information, excluding flickering, from more than 50 percent of an aircraft’s cockpit displays known as:
    (i) Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) displays;
    (ii) Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS) displays;
    (iii) Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor (ECAM) displays; or
    (iv) Other displays of this type, which generally include a primary flight display (PFD), primary navigation display (PND), and other integrated displays;
    (10) Airborne Collision and Avoidance System (ACAS) resolution advisories issued when an aircraft is being operated on an instrument flight rules flight plan and compliance with the advisory is necessary to avert a substantial risk of collision between two or more aircraft.
    (11) Damage to helicopter tail or main rotor blades, including ground damage, that requires major repair or replacement of the blade(s);
    (12) Any event in which an operator, when operating an airplane as an air carrier at a public-use airport on land:
    (i) Lands or departs on a taxiway, incorrect runway, or other area not designed as a runway; or
    (ii) Experiences a runway incursion that requires the operator or the crew of another aircraft or vehicle to take immediate corrective action to avoid a collision.
  3. An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident.
44
Q

When must you file a report to the NTSB?

A

Within 10 days after an accident. Must only file for serious incident if requested by NTSB.

Commercial Pilot Oral Questions (5 decks)

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