Regulations

Question 1

What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?
A. Cargo and passenger distribution information.
B. Copy of the flight plan.
C. Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.

Answer 1

B. Copy of the flight plan.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.697) ( ? )
The pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight shall carry in the airplane to its destination the original or signed copy of the load manifest, flight release, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, and flight plan.

Question 2

Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane?
A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less.
B. 45 minutes at holding altitude.
C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.

Answer 2

C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.641) ( ? )
No person may dispatch or take off a turbopropeller-powered airplane unless, considering the wind and other weather conditions expected, it has enough fuel to (1) fly to and land at the airport to which it is dispatched; (2) fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport specified in the dispatch release; and (3) thereafter fly for 30 min. plus 15% of the total time required to fly at normal cruising fuel consumption to the airports specified above or for 90 min. at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.

Question 3

Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person
A. should file for odd altitudes only.
B. must file an ICAO RVSM flight plan.
C. shall correctly annotate the flight plan.

Answer 3

C. shall correctly annotate the flight plan.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR Part 91, App G) ( ? )
Each person requesting a clearance to operate within RVSM airspace shall correctly annotate the flight plan filed with air traffic control with the status of the operation and aircraft with regard to RVSM approval.

Question 4

When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?
A. One for each passenger, plus 10 percent.
B. One for each occupant of the aircraft.
C. One for each passenger seat.

Answer 4

B. One for each occupant of the aircraft.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.353) ( ? )
No supplemental air carrier may conduct an operation over an uninhabited area or any other area that (the FAA specifies in its operations specifications) requires equipment for search and rescue in case of an emergency unless it has enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown, for the number of occupants of the airplane.

Question 5

The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?
A. 5/8 SM.
B. 3/8 SM.
C. 3/4 SM.

Answer 5

A. 5/8 SM.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.175) ( ? )
If RVR (runway visual range) minimums for takeoff or landing are prescribed in an instrument approach procedure, but RVR is not reported for the runway of intended operation, the RVR minimum shall be converted to ground visibility. An RVR of 32 is equivalent to 5/8 SM visibility.

Question 6

An example of air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as PIC in part 121 is flight time as an SIC
A. in part 91, subpart K operations.
B. in part 121 operations.
C. in part 135 operations.

Answer 6

B. in part 121 operations.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.436) ( ? )
On July 7, 2013, the FAA released the Final Rule for pilot certification and qualification requirements for air carrier operations. Prior to serving as pilot in command, a pilot must have 1,000 hours of air carrier experience.

Question 7

A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of
A. obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport.
B. having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies).
C. providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

Answer 7

C. providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 110.2) ( ? )
A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator (FAA) for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport used by the certificate holder is unavailable.

Question 8

The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include
A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which 14 CFR Part 121 operations are conducted.
B. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
C. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position.

Answer 8

B. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.517) ( ? )
The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers employed by a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator include all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.

Question 9

When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?
A. 120 days after issue or renewal.
B. When three Category II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.
C. When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landings have been completed in the past 6 months.

Answer 9

B. When three Category II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 61.13) ( ? )
The Category II limitation is removed when the holder shows that, since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, (s)he has made three Category II ILS approaches with a 150-ft. decision height to a landing under actual or simulated instrument conditions.

Question 10

An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?
A. VOR and ILS.
B. VOR and DME.
C. VOR.

Answer 10

C. VOR.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.349) ( ? )
No person may operate an airplane in VFR over-the-top conditions unless the airplane is equipped with the radio navigation equipment necessary to receive satisfactorily, by either of two independent systems, radio navigation signals from all primary en route and approach facilities intended to be used. Of the choices provided, only the VOR is required to be a dual installation.

Question 11

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?
A. Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.
B. Dispatch release and weight and balance release.
C. Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release.

Answer 11

A. Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.695) ( ? )
The pilot in command of a domestic air carrier airplane shall carry in the airplane to its destination a copy of the completed load manifest (or information from it, except information concerning cargo and passenger distribution), a copy of the dispatch release, and a copy of the flight plan.

Question 12

The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is
A. upgrade training.
B. transition training.
C. initial training.

Answer 12

C. initial training.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.400) ( ? )
Initial training is required for flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group.

Question 13

For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in airport/standby reserve time is
A. not part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period.
B. part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period.
C. part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period after being alerted for flight assignment.

Answer 13

B. part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 117.3) ( ? )
“Airport/standby reserve” means a defined duty period during which a flightcrew member is required by a certificate holder to be at an airport for a possible assignment. A flight duty period includes the duties performed by the flightcrew member on behalf of the certificate holder that occur before a flight segment or between flight segments without a required intervening rest period. Examples of tasks that are part of the flight duty period include deadhead transportation, training conducted in an aircraft or flight simulator, and airport/standby reserve, if the above tasks occur before a flight segment or between flight segments without an intervening required rest period.

Question 14

When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman’s medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?
A. 90 days.
B. 60 days.
C. 30 days.

Answer 14

B. 60 days.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 61.29) ( ? )
A person who has lost an airman certificate or medical certificate may obtain a fax from the FAA confirming that it was issued. The fax may be carried as a certificate for a period not to exceed 60 days pending his or her receipt of a duplicate certificate.

Question 15

Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?
A. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach.
B. At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine.
C. At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.

Answer 15

A. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.439) ( ? )
A required pilot flight crewmember who has not made three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days must re-establish recency of experience as follows: Under the supervision of a check airman, make at least three takeoffs and landings in the type airplane in which that person is to serve or in an advanced simulator or visual simulator,
1.
At least one takeoff with a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant
2.
At least one landing from an ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimum authorized for the certificate holder
3.
At least one landing to a full stop

Question 16

The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the
A. pilot in command.
B. air carrier’s chief pilot.
C. certificate holder.

Answer 16

C. certificate holder.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.397) ( ? )
The certificate holder must assign the required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency.

Question 17

Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the
A. International Flight Information Manual.
B. Airplane Flight Manual.
C. Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications.

Answer 17

C. Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.389) ( ? )
Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the air carrier’s operations specifications.

Question 18

The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the
A. pilot in command and the flight follower.
B. pilot in command and director of operations.
C. pilot in command and chief pilot.

Answer 18

B. pilot in command and director of operations.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.537) ( ? )
The pilot in command and the director of operations are jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier flight. The director of operations may delegate the functions for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a flight, but (s)he may not delegate the responsibility for those functions.

Question 19

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?
A. Three.
B. Two.
C. Four.

Answer 19

B. Two.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? )
There must be a minimum of two acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons.

Question 20

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
A. When priority has been given.
B. Anytime an emergency occurs.
C. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

Answer 20

A. When priority has been given.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.123) ( ? )
Each pilot in command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hr. to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC.

Question 21

If a domestic or flag air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
A. The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours.
B. The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty.
C. The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13 hours as 121.465(1) limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours.

Answer 21

B. The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.465) ( ? )
If a domestic or flag air carrier schedules a dispatcher for more than 10 hr. of duty in 24 consecutive hr., the carrier must provide the dispatcher a rest period of at least 8 hr. at or before the end of 10 hr. of duty.

Question 22

Flightcrew member’s flight duty periods are limited to
A. 60 hours in any 7 days.
B. 70 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.
C. 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.

Answer 22

C. 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.23) ( ? )
No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew member’s total flight duty period will exceed:
1.
60 flight duty period hours in any 168 consecutive hours or
2.
190 flight duty period hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

Question 23

A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?
A. A minimum of 1 hour.
B. Notification is not required, if the certificate holder has a security coordinator.
C. A minimum of 2 hours.

Answer 23

A. A minimum of 1 hour.
Answer (A) is correct. (49 CFR 1540.111) ( ? )
Except in an emergency, a certificate holder should be notified at a minimum of 1 hr. before the flight on which a person who is specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard that aircraft.

Question 24

What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for
A. 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.
B. 30 percent of the passengers.
C. each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.

Answer 24

C. each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.329) ( ? )
For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 ft. in a turbine-powered airplane, there must be enough oxygen available for each passenger carried during the entire flight at those altitudes.

Question 25

How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet? A. A minimum of 2-hours’ supply. B. Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude. C. Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.

Answer 25

A. A minimum of 2-hours’ supply. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? ) When operating a turbine-engine-powered airplane with a pressurized cabin at flight altitudes above 10,000 ft., there must be a minimum of a 2-hr. supply of supplemental oxygen for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty in the event of an emergency descent. The 2-hr. oxygen supply is that required for a constant rate of descent from the airplane’s maximum certificated operating altitude to 10,000 ft. in 10 min., followed by 1 hr. 50 min. at 10,000 ft.

Question 26

When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight? A. In terminal radar service areas. B. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. C. Above 12,500 feet MSL.

Answer 26

B. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.205) ( ? ) For flights at or above FL 240, DME or suitable RNAV is required for instrument flights when VOR navigational equipment is required.

Question 27

For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for A. each passenger for 30 minutes. B. 10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours. C. 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers.

Answer 27

C. 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.327) ( ? ) For flights in a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane of more than 30 min. duration at cabin pressure altitudes above 8,000 ft. up to and including 14,000 ft., enough oxygen must be provided for 30 min. for 10% of the passengers.

Question 28

If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command A. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher. B. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. C. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.

Answer 28

B. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.565) ( ? ) If not more than one engine of an airplane that has three or more engines fails or has its rotation stopped, the pilot in command may proceed to an airport that (s)he selects (e.g., the destination airport) if, after considering various factors, (s)he decides that proceeding to that airport is as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.

Question 29

What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station? A. FL 250. B. Above FL 250. C. FL 240.

Answer 29

A. FL 250. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? ) If for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave his or her station at the controls of the airplane when operating at flight altitudes above FL 250, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use his or her oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to his or her duty station. Thus, FL 250 is the highest flight level at which operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask while the other pilot is away from the duty station.

Question 30

The flight duty period may be extended due to unforeseen circumstances before takeoff by as much as A. 30 minutes. B. 2 hours. C. 1 hour.

Answer 30

B. 2 hours. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 117.19) ( ? ) For augmented and unaugmented operations, if unforeseen operational circumstances arise prior to takeoff: 1. The pilot in command and the certificate holder may extend the maximum flight duty period permitted in Tables B or C of 14 CFR 117 up to 2 hours. The pilot in command and the certificate holder may also extend the maximum combined flight duty period and reserve availability period limits up to 2 hours. 2. An extension in the flight duty period of more than 30 minutes may occur only once prior to receiving a rest period of 30 consecutive hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive hour periods.

Question 31

Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency? A. Pilot in command. B. Person who declares the emergency. C. Dispatcher.

Answer 31

B. Person who declares the emergency. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.557) ( ? ) Whenever a pilot in command or a dispatcher exercises emergency authority, (s)he shall keep the appropriate ATC facility and dispatch centers fully informed of the progress of the flight. The person declaring the emergency shall send a written report of any deviation through the air carrier’s operations manager to the administrator. A dispatcher shall send his or her report within 10 days after the date of the emergency, and a pilot in command shall send his or her report within 10 days after returning to his or her home base.

Question 32

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England? A. A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable, survival-type emergency locator transmitter for each required life raft. B. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane. C. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required life raft.

Answer 32

C. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required life raft. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.339) ( ? ) No person may operate an airplane in extended overwater operations without having an appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required life raft.

Question 33

The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is A. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition.

Answer 33

A. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.643) ( ? ) No person may release a turbopropeller-powered airplane of a supplemental air carrier to an airport for which an alternate is not specified unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for 3 hr. at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Question 34

Which in-flight conditions are required by a supplemental air carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top flight below the specified IFR minimum en route altitude? A. The flight must remain clear of clouds by at least 1,000 feet vertically and 1,000 feet horizontally and have at least 3 miles flight visibility. B. The height of any higher overcast or broken layer must be at least 500 feet above the IFR MEA. C. The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5 miles flight visibility.

Answer 34

C. The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5 miles flight visibility. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.657) ( ? ) A supplemental air carrier may conduct day over-the-top operations in an airplane at flight altitudes lower than the minimum en route IFR altitudes if the operation is conducted at least 1,000 ft. above the top of lower broken or overcast cloud cover, the top of the lower cloud cover is generally uniform and level, flight visibility is at least 5 SM, and the base of any higher broken or overcast cloud cover is generally uniform and level and is at least 1,000 ft. above the minimum en route IFR altitude for that route segment.

Question 35

Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment? A. International Flight Information Manual. B. Airplane Flight Manual. C. Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications.

Answer 35

C. Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.389) ( ? ) Operations where a flight navigator or special navigation equipment, or both, are required are specified in the operations specifications of the air carrier or commercial operator.

Question 36

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace? A. 180 knots. B. 230 knots. C. 200 knots.

Answer 36

C. 200 knots. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.117) ( ? ) No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area, or in a VFR corridor designated through a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kt. (230 MPH)

Question 37

“Rest period” means A. a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. B. an 8-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. C. a 12-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.

Answer 37

A. a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.3) ( ? ) A rest period includes freedom from present responsibility for work should the occasion arise.

Question 38

Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMs? A. Any company dispatch facility. B. Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory). C. Notices To Airmen Publication.v

Answer 38

A. Any company dispatch facility. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.601) ( ? ) Any company dispatch facility of a flag air carrier shall provide the pilot information that may affect the safety of the flight, including FDC NOTAMs.

Question 39

What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121? A. All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane. B. All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses. C. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.

Answer 39

C. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.285) ( ? ) Cargo may be carried aft of a bulkhead or divider in any passenger compartment provided the cargo is restrained and is properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally anticipated flight and ground conditions.

Question 40

For which of these aircraft is the “clearway” for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations? A. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958. B. Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957, and August 30, 1959. C. U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.

Answer 40

A. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.189) ( ? ) The takeoff distance may include a clearway distance, but the clearway distance included may not be greater than one-half of the takeoff run for turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958.

Question 41

The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is A. transition training. B. difference training. C. upgrade training.

Answer 41

A. transition training. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.400) ( ? ) Transition training is required for crewmembers and dispatchers who have qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group.

Question 42

An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during A. every 7 consecutive days. B. any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month. C. each calendar week.

Answer 42

B. any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.465) ( ? ) An aircraft dispatcher must be relieved of all duty with the air carrier for at least 24 consecutive hr. during any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month.

Question 43

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a “serious injury”? A. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances. B. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury. C. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.

Answer 43

C. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury. Answer (C) is correct. (NTSB 830.2) ( ? ) Serious injury means any injury that requires hospitalization for more than 48 hr., commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received.

Question 44

The time spent resting during unaugmented operations will not be counted towards the flight duty period limitation if the rest period is at least A. 3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. B. 4 hours long which can include transportation to suitable accommodations. C. 4 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations.

Answer 44

A. 3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.15) ( ? ) For an unaugmented operation only, if a flightcrew member is provided with a rest opportunity (an opportunity to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her flight duty period, the time that the flightcrew member spends in the suitable accommodation is not part of that flightcrew member’s flight duty period if all of the following conditions are met: 1. The rest opportunity is provided between the hours of 22:00 and 05:00 local time. 2. The time spent in the suitable accommodation is at least 3 hours, measured from the time that the flightcrew member reaches the suitable accommodation. 3. The rest opportunity is scheduled before the beginning of the flight duty period in which that rest opportunity is taken. 4. The rest opportunity that the flightcrew member is actually provided may not be less than the rest opportunity that was scheduled. 5. The rest opportunity is not provided until the first segment of the flight duty period has been completed. 6. The combined time of the flight duty period and the rest opportunity provided in this section does not exceed 14 hours.

Question 45

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its three turbine engines is inoperative? A. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. B. The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and official sunrise. C. Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing.

Answer 45

A. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.611) ( ? ) The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or a certificate issued under Part 125 may conduct a ferry flight of an aircraft equipped with three turbine engines, one of which is inoperative, to a base for the purpose of repairing that engine only if the weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports are VFR.

Question 46

The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crewmember, in a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is A. 300 hours. B. 120 hours. C. 100 hours.

Answer 46

C. 100 hours. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.503) ( ? ) No pilot may fly as a crewmember of a supplemental air carrier more than 100 hr. during any 30 consecutive days.

Question 47

If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport? A. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative. B. Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. C. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

Answer 47

C. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.617) ( ? ) If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below authorized landing minimums, the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport is not more than 2 hr. at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

Question 48

After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach? A. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes. B. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later. C. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

Answer 48

C. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.185) ( ? ) If two-way radio communications failure occurs en route and your clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if no EFC has been received, proceed to clearance limit, and proceed to the appropriate initial approach fix. Commence descent and approach to coincide as closely as possible with the ETA.

Question 49

Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large, turbine-powered airplane A. may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines. B. may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing. C. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.

Answer 49

C. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.359) ( ? ) All of the information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large, turbine-powered airplane may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 min.

Question 50

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121? A. Airplane passenger seating accommodations. B. Number of passenger cabin occupants. C. Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard.

Answer 50

A. Airplane passenger seating accommodations. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.309) ( ? ) An airplane’s passenger seating accommodations determine the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121

Question 51

Which minimum level of RFFS do you need when filing an alternate using 180 minutes ETOPS rule? A. ICAO Category 2. B. ICAO Category 4. C. ICAO Category 3.

Answer 51

B. ICAO Category 4. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.106) ( ? ) For ETOPS up to 180 minutes, each designated ETOPS Alternate Airport must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO as Category 4, or higher.

Question 52

The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is A. V1. B. V2. C. VREF.

Answer 52

A. V1. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? ) V1 means the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance.

Question 53

For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS Alternate Airport for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by A. ICAO Category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. B. ICAO Category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes. C. ICAO Category 3, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.

Answer 53

A. ICAO Category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.106) ( ? ) For ETOPS up to 180 minutes, RFFS equivalent to that specified in ICAO Category 4 is a requirement; however, the RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets with a 30-minute response time.

Question 54

Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by A. over-the-counter medications only. B. prescription medications only. C. prescribed and over-the-counter medications.

Answer 54

C. prescribed and over-the-counter medications. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.17) ( ? ) Over-the-counter drugs that are analgesics, such as aspirin, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen, have few side effects when taken in the correct dosage. Some people are allergic to certain analgesics or may suffer from stomach irritation. Flying usually is not restricted when taking these drugs. Flying is almost always precluded while using prescription analgesics, such as drugs containing propoxyphene, oxycodone, meperidine, and codeine, because these drugs are known to cause side effects, such as mental confusion, dizziness, headaches, nausea, and vision problems. Some antibiotics can produce dangerous side effects, such as balance disorders, hearing loss, nausea, and vomiting. Even if the antibiotics are safe for use while flying, the cause requiring the antibiotic may prohibit flying. 14 CFR prohibits pilots from performing crewmember duties while using any medication that affects the body in any way contrary to safety. The safest rule is not to fly as a crewmember while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA. If there is any doubt regarding the effects of any medication, consult an AME before flying.

Question 55

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service? A. 10 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 6 hours.

Answer 55

B. 8 hours. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 61.167) ( ? ) An airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service, excluding briefings and debriefings, for a maximum of 8 hr. in any 24-hr. consecutive period.

Question 56

If an air carrier airplane’s airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only A. in day VFR conditions. B. when able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route. C. in VFR conditions.

Answer 56

A. in day VFR conditions. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.357) ( ? ) If an air carrier airplane’s airborne weather radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, that airplane may be dispatched only in day VFR conditions.

Question 57

What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight? A. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. B. Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply. C. Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.

Answer 57

A. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.687) ( ? ) The dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight may be in any form but must contain at least the following information concerning each flight: (1) identification number of the aircraft; (2) trip number; (3) departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airports, and alternate airports; (4) a statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR); (5) minimum fuel supply; and (6) current weather information.

Question 58

If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release? A. 1945Z. B. 2015Z. C. 0045Z.

Answer 58

C. 0045Z. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.595) ( ? ) A flag air carrier airplane may continue a flight from an intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane has been on the ground not more than 6 hr. Thus, if the flight lands at 1845Z, the latest time it may depart without being redispatched is 0045Z.

Question 59

How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried? A. Two; one located near or accessible to the flight crew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. B. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. C. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin.

Answer 59

B. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.309) ( ? ) Two megaphones are required in the passenger cabin on each airplane with a seating capacity of more than 99 passengers, one installed at the forward end and the other at the most rearward location, where it would be readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat.

Question 60

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to A. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. B. 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. C. 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period.

Answer 60

A. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 61.167) ( ? ) The period of time that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service, excluding briefings and debriefings, is restricted to 36 hr. in any 7-consecutive-day period.

Question 61

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for A. all of the passengers, plus 10 percent. B. all aircraft occupants. C. all passenger seats.

Answer 61

B. all aircraft occupants. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.353) ( ? ) No flag or supplemental air carrier may conduct an operation over an uninhabited area or any other area that (the FAA specifies in its operations specifications) requires equipment for search and rescue in case of an emergency unless it has enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown, for the number of occupants of the airplane.

Question 62

For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system, A. a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test. B. a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased. C. a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased.

Answer 62

C. a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.343) ( ? ) For the purpose of testing the flight recorder or flight recorder system, a total of 1 hr. of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased.

Question 63

When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort? A. They shall be boarded after all other passengers board, and deplaned before all the other passengers leave the aircraft. B. They shall board and depart before the other passengers. C. They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft.

Answer 63

C. They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft. Answer (C) is correct. (49 CFR 1544.221) ( ? ) Each person in the custody of law enforcement personnel will be boarded before all other passengers board and deplaned after all other passengers have left the aircraft.

Question 64

An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be sent through the air carrier’s operations manager by the A. certificate holder to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event. B. pilot in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event. C. dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.

Answer 64

C. dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.557) ( ? ) When an aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results, the dispatcher must submit a written report to the FAA Administrator through the certificate holder’s (air carrier’s) operations manager within 10 days.

Question 65

What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA? A. 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold. B. 115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway. C. 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.

Answer 65

C. 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.195) ( ? ) No person may take off a turbojet-powered airplane when the appropriate weather reports and forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runways at the destination airport may be wet or slippery at the estimated time of arrival unless the effective runway length at the destination airport is at least 115% of the runway length required for a dry runway.

Question 66

A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when A. the airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour. B. operations are conducted IFR or VFR on Top. C. operations are conducted over water more than 50 miles from shore.

Answer 66

A. the airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.389) ( ? ) No certificate holder may operate an airplane outside the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, when its position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hr., without a flight crewmember who holds a current flight navigator certificate or approved specialized means of navigation that enables a reliable determination to be made of the position of the airplane by each pilot seated at his or her duty station.

Question 67

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport) is A. 1,000 - 1; 900 - 1 1/4; or 800 - 2. B. 800 - 2; 1,100 - 1; or 900 - 1 1/2. C. 1,000 - 1; 900 - 1 1/2; or 800 - 2.

Answer 67

C. 1,000 - 1; 900 - 1 1/2; or 800 - 2. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.637) ( ? ) No pilot may take off a domestic air carrier airplane from a U.S. airport that is not listed in the operations specifications unless the prescribed weather minimums for takeoff exist, or if minimums are not prescribed for the airport, the weather minimums of 800 - 2, 900 - 1 1/2, or 1,000 - 1 are met.

Question 68

Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be A. given before the beginning of the flight duty period. B. provided no later than after the first flight segment offered after the first flight segment is completed. C. given before the next to last flight segment.

Answer 68

A. given before the beginning of the flight duty period. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.15) ( ? ) For an unaugmented operation only, if a flightcrew member is provided with a rest opportunity (an opportunity to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her flight duty period, the time that the flightcrew member spends in the suitable accommodation is not part of that flightcrew member’s flight duty period if all of the following conditions are met: 1. The rest opportunity is provided between the hours of 22:00 and 05:00 local time. 2. The time spent in the suitable accommodation is at least 3 hours, measured from the time that the flightcrew member reaches the suitable accommodation. 3. The rest opportunity is scheduled before the beginning of the flight duty period in which that rest opportunity is taken. 4. The rest opportunity that the flightcrew member is actually provided may not be less than the rest opportunity that was scheduled. 5. The rest opportunity is not provided until the first segment of the flight duty period has been completed. 6. The combined time of the flight duty period and the rest opportunity provided in this section does not exceed 14 hours. Item 3. implies that notification must be given before the beginning of the flight duty period.

Question 69

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A. 24 hours. B. 12 hours. C. 8 hours.

Answer 69

C. 8 hours. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.17) ( ? ) No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hr. after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, while under the influence of drugs or alcohol, or while having .04% by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

Question 70

The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is A. 10 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 12 hours.

Answer 70

A. 10 hours. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.465) ( ? ) No domestic or flag air carrier may schedule a dispatcher for more than 10 consecutive hr. of duty.

Question 71

Flightcrew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training A. annually for flightcrew members and every 24 months for dispatchers, flightcrew member schedulers, and operational control individuals. B. with all required air carrier dispatcher and every flightcrew member training activity. C. annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals, and flightcrew members and dispatchers.

Answer 71

C. annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals, and flightcrew members and dispatchers. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.9) ( ? ) Each certificate holder must develop and implement an education and awareness training program, approved by the Administrator. This program must provide annual education and awareness training to all employees of the certificate holder responsible for administering the provisions of this rule including flightcrew members, dispatchers, individuals directly involved in the scheduling of flightcrew members, individuals directly involved in operational control, and any employee providing direct management oversight of those areas.

Question 72

If an engine’s rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the A. appropriate ground radio station. B. nearest FAA district office. C. operations manager (or director of operations).

Answer 72

A. appropriate ground radio station. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.565) ( ? ) The pilot in command shall report each stoppage of engine rotation in flight to the appropriate ground radio station as soon as practicable and shall keep that station fully informed of the progress of the flight.

Question 73

“Operational control” of a flight refers to A. exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft. B. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C. the specific duties of any required crewmember.

Answer 73

B. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 1.1) ( ? ) Operational control of a flight refers to the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

Question 74

A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve? A. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. B. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time. C. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.

Answer 74

A. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.645) ( ? ) No person may release a turbine-engine-powered airplane (other than a turbopropeller airplane) to an airport for which an alternate is not specified unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for at least 2 hr. at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Question 75

The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport. C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport.

Answer 75

C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.639) ( ? ) No person may dispatch or take off an airplane unless it has enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, then fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport, and then fly for 45 min. at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Question 76

If the augmented flightcrew member is not acclimated, the A. maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes. B. flight duty period assignment must be reduced 15 minutes by each 15 degrees of longitude difference from the previous rest location. C. minimum rest period must be extended by 3 hours.

Answer 76

A. maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.17) ( ? ) For flight operations conducted with an acclimated augmented flightcrew, no certificate holder may assign and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the scheduled flight duty period will exceed the limits specified in Table C of 14 CFR Part 117. If the flightcrew member is not acclimated: 1. The maximum flight duty period in Table C of 14 CFR Part 117 is reduced by 30 minutes. 2. The applicable flight duty period is based on the local time at the theater in which the flightcrew member was last acclimated.

Question 77

Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations? A. If required by the airplane’s type certificate. B. If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard. C. If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.

Answer 77

A. If required by the airplane’s type certificate. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.387) ( ? ) No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which a type certificate was issued before January 2, 1964, having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 80,000 lb., without a flight crewmember holding a current flight engineer certificate. For each airplane type certificated after January 1, 1964, the requirement for a flight engineer is determined under the type certification requirements.

Question 78

If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should A. phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight. B. comply with the company’s lost aircraft plan. C. take any action considered necessary under the circumstances.

Answer 78

C. take any action considered necessary under the circumstances. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.557) ( ? ) If the aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot in command of a flight in an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action by the aircraft dispatcher, (s)he shall declare an emergency and take any action that (s)he considers necessary under the circumstances.

Question 79

For passenger operations under Part 121, a flightcrew member may exceed maximum flight time limitations if A. immediately followed by 11 hours of rest. B. known ATC delays do not exceed 30 minutes. C. unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff.

Answer 79

C. unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.19) ( ? ) Unforeseen operational circumstances permit extension as necessary to safely land the aircraft.

Question 80

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported? A. 3/4 SM. B. 1/4 SM. C. 1/2 SM.

Answer 80

B. 1/4 SM. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.175) ( ? ) If RVR (runway visual range) minimums for takeoff or landing are prescribed in an instrument approach procedure, but RVR is not reported for the runway of intended operation, the RVR minimum shall be converted to ground visibility. An RVR of 16 is equivalent to 1/4 SM visibility.

Question 81

When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required? A. Three. B. Five. C. Four.

Answer 81

C. Four. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.391) ( ? ) The number of required flight attendants is based upon passenger seating capacity, not the number of passengers on a given flight. A seating capacity of 51 to 100 requires two flight attendants, after which one flight attendant is required for each unit (or partial unit) of 50 seats. A seating capacity of 187 requires four flight attendants.

Question 82

Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an airplane? A. VLO/MLO. B. VMO/MMO. C. VLE.

Answer 82

B. VMO/MMO. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? ) VMO/MMO is maximum operating limit speed. Maximum operating limit speed is also known as maximum Mach number, which is analogous to VNE of a small airplane.

Question 83

A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. entering controlled airspace. B. entering IFR weather conditions. C. takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.

Answer 83

A. entering controlled airspace. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.173) ( ? ) No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has (1) filed an IFR flight plan and (2) received an appropriate ATC clearance.

Question 84

An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment to be inoperative A. prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. B. anytime with no other documentation required or procedures to be followed. C. for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without further documentation from the operator or FAA with passengers on board.

Answer 84

A. prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.213) ( ? ) The minimum equipment list (MEL) contains units and systems for which operation of the aircraft with some deviation from airworthiness standards or operating rules have been approved. These are components and systems that the operator or manufacturer has proven that the aircraft may safely operate without under specific conditions.

Question 85

Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A. Operating Certificate. B. Dispatch Release. C. Operations Specifications.

Answer 85

C. Operations Specifications. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 119.5) ( ? ) Under Part 121 or 135, no person may operate an aircraft in a geographical area unless its operations specifications specifically authorize the certificate holder to operate in that area.

Question 86

In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew member must report A. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties. B. on time, in uniform, and properly prepared to accomplish all assigned duties. C. to the airport on time, after the designated rest period and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duties.

Answer 86

A. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.5) ( ? ) Each flightcrew member must report for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his or her assigned duties. No certificate holder may assign and no flightcrew member may accept assignment to a flight duty period if the flightcrew member has reported for a flight duty period too fatigued to safely perform his or her assigned duties.

Question 87

A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it A. minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. B. weather information for the complete flight and a crew list. C. trip number and weight and balance data.

Answer 87

A. minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.687) ( ? ) The dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain, or have attached to it, weather reports, available weather forecasts, or a combination thereof, for the destination airport, intermediate stops, and alternate airports, that are the latest available at the time the release is signed by the pilot in command and the dispatcher. It may include any additional available weather reports or forecasts that the pilot in command or the aircraft dispatcher considers necessary or desirable. Additionally, the dispatch release will contain the minimum fuel supply.

Question 88

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division? A. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate. B. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. C. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

Answer 88

C. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 61.15) ( ? ) Each individual convicted of driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division, no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

Question 89

Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature? A. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. B. All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence. C. All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.

Answer 89

A. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.359) ( ? ) An approved cockpit voice recorder having an erasure feature may be used so that, at any time during the operation of the recorder, information recorded more than 30 min. earlier may be erased or otherwise obliterated.

Question 90

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL? A. 250 knots. B. 230 knots. C. 288 knots.

Answer 90

A. 250 knots. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.117) ( ? ) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 ft. MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kt. (288 MPH).

Question 91

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. VS1. B. VS0. C. VS.

Answer 91

C. VS. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? ) VS is the stalling speed, or the minimum steady flight speed, at which the airplane is controllable.

Question 92

If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2017 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 2019, the latter check is considered to have been taken in A. December 2018. B. November 2017. C. January 2018.

Answer 92

A. December 2018. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.401) ( ? ) Whenever a flight crewmember is required to take recurrent training, a flight check, or a competence check, and takes the check or completes the training in the calendar month before or after the calendar month in which that training or check is required, (s)he is considered to have taken or completed it in the calendar month in which it was required.

Question 93

No flightcrew member may accept an assignment without scheduled rest opportunities for A. more than 4 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low in a 168 hour period. B. consecutive nighttime flights beginning after 0001 hours local home base time. C. more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low.

Answer 93

C. more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.15, 14 CFR 117.27) ( ? ) “Window of circadian low” means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between 0200 and 0559 during a physiological night. A certificate holder may schedule and a flightcrew member may accept up to five consecutive flight duty periods that infringe on the window of circadian low if the certificate holder provides the flightcrew member with an opportunity to rest in a suitable accommodation during each of the consecutive nighttime flight duty periods. The rest opportunity must be at least 2 hours, measured from the time that the flightcrew member reaches the suitable accommodation, and must be between 2200 and 0500 local time; the rest must be scheduled before the beginning of the flight duty period, and the rest period may not be less than scheduled. Otherwise, no certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept more than three consecutive flight duty periods that infringe on the window of circadian low.

Question 94

When an alternate airport outside the United States has no prescribed takeoff minimums and is not listed in a Flag Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications, the minimum weather conditions that will meet the requirements for takeoff is A. 900-1-1/2. B. 600-2. C. 800-1-1/2.

Answer 94

A. 900-1-1/2. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.637) ( ? ) No pilot may take off a flag air carrier airplane from a non-U.S. airport that is not listed in the operations specifications unless the weather minimums for takeoff prescribed or approved by the government of the country in which the airport is located exist, or if minimums are not prescribed or approved for the airport, the weather minimums of 800-2, 900-1 1/2, or 1,000-1 are met.

Question 95

A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least A. 6 months. B. 3 months. C. 30 days.

Answer 95

B. 3 months. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.695) ( ? ) A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least 3 months.

Question 96

Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight? A. Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight. B. Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. C. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.

Answer 96

B. Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.687) ( ? ) The dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight may be in any form but must contain at least the following information concerning each flight: (1) identification number of the aircraft; (2) trip number; (3) departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airports, and alternate airports; (4) a statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR); (5) minimum fuel supply; and (6) current weather information.

Question 97

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight? A. Appropriate dispatch office. B. ARINC. C. Any FSS.

Answer 97

A. Appropriate dispatch office. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.99) ( ? ) Each domestic and flag air carrier must show that a two-way air/ground radio communication system is available at points that will ensure reliable and rapid communications under normal operating conditions over the entire route (either direct or via approved point-to-point circuits) between each airplane and the appropriate dispatch office, and between each airplane and the appropriate air traffic control unit. For all domestic air carrier operations and for flag air carrier operations in the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, the communications systems between each airplane and the dispatch office must be independent of any system operated by the United States.

Question 98

The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be A. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.

Answer 98

B. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.645) ( ? ) A flag air carrier turbojet airplane operating within the 48 contiguous United States may use the fuel requirements for domestic air carriers, which states that no person may dispatch or take off an airplane unless it has enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (where required) for the airport to which dispatched, and thereafter fly for 45 min. at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Question 99

What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms? A. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining. B. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. C. Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land.

Answer 99

B. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.357) ( ? ) If the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route, the pilot in command must proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event.

Question 100

Which is the maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier airman may be aloft in any 30 consecutive days, as a member of a flight crew that consists of two pilots and at least one additional flight crewmember? A. 100 hours. B. 300 hours. C. 120 hours.

Answer 100

C. 120 hours. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.521) ( ? ) The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier airman may be aloft in any 30 consecutive days as a member of a flight crew that consists of two pilots and at least one additional flight crewmember is 120 hr.

Question 101

Which minimum level of RFFS do you need when filing an alternate using the beyond-180 minutes ETOPS rule? A. ICAO Category 7. B. ICAO Category 4. C. ICAO Category 5.

Answer 101

A. ICAO Category 7. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.106) ( ? ) For ETOPS beyond 180 minutes, each designated ETOPS Alternate Airport must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 4, or higher. In addition, the aircraft must remain within the ETOPS authorized diversion time from an Adequate Airport that has RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 7, or higher.

Question 102

During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions? A. Director of operations or flight follower. B. Aircraft dispatcher. C. Pilot in command.

Answer 102

C. Pilot in command. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.603) ( ? ) During a flight, the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight shall obtain any additional information on meteorological conditions and irregularities of facilities and services that may affect the safety of the flight.

Question 103

The “age 65 rule” of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to A. any flight crewmember. B. the pilot in command only. C. any required pilot crewmember.

Answer 103

C. any required pilot crewmember. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.383) ( ? ) No certificate holder may use the services of any person as a pilot on an airplane engaged in operations under Part 121 if that person has reached his or her 65th birthday. No person may serve as a pilot on an airplane engaged in operations under Part 121 if that person has reached his or her 65th birthday.

Question 104

How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight? A. 60 days. B. 30 days. C. 90 days.

Answer 104

A. 60 days. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.609) ( ? ) In the event of an accident or occurrence that results in the termination of the flight, any operator who has installed approved flight recorders and cockpit voice recorders shall keep the recorded information for at least 60 days or, if requested by the FAA or the NTSB, for a longer period.

Question 105

In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flight crew is A. encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished. B. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. C. required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.

Answer 105

B. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.315) ( ? ) Each certificate holder shall provide an approved cockpit check procedure for each type of aircraft. The approved procedures must include each item necessary for flight crewmembers to check for safety before starting engines, taking off, or landing, and in engine and systems emergencies. The procedures must be designed so that a flight crewmember will not need to rely upon his or her memory for items to be checked.

Question 106

What is required when listing an ETOPS Alternate Airport greater than 180 minutes? A. Airlines are responsible for providing a passenger recovery plan that includes safe retrieval without undue delay. B. The aircraft must be equipped with three pilot crew members. C. The aircraft must have a total of four engines.

Answer 106

A. Airlines are responsible for providing a passenger recovery plan that includes safe retrieval without undue delay. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.135) ( ? ) For ETOPS greater than 180 minutes, a specific passenger recovery plan is required for each ETOPS Alternate Airport used in those operations.

Question 107

How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every A. 12 calendar months. B. 6 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months.

Answer 107

C. 24 calendar months. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.417) ( ? ) During initial training and once each 24 calendar months during recurrent training, each crewmember must perform certain emergency drills and operate specified emergency equipment.

Question 108

When is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each destination airport within the 48 contiguous United States? A. When the flight is scheduled for more than 6 hours en route. B. On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination. C. When the forecast weather indicates the ceiling will be less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than 2 miles at the estimated time of arrival.

Answer 108

B. On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.623) ( ? ) Each person releasing an aircraft of a supplemental air carrier in the 48 contiguous United States for operation under IFR or over-the-top shall list at least one alternate airport for each destination airport in the flight release.

Question 109

Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a A. certificate holder’s manual. B. key to the flight deck door. C. flashlight in good working order.

Answer 109

C. flashlight in good working order. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.549) ( ? ) Each crewmember shall, on each flight, have readily available for his or her use a flashlight in good working order.

Question 110

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply? A. The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport. B. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA. C. The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book.

Answer 110

A. The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.175) ( ? ) No pilot operating a civil aircraft may land that aircraft when the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.

Question 111

What is an area identified by the term “stopway”? A. An area, at least the same width as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff. B. An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. C. An area, not as wide as the runway, capable of supporting an airplane during a normal takeoff.

Answer 111

B. An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 1.1) ( ? ) A stopway is an area beyond the takeoff runway, no less wide than the runway and centered upon the extended centerline of the runway, able to support the airplane during an aborted takeoff without causing structural damage to the airplane.

Question 112

Assuring that appropriate aeronautical charts are aboard an aircraft is the responsibility of the A. aircraft dispatcher. B. pilot in command. C. first officer.

Answer 112

B. pilot in command. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.549) ( ? ) The pilot in command shall ensure that appropriate aeronautical charts containing adequate information concerning navigation aids and instrument approach procedures are aboard the aircraft for each flight.

Question 113

A flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1805Z. The latest time that it may depart without being redispatched is A. 0005Z. B. 2005Z. C. 1905Z.

Answer 113

A. 0005Z. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.595) ( ? ) A flag air carrier airplane may continue a flight from an intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane has been on the ground not more than 6 hr. Thus, if the flight lands at 1805Z, the latest time it may depart without being redispatched is 0005Z.

Question 114

During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from a 14 CFR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report? A. To the manager of the facility in control within 10 days. B. Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager. C. To the manager of the General Aviation District Office within 10 days.

Answer 114

B. Upon request by ATC, submit a written report within 48 hours to the ATC manager. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.123) ( ? ) Each pilot in command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hr. to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC.

Question 115

What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations? A. A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane. B. A portable survival emergency locator transmitter for each life raft. C. A pyrotechnic signaling device for each life preserver.

Answer 115

A. A life preserver equipped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.339) ( ? ) No person may operate an airplane in extended overwater operations unless there is a life preserver, equipped with an approved survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

Question 116

While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance? A. An off-airway route to the point of departure. B. The most direct route to the filed alternate airport. C. The route filed in the flight plan.

Answer 116

C. The route filed in the flight plan. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.185) ( ? ) If two-way radio communications failure occurs in IFR conditions, each pilot shall continue with the flight according to the following: (1) by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance; (2) if being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance; (3) in the absence of an assigned route, by the route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance; or (4) by the route filed in the flight plan.

Question 117

Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS A. pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory Person. B. pre-departure check must be signed off by an A&P or the PIC for the flight. C. preflight check must be conducted by a certified A&P and signed off in the logbook.

Answer 117

A. pre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory Person. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.374) ( ? ) Before an ETOPS flight may commence, an ETOPS pre-departure service check (PDSC) Signatory Person must certify by signature that the ETOPS PDSC has been completed.

Question 118

To be considered acclimated in a new theater of operations, a required flight crew member must have __ consecutive hours of rest. A. 24 B. 36 C. 30

Answer 118

B. 36 Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 117) ( ? ) This regulation went into effect January 4, 2014. It reads as follows: If a flight crew member operating in a new theater has received 36 consecutive hours of rest, that flight crew member is acclimated.

Question 119

A cockpit voice recorder must be operated A. when starting to taxi for takeoff to the engine shutdown checklist after termination of the flight. B. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. C. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of checklist prior to engine shutdown.

Answer 119

B. from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of flight. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.359) ( ? ) No certificate holder may operate a large turbine-engine-powered airplane or a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines unless an approved cockpit voice recorder is installed in that airplane and is operated continuously from the start of the use of the checklist (before starting engines for the purpose of flight) to completion of the final checklist at the termination of the flight.

Question 120

The maximum number of hours a pilot may fly in 7 consecutive days as the pilot in command in a two-pilot crew for a flag air carrier is A. 30 hours. B. 35 hours. C. 32 hours.

Answer 120

C. 32 hours. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.481) ( ? ) No pilot of a two-pilot crew for a flag air carrier may fly more than 32 hr. during any 7 consecutive days, and each pilot must be relieved from all duty for at least 24 consecutive hr. at least once during any 7 consecutive days.

Question 121

The South Polar region includes A. the entire area south of 60° S latitude. B. the entire area north of 70° S latitude and south of 60° S latitude. C. the entire area south of 70° S latitude.

Answer 121

A. the entire area south of 60° S latitude. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.7) ( ? ) The South Polar region encompasses the entire area south of 60° S latitude.

Question 122

A crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100), may serve as pilot in command upon completing which training program? A. Initial training. B. Upgrade training. C. Recurrent training.

Answer 122

B. Upgrade training. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.400) ( ? ) Upgrade training is required for a crewmember who has served as second-in-command on a particular type airplane (e.g., B-727-100) before (s)he may serve as pilot in command on that airplane.

Question 123

An air carrier flight is preparing to depart from a domestic airport which is not listed in the carrier’s operation specifications. There are no takeoff minimums prescribed for the airport, and the weather is currently reporting a 900 ft. overcast ceiling and 1 mi. visibility in mist. The flight may A. depart if an alternate departure airport is filed. B. depart without an alternate departure airport. C. not depart until the weather improves.

Answer 123

C. not depart until the weather improves. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.637) ( ? ) If the intended domestic departure airport is not listed in the carrier’s operation specifications, the weather minimums to permit departure must be equal to or better than 800-2, 900-1 1/2, or 1000-1.

Question 124

Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot in command required to hold a type rating? A. When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. B. When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. C. When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.

Answer 124

B. When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 61.31) ( ? ) A person may not act as pilot in command of any turbojet or other large aircraft (an aircraft of more than 12,500 lb. maximum certificated takeoff weight) unless (s)he holds a type rating for that aircraft.

Question 125

“Airport standby reserve” means A. a specified 15-hour period of reserve in close proximity of assignment being available for flight duty assignments in less than 2 hours. B. a defined duty period during which a flight crewmember is required by the certificate holder to be available for possible assignment. C. being within 90 minutes of the airport and available for immediate flight duty assignments of 8 hours duration.

Answer 125

B. a defined duty period during which a flight crewmember is required by the certificate holder to be available for possible assignment. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 117.3) ( ? ) Airport standby reserve is a defined duty period during which a flight crewmember is required by the certificate holder to be available for possible assignment.

Question 126

Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes A. of FL 250. B. above FL 250. C. of FL 260

Answer 126

B. above FL 250. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? ) Each flight crewmember on flight deck duty must be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidly placed on his or her face from its ready position, properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen on demand, when operating at flight altitudes above FL 250.

Question 127

What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane? A. The container or bin in which the cargo is carried must be made of material which is at least flash resistant. B. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any exit. C. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment.

Answer 127

C. The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle in the passenger compartment. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.285) ( ? ) A cargo bin installed in the passenger compartment may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any emergency exit or aisle in the passenger compartment.

Question 128

When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed? A. Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. B. No passengers except authorized maintenance personnel may be carried. C. The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR.

Answer 128

A. Only the required flight crewmembers may be on board the airplane. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.611) ( ? ) The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or a certificate issued under Part 125 may conduct a ferry flight of an aircraft with one of its turbine engines inoperative to a base for the purpose of repairing that engine with only the required flight crewmembers on board the airplane.

Question 129

The certificated air carrier operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and designated pilot in command are A. supplemental and commercial. B. flag and commercial. C. supplemental and domestic.

Answer 129

A. supplemental and commercial. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.689) ( ? ) Supplemental air carriers must include the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and pilot designated as pilot in command in the flight release.

Question 130

A flightcrew member must be given a rest period before beginning any reserve or flight duty period, of A. 24 consecutive hours free from any duty in the past 7 consecutive calendar days. B. 30 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours. C. 36 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours.

Answer 130

B. 30 consecutive hours in the past 168 consecutive hours. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 117.25) ( ? ) Before beginning any reserve or flight duty period a flightcrew member must be given at least 30 consecutive hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive hour period (i.e., 7 days).

Question 131

What is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane? A. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating. B. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. C. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.

Answer 131

B. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.617) ( ? ) The maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane is 1 hr. at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operating.

Question 132

A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used? A. A VFR altitude that is above the MEA for each leg. B. An altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle along the route. C. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest.

Answer 132

C. Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.185) ( ? ) If a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure, (s)he should maintain the highest of the following altitudes or flight levels for the route segment being flown: (1) the altitude or flight level assigned in the last ATC clearance received, (2) the minimum altitude/flight level, or (3) the altitude or flight level ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance.

Question 133

When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for A. one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency. B. the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties. C. at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

Answer 133

C. at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.385) ( ? ) On each flight requiring a flight engineer, at least one flight crewmember other than the flight engineer must be qualified to provide emergency performance of the flight engineer’s functions for the safe completion of the flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise incapacitated. A pilot need not hold a flight engineer’s certificate to perform the flight engineer’s functions in such a situation.

Question 134

No person may operate a U.S. registered civil aircraft A. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved operator’s manual available. B. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available or the manual specified in part 135 section 135.19(b). C. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available.

Answer 134

C. for which an AFM or RFM is required by part 21 section 21.5 unless there is a current, approved AFM or RFM available. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.9) ( ? ) According to 14 CFR 21.5, the holder of a Type Certificate or the licensee of a Type Certificate is required to make available to the owner of an aircraft at the time of delivery a current approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual.

Question 135

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard? A. Five. B. Four. C. Three.

Answer 135

B. Four. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.391) ( ? ) The number of required flight attendants is based upon passenger seating capacity, not the number of passengers on a given flight. A seating capacity of 51 to 100 requires two flight attendants, after which one flight attendant is required for each unit (or partial unit) of 50 seats. A seating capacity of 188 requires four flight attendants.

Question 136

``` (Refer to Table C.) In an airplane with an augmented crew of three flightcrew members assigned, the maximum flight duty period is A. 14 hours if assigned to report at 1630 with a class 2 rest facility available. B. 16 hours if assigned to report at 0630 with a class 1 rest facility available. C. 17 hours if assigned to report at 1200 with a class 3 rest facility available. See figure 488 ```

Answer 136

``` B. 16 hours if assigned to report at 0630 with a class 1 rest facility available. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR Part 117, Table C) ( ? ) In an airplane with an augmented crew of three flightcrew members assigned, they can have a maximum flight duty period of 16 hours if they are assigned to report at 0630 with a class 1 rest facility available. ```

Question 137

Which is a definition of the term “crewmember”? A. Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time. B. Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer. C. A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.

Answer 137

C. A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 1.1) ( ? ) A crewmember is a person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.

Question 138

A Category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to A. Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. B. pilots who have completed an FAA-approved Category II training program. C. Category II operations not less than 1200 RVR and a 100-foot DH.

Answer 138

A. Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 61.13) ( ? ) Upon original issuance of a Category II authorization, the authorization contains a limitation for Category II operations of 1,600 ft. RVR and a 150-ft. DH. This initial limitation is removed when three Category II ILS approaches within a 150-ft. DH have been flown.

Question 139

“Window of circadian low” means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between A. 1200 – 0459 B. 0200 – 0559 C. 0100 – 0500

Answer 139

B. 0200 – 0559 Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 117.3) ( ? ) A window of circadian low means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between 0200 and 0559 during a physiological night.

Question 140

What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane? A. Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time. B. Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit. C. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.

Answer 140

C. Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.565) ( ? ) Whenever one engine of a two-engine air carrier airplane fails or whenever the rotation of an engine is stopped to prevent possible damage, the pilot in command shall land the airplane at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.

Question 141

The weather conditions that meet the minimum requirements for a flag air carrier to take off from an alternate airport that is not listed in the Operations Specifications are A. 800-1, 900-2, or 1000-3. B. 800-1/2, 900-1, or 1000-2. C. 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1000-1.

Answer 141

C. 800-2, 900-1-1/2, or 1000-1. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.637) ( ? ) No pilot may take off a flag air carrier airplane from a non-U.S. airport that is not listed in the operations specifications unless the weather minimums for takeoff prescribed or approved by the government of the country in which the airport is located exist, or if minimums are not prescribed or approved for the airport, the weather minimums of 800-2, 900-1 1/2, or 1,000-1 are met.

Question 142

If a required instrument on a multiengine airplane becomes inoperative, which document required under 14 CFR Part 121 dictates whether the flight may continue en route? A. A Master Minimum Equipment List for the airplane. B. Certificate holder’s manual. C. Original dispatch release.

Answer 142

B. Certificate holder’s manual. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.135) ( ? ) Each manual required by 14 CFR 121.133 must provide information for en route flight and navigation and communication procedures, including procedures for the dispatch or release or continuance of flight if any item or equipment required for the particular type of operation becomes inoperative or unserviceable en route.

Question 143

For a flag air carrier flight to be released to an island airport for which an alternate airport is not available, a turbojet-powered airplane must have enough fuel to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly A. back to the departure airport. B. for 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Answer 143

C. at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.645) ( ? ) No person may release a flag air carrier turbojet-powered airplane to an airport for which an alternate is not available unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for at least 2 hr. at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Question 144

If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the duty station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot A. shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. B. and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and breathe oxygen. C. must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available.

Answer 144

A. shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? ) If for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave his or her duty station at the controls of the airplane when operating at flight altitudes above FL 250, the remaining pilot at the controls must put on and use his or her oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to his or her duty station.

Question 145

What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed? A. VFC. B. VMD. C. VMU.

Answer 145

C. VMU. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? ) VMU is minimum unstick speed. Minimum unstick speed is the minimum airspeed at which the airplane can be made to take off without demonstrating hazardous characteristics while continuing the takeoff.

Question 146

What is meant by “sterile cockpit”? A. Crewmembers are seated and buckled at their required stations. B. All preflight checks are complete and the aircraft is ready for engine starting. C. Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities during critical phases of flight.

Answer 146

C. Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities during critical phases of flight. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.542) ( ? ) Crewmembers are required to refrain from nonessential activities during critical cases of flight. It is during these critical phases of flight that the “sterile cockpit” is enforced.

Question 147

An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard? A. Two. B. Four. C. Three.

Answer 147

C. Three. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.391) ( ? ) The number of required flight attendants is based upon passenger seating capacity, not the number of passengers on a given flight. A seating capacity of 51 to 100 requires two flight attendants, after which one flight attendant is required for each unit (or partial unit) of 50 seats. A seating capacity of 149 requires three flight attendants.

Question 148

What is the fuel reserve requirement for a commercially operated reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release? Enough fuel to fly A. to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of total time required to fly at normal cruising consumption to the alternate.

Answer 148

B. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.643) ( ? ) Upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release, a supplemental air carrier operating a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane flying within the 48 contiguous United States must have enough fuel to fly for 45 min. at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Question 149

An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet-powered airplane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United States, if enough fuel A. to fly over the destination for 30 minutes at holding airspeed at 1,500 feet AGL is carried aboard the airplane. B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. C. is aboard to fly to the destination at normal cruise speed and thereafter at least 2 hours at normal holding speed.

Answer 149

B. is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 more hours at normal cruising fuel consumption. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.645) ( ? ) No person may release a supplemental or commercial air carrier turbojet-powered airplane to an airport for which an alternate is not specified unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for at least 2 hr. at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Question 150

The pilot in command of an airplane en route determines that icing conditions can be expected that might adversely affect safety of the flight. Which action is appropriate? A. The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions. B. The flight may continue to the original destination airport, provided all anti-icing and deicing equipment is operational and is used. C. The pilot in command may continue to the original destination airport, after climbing to a higher altitude.

Answer 150

A. The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.629) ( ? ) No person may dispatch or release an aircraft, continue to operate an aircraft en route, or land an aircraft when, in the opinion of the pilot in command or aircraft dispatcher (domestic and flag air carriers only), icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely affect the safety of the flight.

Question 151

Which restriction applies to a cargo bin in a passenger compartment? The bin A. may have an open top if it is placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net. B. must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. C. must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed.

Answer 151

B. must withstand the load factor required of passenger seats, multiplied by 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.285) ( ? ) A cargo bin installed in a passenger compartment must withstand the load factors and emergency landing conditions applicable to the passenger seats of the airplane in which the bin is installed, multiplied by a factor of 1.15, using the combined weight of the bin and the maximum weight of cargo that may be carried in the bin.

Question 152

Which dispatch requirement applies to a flag air carrier that is scheduled for a 7-hour IFR flight? A. No alternate airport is required if the forecast weather at the ETA at the destination airport is at least 1,500 feet and 3 miles. B. An alternate airport is required. C. An alternate airport is not required if the ceiling will be at least 1,500 feet above the lowest circling MDA.

Answer 152

B. An alternate airport is required. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.621) ( ? ) No person may dispatch a flag air carrier airplane under IFR or over-the-top without listing at least one alternate airport for each destination airport in the dispatch release, unless the flight is scheduled for not more than 6 hr. and certain conditions are met.

Question 153

Which 14 CFR Part 121 required document includes descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency? A. Pilot’s Emergency Procedures Handbook. B. Airplane Flight Manual. C. Certificate holder’s manual.

Answer 153

C. Certificate holder’s manual. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.397) ( ? ) The certificate holder’s manual must include descriptions of the required crewmember functions to be performed in the event of an emergency.

Question 154

The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is A. V1. B. V2. C. VEF.

Answer 154

C. VEF. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? ) VEF means the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff.

Question 155

In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled airspace? A. Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. B. Above 12,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. C. Above 14,500 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL.

Answer 155

A. Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.215) ( ? ) No person may operate an aircraft at or above 10,000 ft. MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 ft. AGL, unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable Mode C transponder.

Question 156

Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB? A. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $10,000. B. Aircraft colliding on the ground. C. Flight control system malfunction.

Answer 156

C. Flight control system malfunction. Answer (C) is correct. (NTSB 830.5) ( ? ) The NTSB must be notified immediately and by the most expeditious means possible when an aircraft accident or any of various listed incidents occurs or when an aircraft is overdue and believed to have been in an accident. The following are considered incidents: 1. Flight control system malfunction or failure 2. Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness 3. Failure of structural components of a turbine engine, excluding compressor and turbine blades and vanes 4. In-flight fire 5. Aircraft collision in flight

Question 157

If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer’s duties? A. The second-in-command only. B. Any flight crewmember, if qualified. C. Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.

Answer 157

B. Any flight crewmember, if qualified. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.385) ( ? ) On each flight requiring a flight engineer, at least one flight crewmember, other than the flight engineer, must be qualified to provide emergency performance of the flight engineer’s functions for the safe completion of the flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise incapacitated. A pilot need not hold a flight engineer’s certificate to perform the flight engineer’s functions in such a situation.

Question 158

The fuel reserve required for a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight in the 48 contiguous United States is A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. B. the fuel required to fly to the alternate, plus 10 percent. C. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Answer 158

A. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.643) ( ? ) Upon arrival at the most distant alternate airport during a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, a reciprocating-engine-powered supplemental air carrier airplane must have enough fuel to fly for 45 min. at normal cruising fuel consumption.

Question 159

The pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons from admittance to the flight deck A. except a FAA inspector doing enroute checks. B. except persons who have authorization from the certificate holder and the FAA or NTSB. C. in the interest of safety.

Answer 159

C. in the interest of safety. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.547) ( ? ) In the interest of safety, the pilot in command has emergency authority to exclude any and all persons, without exception, from admittance to the flight deck.

Question 160

Flight time hours for flightcrew members are limited to A. 100 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. B. 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. C. 80 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

Answer 160

A. 100 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.23) ( ? ) Note that this question is asking about flight time hours. No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew member’s total flight time will exceed 100 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

Question 161

An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated, A. at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform flight engineer duties. B. one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer. C. one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

Answer 161

A. at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform flight engineer duties. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.385) ( ? ) On each flight requiring a flight engineer, at least one flight crewmember, other than the flight engineer, must be qualified to provide emergency performance of the flight engineer’s functions for the safe completion of the flight if the flight engineer becomes ill or is otherwise incapacitated. A pilot need not hold a flight engineer’s certificate to perform the flight engineer’s functions in such a situation.

Question 162

What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace? A. Monitor the VOR receiver. B. Notify ATC immediately. C. Squawk 7600.

Answer 162

B. Notify ATC immediately. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.187) ( ? ) The pilot in command of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practicable to ATC any malfunction of navigational, approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight.

Question 163

The air carrier must give instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression to crewmembers serving on pressurized airplanes operated above A. FL 200. B. FL 180. C. FL 250.

Answer 163

C. FL 250. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.417) ( ? ) Crewmembers who serve in operations above FL 250 must receive instruction on such subjects as respiration, hypoxia, and decompression.

Question 164

A crewmember interphone system is required on which airplane? A. A large airplane. B. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats. C. A turbojet airplane.

Answer 164

B. An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.319) ( ? ) No person may operate an airplane with a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers unless the airplane is equipped with a crewmember interphone system.

Question 165

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flight crew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be A. locked at all times, except during any emergency declared by the pilot in command. B. latched open during takeoff and landing. C. unlocked during takeoff and landing.

Answer 165

B. latched open during takeoff and landing. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.310) ( ? ) If it is necessary to pass through a doorway separating the passenger cabin from other areas to reach any required emergency exit from any passenger seat, the door must have a means to latch it in open position, and the door must be latched open during each takeoff and landing.

Question 166

What is the lowest decision height for which a Category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization? A. 200 feet AGL. B. 100 feet AGL. C. 150 feet AGL.

Answer 166

C. 150 feet AGL. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 61.13) ( ? ) Upon original issuance of a Category II pilot authorization, the authorization contains a limitation for Category II operations of 1,600 ft. RVR (runway visual range) and a 150-ft. decision height.

Question 167

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative? A. Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing. B. The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and sunrise. C. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR.

Answer 167

C. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.611) ( ? ) The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or a certificate issued under Part 125 may conduct a ferry flight of an aircraft with one of its engines inoperative to a base for the purpose of repairing that engine only if the weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports are VFR.

Question 168

Which documents are required to be carried aboard each flag air carrier flight? A. Dispatch release, flight plan, and weight and balance release. B. Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. C. Load manifest, flight plan, and flight release.

Answer 168

B. Dispatch release, load manifest, and flight plan. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.695) ( ? ) The pilot in command of a flag air carrier airplane shall carry in the airplane to its destination a copy of the completed load manifest (or information from it, except information concerning cargo and passenger distribution), a copy of the dispatch release, and a copy of the flight plan.

Question 169

Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each A. passenger seat, plus 10 percent. B. seat on the aircraft. C. aircraft occupant.

Answer 169

C. aircraft occupant. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.340) ( ? ) No person may operate a large airplane in any overwater operation unless it is equipped with life preservers or with an approved flotation means for each airplane occupant.

Question 170

Flight duty period hours for flight crew members are limited to A. 180 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. B. 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. C. 170 hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

Answer 170

B. 190 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 117.23) ( ? ) Note that this question is asking about flight duty period hours. No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew member’s total flight duty period will exceed 60 flight duty period hours in any 168 consecutive hours and 190 flight duty period hours in any 672 consecutive hours.

Question 171

The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane’s ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of A. 14,000 feet within 4 minutes. B. 12,000 feet within 4 minutes or at a minimum rate of 2,500 ft/min, whichever is quicker. C. 10,000 feet within 4 minutes.

Answer 171

A. 14,000 feet within 4 minutes. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? ) The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL 250 is dependent upon the airplane’s ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of 14,000 ft. or less within 4 min.

Question 172

Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane? A. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation. B. Emergency equipment cannot be located in a compartment or area where it is not immediately visible to a flight attendant in the passenger compartment. C. All emergency equipment must be readily accessible to the passengers.

Answer 172

A. Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.309) ( ? ) All emergency equipment installed in an air carrier airplane must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

Question 173

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must A. be armed or turned on during taxiing and all flight operations. B. operate automatically when subjected to a negative G load. C. be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment.

Answer 173

C. be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.310) ( ? ) Interior emergency lights must be operable manually both from the flight crew compartment and from a point in the passenger compartment that is readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat.

Question 174

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an A. alternate airport. B. provisional airport. C. destination airport.

Answer 174

B. provisional airport. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 110.2) ( ? ) Provisional airport is defined as an airport approved by the Administrator (FAA) for use by a certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport used by the certificate holder is not available.

Question 175

The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during A. takeoff, cruise, and landing. B. taxiing, takeoff, cruise, and landing. C. taxiing, takeoff, and landing.

Answer 175

C. taxiing, takeoff, and landing. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.310) ( ? ) The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during taxiing, takeoff, and landing.

Question 176

Duty and rest period rules for domestic air carrier operations require that a flight crewmember A. not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. B. be relieved of all duty for at least 24 hours during any 7 consecutive days. C. not be on duty aloft for more than 100 hours in any 30-day period.

Answer 176

A. not be assigned to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.471) ( ? ) No domestic air carrier may assign any flight crewmember and no flight crewmember may accept assignment to any duty with the air carrier during any required rest period.

Question 177

An alternate airport for departure is required A. if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. B. when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the departure airport. C. when destination weather is marginal VFR (ceiling less than 3,000 feet and visibility less than 5 SM).

Answer 177

A. if weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at the departure airport. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.617) ( ? ) If the weather conditions at the departure airport are below the landing minimums in the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that airport, no person may dispatch or release an aircraft from that airport unless the dispatch or flight release specifies an alternate airport.

Question 178

Limiting flight time for all flightcrew members will include A. any flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager. B. flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager and any other commercial flight time. C. instruction flight hours, commercial flying, and flying for any certificate holder.

Answer 178

A. any flying by flightcrew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.23) ( ? ) The limitations of 14 CFR 117 include all flying by flightcrew members on behalf of any certificate holder or 91K Program Manager during the applicable periods.

Question 179

By regulation, who shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane information concerning weather, and irregularities of facilities and services? A. Director of operations. B. Air route traffic control center. C. The aircraft dispatcher.

Answer 179

C. The aircraft dispatcher. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.601) ( ? ) The aircraft dispatcher shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane all available current reports or information on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of the flight.

Question 180

When must an air carrier airplane be DME/suitable RNAV system equipped? A. Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required. B. In Class E airspace for all IFR or VFR on Top operations. C. For flights at or above FL 180.

Answer 180

A. Whenever VOR navigation equipment is required. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.349) ( ? ) If VOR navigation equipment is required, no aircraft may be operated unless it is equipped with at least one approved DME or suitable RNAV system.

Question 181

A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued A. an Air Carrier Certificate. B. a Supplemental Air Carrier Certificate. C. an Operating Certificate.

Answer 181

C. an Operating Certificate. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 119.5) ( ? ) A person who is not authorized to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator (FAA) to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued an Operating Certificate.

Question 182

(Refer to Table B.) For unaugmented flightcrew operations, your maximum flight duty period limit is A. 13 hours if assigned to report at 2030 for 3 flight segments. B. 13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight segments. C. 10.5 hours if assigned to report at 1730 for 6 flight segments. See figure 488

Answer 182

B. 13 hours if assigned to report at 0700 for 4 flight segments. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR Part 117, Table B) ( ? ) Find the “scheduled time of start” of 0700 on the left column of Table B and notice that 4 flight segments and 13 hours are allowed.

Question 183

The minimum weather conditions that must exist for an airport to be listed as an alternate in the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight are A. those listed on the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, from 1 hour before or after the ETA for that flight. B. those listed in the NOAA IAP charts for the alternate airport, at the time the flight is expected to arrive. C. those specified in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives.

Answer 183

C. those specified in the certificate holder’s Operations Specifications for that airport, when the flight arrives. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.625) ( ? ) No person may list an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release for domestic air carriers unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the weather conditions will be at or above the alternate weather minimums specified in the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that airport when the flight arrives.

Question 184

An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? A. A signal mirror and colored smoke flares. B. Survival kit for each passenger. C. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

Answer 184

C. An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.353) ( ? ) No airplane operated by a commercial operator may conduct operations over an uninhabited area or any other area that (the FAA specifies in its operations specifications) requires equipment for search and rescue in case of an emergency unless the airplane has an approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

Question 185

Where should the portable battery-powered megaphone be located if only one is required on a passenger-carrying airplane? A. In the cabin near the over-the-wing emergency exit. B. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin. C. The most forward location in the passenger cabin

Answer 185

B. The most rearward location in the passenger cabin. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.309) ( ? ) One megaphone is required on each airplane with a seating capacity of more than 60 and less than 100 passengers at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin, where it would be readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat.

Question 186

You are on a takeoff roll in a 14 CFR Part 25 certificated jet and see an engine fire warning light as you see V1 pass. You know you will now need more than the calculated distance to stop, so you A. continue the takeoff roll to the end of the runway to gain maximum speed before lifting off. B. abort the takeoff with a plan to use maximum reverse thrust to augment the braking action. C. continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the fire light as an in-flight emergency.

Answer 186

C. continue the takeoff as briefed and handle the fire light as an in-flight emergency. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? ) V1 means the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance. V1 also means the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance. As the question states, you have passed V1, therefore requiring more distance to stop. You would take off as briefed and land as soon as possible.

Question 187

An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hours when the visibility for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA at the destination airport is forecast to be A. 2 miles or greater. B. at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum. C. 3 miles.

Answer 187

B. at least 3 miles, or 2 miles more than the lowest applicable minimum. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.621) ( ? ) An alternate airport is not required to dispatch a flag air carrier airplane for a flight of less than 6 hr. when the visibility for at least 1 hr. before and 1 hr. after the ETA at the destination airport, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate the visibility at that airport will be at least 3 SM, or 2 SM more than the lowest applicable visibility minimums, whichever is greater, for the instrument approach procedures to be used at the destination airport.

Question 188

A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach? A. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. B. At the EFC time as amended by ATC. C. At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

Answer 188

A. At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.185) ( ? ) The radio failure was experienced before the pilot entered the holding pattern at the initial approach fix. Since the pilot would not have received an expect-further-clearance (EFC) time, (s)he should commence descent for the instrument approach as close as possible to the estimated time of arrival (ETA), as calculated from the filed or amended (with ATC) estimated time en route.

Question 189

Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing configuration? A. VS1. B. VS0. C. VS.

Answer 189

B. VS0. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? ) VS0 is the stalling speed, or the minimum steady flight speed, in the landing configuration.

Question 190

An air carrier airplane’s airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be A. carrying passengers, but not if it is “all cargo.” B. conducted IFR, and ATC is able to radar vector the flight around areas of weather. C. conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route.

Answer 190

C. conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.357) ( ? ) No person may dispatch an airplane (or begin the flight of an airplane in the case of an air carrier or commercial operator that does not use a dispatch system) under IFR or night VFR conditions when current weather reports indicate that thunderstorms, or other potentially hazardous weather conditions that can be detected with airborne weather radar, may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown, unless the airborne weather radar equipment is in satisfactory operating condition.

Question 191

A “calendar day” is A. a 24-hour period from 0000 to 2359 UTC or local time. B. 24 consecutive hours. C. a 24-hour consecutive period between Saturday and Sunday.

Answer 191

A. a 24-hour period from 0000 to 2359 UTC or local time. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.3) ( ? ) A calendar day means a 24-hour period from 0000 through 2359 using Coordinated Universal Time or local time.

Question 192

The information required in the flight release for supplemental air carriers and commercial operators that is not required in the dispatch release for flag and domestic air carriers is the A. names of all crewmembers. B. weather reports and forecasts. C. minimum fuel supply.

Answer 192

A. names of all crewmembers. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.689) ( ? ) Supplemental air carriers must include the name of each flight crewmember, flight attendant, and pilot designated as pilot in command in the flight release.

Question 193

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed? A. Only for takeoff and landing. B. For taxi, takeoff, and landing. C. During taxi, takeoff, landing, and after ditching.

Answer 193

B. For taxi, takeoff, and landing. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.310) ( ? ) Automatic deploying escape slide systems must be armed during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Question 194

To remain current as an aircraft dispatcher, a person must, in addition to other requirements, A. within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations in each type of airplane, in each group that he/she is to dispatch. B. within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatch. C. within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend 2.5 hours observing flight deck operations, plus two additional takeoffs and landings, in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatch.

Answer 194

B. within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight deck operations in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatch. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.463) ( ? ) No domestic or flag air carrier may use any person, nor may any person serve, as an aircraft dispatcher unless within the preceding 12 calendar months (s)he has satisfactorily completed operating familiarization consisting of at least 5 hr. observing flight deck operations in one of the types of airplanes in each airplane group (s)he is to dispatch.

Question 195

The pilot in command (PIC) of an aircraft must always A. abide by ATC instructions, even if the instructions do not make sense to the pilot. B. remember the PIC is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft in the air or on the ground. C. follow ATC instructions regardless of the PIC’s perceptions of the aircraft’s situation.

Answer 195

B. remember the PIC is the final authority as to the operation of the aircraft in the air or on the ground. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.3) ( ? ) The PIC of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.

Question 196

A domestic air carrier flight has a delay while on the ground, at an intermediate airport. How long before a redispatch release is required? A. Not more than 1 hour. B. Not more than 2 hours. C. More than 6 hours.

Answer 196

A. Not more than 1 hour. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.593) ( ? ) Except when a domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport specified in the original dispatch release and remains there for not more than 1 hr., no person may start a flight unless an aircraft dispatcher specifically authorizes that flight.

Question 197

Normally, a dispatcher for domestic or flag operations should be scheduled for no more than A. 8 hours of service in any 24 consecutive hours. B. 10 hours of duty in any 24 consecutive hours. C. 10 consecutive hours of duty.

Answer 197

C. 10 consecutive hours of duty. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.465) ( ? ) Except in cases in which circumstances or emergency conditions beyond the control of the air carrier require otherwise, no domestic or flag air carrier may schedule a dispatcher for more than 10 consecutive hr. of duty.

Question 198

An airport is not listed in a domestic Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications and does not have the prescribed takeoff weather minimums. What are the minimum weather conditions required for takeoff? A. 900-1. B. 1000-1/2. C. 800-2.

Answer 198

C. 800-2. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.637) ( ? ) No pilot may take off a domestic air carrier airplane from any U.S. airport that is not listed in the operations specifications unless the prescribed weather minimums for takeoff exist, or if minimums are not prescribed for the airport, the weather minimums of 800-2, 900-1 1/2, or 1,000-1 are met.

Question 199

A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within A. 15 seconds. B. 10 seconds. C. 5 seconds.

Answer 199

C. 5 seconds. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? ) It must be possible to place a quick-donning oxygen mask on the face from its ready position, properly sealed, secured, and supplying oxygen on demand, with one hand within 5 seconds.

Question 200

What are the line check requirements for a domestic air carrier pilot in command under 60 years of age? A. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. B. The line check is required every 12 months in each type aircraft in which the pilot may fly. C. The line check is required only when the pilot is scheduled to fly into special areas and airports.

Answer 200

A. The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplanes to be flown. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.440) ( ? ) No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as pilot in command of an airplane unless, within the preceding 12 calendar months, that person has passed a line check in which (s)he satisfactorily performed the duties and responsibilities of a pilot in command in one of the types of airplanes (s)he is to fly.

Question 201

Which is the correct symbol for design cruising speed? A. VC. B. VS. C. VA.

Answer 201

A. VC. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? ) VC is design cruising speed. Design cruising speed is established by the manufacturer and is used to define the flight envelope parameters in the aircraft certification.

Question 202

“Theater” means a geographical area in which the distance between the flightcrew member flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than A. 75 degrees longitude. B. 90 degrees longitude. C. 60 degrees longitude.

Answer 202

C. 60 degrees longitude. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.3) ( ? ) Theater refers to a geographical area in which the distance between the flight crewmember flight duty period departure point and arrival point differs by no more than 60 degrees longitude.

Question 203

A pilot in command operating under 14 CFR Part 121 must complete a proficiency check or simulator training within the preceding A. 6 calendar months. B. 24 calendar months. C. 12 calendar months.

Answer 203

A. 6 calendar months. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.441) ( ? ) A pilot in command must have completed a proficiency check within the preceding 12 calendar months and, in addition, within the preceding 6 calendar months, either a proficiency check or simulator training.

Question 204

The fuel reserve required for a turbine-engine-powered (other than turbopropeller) supplemental air carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is A. 30 minutes, over the airport, at 1,500 feet, at cruising speed. B. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. C. 2 hours at the normal cruise fuel consumption rate.

Answer 204

B. 30 minutes at holding speed, at 1,500 feet over the airport. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.645) ( ? ) The fuel reserve required for a supplemental air carrier turbojet airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the 48 contiguous United States is enough fuel to fly for 30 min. at holding speed at 1,500 ft. above the alternate airport under standard temperature conditions.

Question 205

An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it A. has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. B. weighs more than 12,500 pounds. C. has a seating capacity of 19 passengers.

Answer 205

A. has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.318) ( ? ) No person may operate an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of more than 19 passengers unless it is equipped with an operating public address system.

Question 206

The holder of an ATP certificate with restricted privileges or an ATP certificate who also holds an aircraft type rating for the aircraft to be flown may act as A. a PIC for a part 121 supplemental air carrier. B. a PIC for a part 121 air carrier with 500 hours as a part 121 SIC. C. an SIC for a part 121 air carrier.

Answer 206

C. an SIC for a part 121 air carrier. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.436) ( ? ) To serve as second-in-command in Part 121 operations, the pilot must hold a restricted ATP certificate with the appropriate aircraft type rating or hold an ATP certificate with the appropriate aircraft type rating.

Question 207

Under what conditions may an air carrier pilot continue an instrument approach to the DH, after receiving a weather report indicating that less than minimum published landing conditions exist at the airport? A. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach. B. When the weather report is received as the pilot passes the FAF. C. If the instrument approach is conducted in a radar environment.

Answer 207

A. When the weather report is received after the pilot has begun the final approach segment of the instrument approach. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.651) ( ? ) If a pilot has begun the final approach segment of a precision instrument approach procedure and after that receives a later weather report indicating below-minimum conditions, the pilot may continue the approach to the DH.

Question 208

After takeoff, unforeseen circumstances arise. In this case, the flight duty period may be extended by as much as A. necessary to reach the closest suitable alternate crew base airport. B. 2 hours. C. necessary to land at the next destination airport or alternate airport.

Answer 208

C. necessary to land at the next destination airport or alternate airport. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.19) ( ? ) For augmented and unaugmented operations, if unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff: The pilot in command and the certificate holder may extend maximum flight duty periods to the extent necessary to safely land the aircraft at the next destination airport or alternate airport, as appropriate.

Question 209

When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer? A. 80,000 pounds. B. 300,000 pounds. C. More than 80,000 pounds.

Answer 209

C. More than 80,000 pounds. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.387) ( ? ) No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which a type certificate was issued before January 2, 1964, having a maximum certificate takeoff weight of more than 80,000 lb., without a flight crewmember holding a current flight engineer certificate. For each airplane type certificated after January 1, 1964, the requirement for a flight engineer is determined under the type certification requirements.

Question 210

How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried? A. Two; one located near or accessible to the flight crew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin. B. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin. C. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.

Answer 210

C. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.309) ( ? ) Two megaphones are required in the passenger cabin on each airplane with a seating capacity of more than 99 passengers, one installed at the forward end and the other at the most rearward location, where it would be readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat.

Question 211

What is V2 speed? A. Takeoff decision speed. B. Minimum takeoff speed. C. Takeoff safety speed.

Answer 211

C. Takeoff safety speed. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? ) V2 is takeoff safety speed. Takeoff safety speed means a referenced airspeed obtained after liftoff at which the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved.

Question 212

Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the pilot in command has A. logged 100 hours’ flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR Part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. B. logged 90 hours’ flight time, 10 takeoffs and landings in make and model airplane and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, in operations under 14 CFR Parts 91 and 121. C. made at least six Category II approaches in actual IFR conditions with 100-foot DH within the preceding 12 calendar months.

Answer 212

A. logged 100 hours’ flight time in make and model airplane under 14 CFR Part 121 and three Category II ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.652) ( ? ) A Category II pilot authorization is issued as a part of the applicant’s instrument rating or airline transport pilot certificate. Upon original issue, the authorization contains a limitation for Category II operations of 1,600 ft. RVR and a 150-ft. decision height. This limitation is removed when the holder shows that, since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, (s)he has made three Category II ILS approaches to a landing under actual or simulated instrument conditions with a 150-ft. decision height. However, Category II minimums do not apply to air carrier operations until the pilot in command has served 100 hr. as pilot in command under 14 CFR Part 121 in the type of airplane (s)he is operating.

Question 213

A supplemental air carrier may schedule a pilot, on a three-pilot crew, for flight deck duty during any 24 consecutive-hour period for not more than A. 8 hours. B. 10 hours. C. 6 hours.

Answer 213

A. 8 hours. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.507) ( ? ) No supplemental air carrier may schedule a pilot for flight deck duty in an airplane that has a crew of three pilots for more than 8 hr. in any 24 consecutive hr.

Question 214

If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the Administrator within A. 48 hours. B. 7 days. C. 5 days.

Answer 214

C. 5 days. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.575) ( ? ) Each certificate holder shall, within 5 days after the incident, report to the FAA Administrator any disturbance caused by a person who appears to be intoxicated aboard any of its aircraft.

Question 215

What information must be included on a domestic air carrier dispatch release? A. Minimum fuel supply and trip number. B. Company or organization name and identification number of the aircraft. C. Evidence that the airplane is loaded according to schedule, and a statement of the type of operation.

Answer 215

A. Minimum fuel supply and trip number. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.687) ( ? ) The dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight may be in any form but must contain at least the following information concerning each flight: (1) identification number of the aircraft; (2) trip number; (3) departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airports, and alternate airports; (4) a statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR); (5) minimum fuel supply; and (6) current weather information.

Question 216

With regard to flight crewmember duties, which of the following operations are considered to be in the “critical phase of flight”? A. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, including cruise flight. B. Descent, approach, landing, and taxi operations, irrespective of altitudes MSL. C. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight.

Answer 216

C. Taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other operations conducted below 10,000 feet, excluding cruise flight. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.542) ( ? ) No flight crewmember may perform any duties during a critical phase of flight except those duties required for the safe operation of the aircraft. The critical phases of flight include all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 ft., except cruise flight.

Question 217

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard? A. Five. B. Seven. C. Six.

Answer 217

B. Seven. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.391) ( ? ) The number of required flight attendants is based upon passenger seating capacity, not the number of passengers on a given flight. A seating capacity of 51 to 100 requires two flight attendants, after which, one flight attendant is required for each unit (or partial unit) of 50 seats. A seating capacity of 333 requires seven flight attendants.

Question 218

Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information? A. Aircraft dispatcher. B. Company meteorologist. C. Director of operations.

Answer 218

A. Aircraft dispatcher. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.601) ( ? ) The aircraft dispatcher shall provide the pilot in command of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane with all available weather reports and forecasts of weather phenomena that may affect the safety of flight, including adverse weather phenomena, such as clear air turbulence, thunderstorms, and low-altitude wind shear, for each route to be flown and each airport to be used.

Question 219

If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken? A. Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top. B. Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight. C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance

Answer 219

C. Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.185) ( ? ) If two-way radio communications failure occurs in IFR weather conditions and the pilot is being vectored by ATC, the pilot should proceed by the direct route from the point of radio failure to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

Question 220

An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? A. Survival kit for each passenger. B. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. C. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror.

Answer 220

B. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.353) ( ? ) No supplemental air carrier may conduct an operation over an uninhabited area or any other area that (the FAA specifies in its operations specifications) requires equipment for search and rescue in case of an emergency unless the airplane has suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.

Question 221

Which passenger announcement(s) must be made after each takeoff? A. Keep safety belts fastened while seated and no smoking in the aircraft lavatories. B. How to use the passenger oxygen system and that there is a $1,000 fine for tampering with a smoke detector. C. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated.

Answer 221

C. Passengers should keep seat belts fastened while seated. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.571) ( ? ) After each takeoff, immediately before or immediately after turning the seat belt sign off, an announcement shall be made that passengers should keep their seat belts fastened, while seated, even when the seat belt sign is off.

Question 222

While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC? A. DME. B. One engine, on a multiengine aircraft. C. Airborne radar.

Answer 222

A. DME. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.349) ( ? ) If the DME becomes inoperative en route while in controlled airspace, the pilot shall notify ATC of that failure as soon as it occurs.

Question 223

What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure? A. Fly the most direct route to the destination, maintaining the last assigned altitude or MEA, whichever is higher. B. Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA’s along the clearance route. C. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA.

Answer 223

C. Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.185) ( ? ) If radio communications failure occurs in IFR conditions and a clearance has been received, the pilot should fly the route assigned in the last ATC clearance and the highest of either the assigned altitude, MEA, or altitude to be expected when informed by ATC.

Question 224

At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated within Class D airspace? A. 200 knots. B. 156 knots. C. 180 knots.

Answer 224

A. 200 knots. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.117) ( ? ) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft at or below 2,500 ft. AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kt.

Question 225

A pilot flight crewmember, other than pilot in command, must have received a proficiency check or line-oriented simulator training within the preceding A. 12 calendar months. B. 6 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months.

Answer 225

C. 24 calendar months. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.441) ( ? ) No certificate holder may use any person, nor may any person serve, as a required pilot flight crewmember other than a pilot in command unless that person has satisfactorily completed within the preceding 24 calendar months either a proficiency check or the line-oriented simulator training course.

Question 226

An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment? A. Colored smoke flares and a signal mirror. B. Survival kit for each passenger. C. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.

Answer 226

C. Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.353) ( ? ) No flag air carrier may conduct an operation over an uninhabited area or any other area that (the FAA specifies in its operations specifications) requires equipment for search and rescue in case of an emergency unless the airplane has suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.

Question 227

A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1815Z. The latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is A. 1915Z. B. 1945Z. C. 1845Z.

Answer 227

Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.593) ( ? ) A domestic air carrier airplane may remain on the ground at an intermediate airport specified in the original dispatch release for not more than 1 hr. before a redispatch release is required. Thus, if the airplane lands at 1815Z, the latest time it may depart without a specific authorization from an aircraft dispatcher is 1915Z.

Question 228

What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? A. If the aircraft is equipped with other radios suitable for executing an instrument approach, no further action is necessary. B. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. C. Continue as cleared and file a written report to the Administrator if requested.

Answer 228

B. Report the malfunction immediately to ATC. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.187) ( ? ) The pilot in command of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report as soon as practicable to ATC any malfunction of navigational, approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight.

Question 229

When carrying a passenger aboard an all-cargo aircraft, which of the following applies? A. The passenger must have access to a seat in the pilot compartment. B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. C. Crew-type oxygen must be provided for the passenger.

Answer 229

B. The pilot in command may authorize the passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.583) ( ? ) The pilot in command may authorize a passenger to be admitted to the crew compartment of an all-cargo airplane.

Question 230

What is meant by the term “sterile cockpit concept”? A. A security policy requiring cockpit doors to be locked and passengers seated during the first and last 30 minutes of flight. B. Maintaining cockpit silence other than reading the checklist during taxi, takeoff, landing, approach briefing and operations below 10,000 feet other than cruise flight. C. Not engaging in any activity during a critical phase of flight that could interfere with the required duties of a crewmember for the safe operation of the aircraft.

Answer 230

C. Not engaging in any activity during a critical phase of flight that could interfere with the required duties of a crewmember for the safe operation of the aircraft. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.542) ( ? ) No flight crewmember may engage in, and no pilot in command may permit, any activity during a critical phase of flight that could distract any flight crewmember from the performance of his or her duties or that could interfere in any way with the proper conduct of those duties.

Question 231

Which of the following meets the requirements of a “serious injury” as defined by the NTSB? A. An injury which caused severe tendon damage. B. First-degree burns over 5 percent of the body. C. A simple fracture of the nose or other extremity.

Answer 231

A. An injury which caused severe tendon damage. Answer (A) is correct. (NTSB 830.2) ( ? ) Serious injury means any injury that (1) requires hospitalization for more than 48 hr., commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received; (2) results in a fracture in any bone (except simple fractures of the fingers, toes, or nose); (3) causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage; (4) involves any internal organ; or (5) involves second- or third-degree burns, or any burns covering more than 5% of the body surface.

Question 232

Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining A. possible causes of accidents or incidents. B. evidence for use in civil penalty or certificate action. C. who was responsible for any accident or incident.

Answer 232

A. possible causes of accidents or incidents. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.609) ( ? ) Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders is used to assist in determining the cause of accidents or occurrences in connection with investigations under NTSB Part 830. The FAA does not use the cockpit voice recorder for any civil penalty or certificate action.

Question 233

When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage? A. The baggage must remain locked and stored where it would be inaccessible, and custody of the key shall remain with a designated crewmember. B. The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. C. The baggage may be carried in the flightcrew compartment, provided the baggage remains locked, and the key is given to the pilot in command.

Answer 233

B. The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key. Answer (B) is correct. (49 CFR 1540.111) ( ? ) When a passenger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in his or her baggage, that baggage must remain locked, and only the passenger who checked the baggage may retain the key or combination. The baggage containing the weapon is carried in an area, other than the flight crew compartment, that is inaccessible to passengers.

Question 234

The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol A. V1. B. V2MIN. C. VLOF.

Answer 234

A. V1. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? ) V1 is the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance

Question 235

How long shall a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan? A. 12 months. B. 1 month. C. 3 months.

Answer 235

C. 3 months. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.697) ( ? ) A supplemental air carrier shall retain a record of the load manifest, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, flight release, and flight plan for at least 3 months.

Question 236

When a flag air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1822Z, what is the latest time it may continue a flight without receiving a redispatch authorization? A. 0022Z. B. 1922Z. C. 1952Z.

Answer 236

A. 0022Z. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.595) ( ? ) A flag air carrier airplane may continue a flight from an intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane has been on the ground not more than 6 hr. Thus, if the flight lands at 1822Z, the latest time it may depart without being redispatched is 0022Z.

Question 237

Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage? A. Immediately. B. 10 days. C. 7 calendar days.

Answer 237

A. Immediately. Answer (A) is correct. (NTSB 830.5) ( ? ) The NTSB must be notified immediately and by the most expeditious means possible when an aircraft accident, which results in substantial damage, or any of various listed incidents occurs or when an aircraft is overdue and believed to have been in an accident.

Question 238

Except when in cruise flight, below what altitude are nonsafety-related cockpit activities by flight crewmembers prohibited? A. 14,500 feet. B. 10,000 feet. C. FL 180.

Answer 238

B. 10,000 feet. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.542) ( ? ) No flight crewmember may perform any nonsafety-related cockpit duties during the critical phase of flight. The critical phases of flight include all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 ft., except in cruise flight.

Question 239

The North Polar Area (of operations) means the A. entire area north of 70° N latitude. B. entire area north of 78° N latitude. C. entire area north of 60° N latitude.

Answer 239

B. entire area north of 78° N latitude. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.7) ( ? ) In 14 CFR 121.7, the North Polar Area is defined as the entire area north of 78° N latitude.

Question 240

Which of the following constitutes “substantial damage” according to NTSB Part 830? A. Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement. B. Ground damage to landing gear, wheels, or tires. C. Damage to wingtips (or rotor blades, in the case of a helicopter).

Answer 240

A. Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement. Answer (A) is correct. (NTSB 830.2) ( ? ) Substantial damage means damage or failure that adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft and requires major repair or replacement of the affected component.

Question 241

Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine? A. No passengers may be carried. B. The existing and forecast weather for departure, en route, and approach must be VFR. C. The computed takeoff distance to reach V1 must not exceed 70 percent of the effective runway length.

Answer 241

A. No passengers may be carried. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.611) ( ? ) The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or a certificate issued under Part 125 may conduct a ferry flight of an aircraft with one of its turbine engines inoperative to a base for the purpose of repairing that engine with only the required flight crewmembers on board the airplane. No passengers may be carried.

Question 242

“Physiological night’s rest” means A. 12 hours of rest that encompasses any continuous 8-hour period for uninterrupted or disturbed rest. B. 9 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base. C. 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base.

Answer 242

C. 10 hours of rest that encompasses the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the crewmember’s home base. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.3) ( ? ) Physiological night’s rest is 10 hours of rest that must encompass the hours of 0100 and 0700 at the acclimated location, unless the flightcrew member has acclimated to a different theater.

Question 243

When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within A. 10 days after returning home. B. 10 days after the deviation. C. 10 days after returning to home base.

Answer 243

C. 10 days after returning to home base. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.557) ( ? ) When the pilot in command declares an emergency and is responsible for a deviation during that emergency, the pilot should submit a report, through the air carrier’s operations manager, to the FAA within 10 days after returning to his or her home base.

Question 244

Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch or flight release, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport A. when the flight arrives. B. for a period 1 hour before or after the ETA. C. during the entire flight.

Answer 244

A. when the flight arrives. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.625) ( ? ) No person may list an airport as an alternate in the dispatch or flight release unless the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination thereof, indicate that the conditions will be at or above the alternate weather minimums specified in the certificate holder’s operations specifications for that airport when the flight arrives.

Question 245

When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-the-top on “victor airways,” which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate? A. ADF. B. VOR and DME. C. VOR.

Answer 245

C. VOR. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.349) ( ? ) No person may operate an airplane under IFR or over-the-top on VHF (victor) airways unless the airplane is equipped with that radio equipment necessary to receive satisfactorily, by either of two independent systems, radio navigational signals from all primary en route and approach navigational facilities intended to be used, which are VOR/VORTAC stations. Equipment provided to receive signals en route may be used to receive signals on approach, if it is capable of receiving both signals.

Question 246

For flights above which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes? A. 16,000 feet. B. 15,000 feet. C. 14,000 feet.

Answer 246

B. 15,000 feet. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.327, 121.329) ( ? ) For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 ft., there must be enough oxygen available for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes.

Question 247

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace? A. 250 knots. B. 180 knots. C. 230 knots.

Answer 247

A. 250 knots. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.117) ( ? ) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kt.

Question 248

When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat? A. Only during the en route flight. B. During all operations except the takeoff and landing portion of a flight. C. When one is an adult and one is a child under 3 years of age.

Answer 248

A. Only during the en route flight. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.311) ( ? ) Two persons occupying a berth may share one approved safety belt and two persons occupying a multiple lounge or divan seat may share one approved safety belt during en route flight only.

Question 249

For a short-call reserve, the reserve availability period may not exceed A. 14 hours. B. 12 hours. C. 16 hours.

Answer 249

A. 14 hours. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.21) ( ? ) Short-call reserve availability period may not exceed 14 hours.

Question 250

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727 operate within Class B airspace without special ATC authorization? A. 230 knots. B. 250 knots. C. 275 knots.

Answer 250

B. 250 knots. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.117) ( ? ) Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in Class B airspace at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kt.

Question 251

When the forecast weather conditions for a destination and alternate airport are considered marginal for a domestic air carrier’s operation, what specific action should the dispatcher or pilot in command take? A. List an airport where the forecast weather is not marginal as the alternate. B. List at least one additional alternate airport. C. Add 1 additional hour of fuel based on cruise power settings for the airplane in use.

Answer 251

B. List at least one additional alternate airport. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.619) ( ? ) No person may dispatch a domestic air carrier airplane under IFR or over-the-top unless (s)he lists at least one alternate airport for each destination airport in the dispatch release. When the weather conditions forecast for the destination and first alternate are marginal, at least one additional alternate airport must be designated.

Question 252

A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional flight crewmember, for no more than A. 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours. B. 8 hours during any 12 consecutive hours. C. 10 hours during any 12 consecutive hours.

Answer 252

A. 12 hours during any 24 consecutive hours. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.483) ( ? ) A flag air carrier may not schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane that has a crew of two pilots and at least one additional flight crewmember for more than 12 hr. during any 24 consecutive hr.

Question 253

When a pilot’s flight time consists of 80 hours pilot in command in a particular type airplane, how does this affect the minimums for the destination airport? A. Has no effect on destination but alternate minimums are no less than 300 feet and 1 statute mile. B. Minimums are decreased by 100 feet and 1/2 statute mile. C. Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 statute mile.

Answer 253

C. Minimums are increased by 100 feet and 1/2 statute mile. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.652) ( ? ) If the pilot in command of an airplane has not served 100 hr. as pilot in command in operations under 14 CFR Part 121 in the type of airplane, the minimums for the destination airport are increased by 100 ft. and 1/2 SM (or an RVR of 2,400).

Question 254

The maximum flight time in 24 consecutive hours that a flag air carrier may schedule a pilot in a two-pilot crew without a rest period is A. 8 hours. B. 10 hours. C. 12 hours.

Answer 254

A. 8 hours. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.481) ( ? ) A flag air carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane that has a crew of one or two pilots for 8 hr. or less during any 24 consecutive hr. without a rest period during these 8 hr.

Question 255

You are traveling deadhead to or from a duty assignment. How does this affect the computation of flight time limits for air carrier flight crewmembers? It is A. considered part of the rest period for flight crewmembers. B. not considered to be part of a rest period. C. considered part of the rest period if the flightcrew includes more than two pilots.

Answer 255

B. not considered to be part of a rest period. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.491) ( ? ) For the computation of flight time limits for a flag air carrier flight crewmember, time spent in deadhead transportation to or from a duty assignment is not considered to be a part of a rest period.

Question 256

When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB? A. Only if requested to do so by the NTSB. B. Within 10 days. C. Within 7 days.

Answer 256

A. Only if requested to do so by the NTSB. Answer (A) is correct. (NTSB 830.15) ( ? ) The operator of an aircraft shall file a report on NTSB Form 6120.1 or Form 7120.2 on an incident for which notification is required only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

Question 257

ETOPS entry points mean the first entry point on the route of flight of an ETOPS flight using one-engine-inoperative cruise speed that is more than A. 207 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having more than two engines. B. 90 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines. C. 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines.

Answer 257

C. 60 minutes from an adequate airport for airplanes having two engines. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.7) ( ? ) An ETOPS entry point is the point at which the airplane is farther than a distance of 60 minutes flying time with one engine inoperative from an emergency or diversion airport that is adequate for an airplane with two engines.

Question 258

A function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate instruments or equipment which A. are required to be operative for overwater passenger air carrier flights. B. may be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. C. may be inoperative for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base.

Answer 258

B. may be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.213) ( ? ) A function of an approved minimum equipment list (MEL) is to indicate the instruments and/or equipment which may be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft and to state under what conditions the flight can be operated with that inoperative equipment.

Question 259

A person whose duties include the handling of hazardous materials must have satisfactorily completed an approved training program within the preceding A. 12 calendar months. B. 6 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months.

Answer 259

C. 24 calendar months. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.1005) ( ? ) A person whose duties include the handling of hazardous materials must have satisfactorily completed an FAA-approved initial or recurrent hazardous materials training program within the preceding 24 months.

Question 260

Who is responsible for obtaining information on all current airport conditions, weather, and irregularities of navigation facilities for a supplemental air carrier flight? A. Aircraft dispatcher. B. Director of operations or flight follower. C. Pilot in command.

Answer 260

C. Pilot in command. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.603) ( ? ) Before beginning a flight, each pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier airplane shall obtain all available current weather reports or information on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of the flight.

Question 261

For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders not be used? A. Identifying procedures that may have been conducive to any accident, or occurrence resulting in investigation under NTSB Part 830. B. Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence. C. Determining causes of accidents and occurrences under investigation by the NTSB.

Answer 261

B. Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.609) ( ? ) Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders is used to assist in determining the cause of accidents or occurrences in connection with investigations under NTSB Part 830. The FAA does not use the cockpit voice recorder for any civil penalty or certificate action.

Question 262

A person may not file for RVSM clearance unless A. the aircraft can maintain FL440 or FL450. B. the operator is authorized and the aircraft has been approved. C. the pilots have been briefed on RVSM procedures.

Answer 262

B. the operator is authorized and the aircraft has been approved. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.180) ( ? ) Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) airspace requires special qualifications. The operator and the aircraft used by the operator must be approved by the Administrator.

Question 263

Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment? A. International Aeronautical Information Manual. B. Certificate holder’s Operations Specifications. C. International Notices to Airmen.

Answer 263

B. Certificate holder’s Operations Specifications. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.389) ( ? ) Routes that require special navigation equipment are listed in the certificate holder’s operations specifications.

Question 264

A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above A. FL 200. B. FL 240. C. FL 250.

Answer 264

C. FL 250. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? ) Before flight is conducted above FL 250, a crewmember shall instruct the passengers on the necessity of using oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization and shall point out to them the location and demonstrate the use of the oxygen-dispensing equipment.

Question 265

Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel? A. No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts. B. The person in custody must be seated between the escort and the aisle. C. The air carrier is not allowed to serve beverages to the person in custody or the law enforcement escort.

Answer 265

A. No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts. Answer (A) is correct. (49 CFR 1544.221) ( ? ) No more than one person who the certificate holder has been notified is in a maximum risk category may be carried on the airplane, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts.

Question 266

If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask? A. FL 300. B. FL 200. C. FL 250.

Answer 266

C. FL 250. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? ) If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning-type oxygen masks, the maximum altitude authorized without one pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask is FL 250.

Question 267

What action is required prior to takeoff if snow is adhering to the wings of an air carrier airplane? A. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. B. Add 15 knots to the normal VR speed as the snow will blow off. C. Sweep off as much snow as possible and the residue must be polished smooth.

Answer 267

A. Assure that the snow is removed from the airplane. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.629) ( ? ) No person may take off an air carrier airplane unless it has been checked to ensure that the snow has been removed from the wings.

Question 268

Flight duty period hours for flightcrew members are limited to A. 70 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. B. 100 hours in any 672 consecutive hours. C. 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.

Answer 268

C. 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.23) ( ? ) Note that this question is asking about flight duty period hours. No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew member’s total Flight Duty Period will exceed 60 flight duty period hours in any 168 consecutive hours.

Question 269

When a departure alternate is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than A. 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative. B. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air. C. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not functioning.

Answer 269

C. 2 hours from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine not functioning. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.617) ( ? ) When a departure alternate airport is required for a three-engine air carrier flight, it must be located at a distance not greater than 2 hr. from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

Question 270

What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot to re-establish recency of experience? A. At least one landing must be made from a circling approach. B. At least one precision approach must be made to the lowest minimums authorized for the certificate holder. C. At least one full stop landing must be made.

Answer 270

C. At least one full stop landing must be made. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.439) ( ? ) A required pilot flight crewmember who has not made three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days must re-establish recency of experience as follows: Under the supervision of a check airman, make at least three takeoffs and landings in the type airplane in which that person is to serve or in an advanced simulator or visual simulator, 1. At least one takeoff with a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant 2. At least one landing from an ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimum authorized for the certificate holder 3. At least one landing to a full stop

Question 271

When a pilot plans a flight using GPS NAVAIDs, which rule applies? A. The pilot must be able to return to the departure airport using other navigation radios anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds. B. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. C. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDs, to a suitable airport and land anywhere along the route with 150% of the forecast headwinds.

Answer 271

B. The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.349) ( ? ) The pertinent regulation that governs flight planning as described in this question requires that the airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed safely to a suitable airport by using the remaining navigation system, and complete an instrument approach and land.

Question 272

Required aeronautical data for the approval of ETOPS routes beyond 180 minutes or operations in the North and South Polar areas must include A. runways for diversion operations and maintenance facilities. B. pertinent NOTAMs. C. facilities at each airport or in the immediate area sufficient to protect the passengers from the elements and to see to their welfare.

Answer 272

C. facilities at each airport or in the immediate area sufficient to protect the passengers from the elements and to see to their welfare. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.97) ( ? ) Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show that it has an approved system for obtaining, maintaining, and distributing to appropriate personnel current aeronautical data for each airport it uses to ensure a safe operation at that airport. For ETOPS beyond 180 minutes or operations in the North and South Polar areas, this aeronautical data must include, for the protection of the public, facilities at each airport or in the immediate area sufficient to protect the passengers from the elements and to see to their welfare.

Question 273

(Refer to Table A.) In an airplane with a minimum flight crew of two assigned, your flight time may not exceed A. 9 hours if assigned to report at 2030. B. 9 hours if assigned to report at 0500. C. 9 hours if assigned to report at 0330. See figure 488

Answer 273

B. 9 hours if assigned to report at 0500. Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR Part 117, Table A) ( ? ) Refer to Fig. 488, Table A. Locate 0500-1959. If assigned to report at 0500 hours, the maximum flight time may not exceed 9 hours.

Question 274

Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB? A. 3 days. B. 7 days. C. 10 days.

Answer 274

C. 10 days. Answer (C) is correct. (NTSB 830.15) ( ? ) The operator of an aircraft shall file a report on NTSB Form 6120.1 or Form 7120.2 within 10 days after an accident.

Question 275

The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the A. application submitted for an Air Carrier or Operating Certificate, by the applicant. B. Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate. C. certificate holder’s operations specifications.

Answer 275

C. certificate holder’s operations specifications. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 119.49) ( ? ) The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the certificate holder’s operations specifications, i.e., domestic, flag, supplemental, commuter, or on-demand operations.

Question 276

What is the name of an area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft? A. Clearway. B. Obstruction clearance plane. C. Stopway.

Answer 276

A. Clearway. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 1.1) ( ? ) A clearway is an area beyond the runway, not less than 500 ft. wide, centrally located about the extended centerline of the runway and under the control of the airport authorities. The clearway is expressed in terms of a clearway plane, extending from the end of the runway with an upward slope not exceeding 1.25%, above which no object or terrain protrudes. However, threshold lights may protrude above the plane if their height above the end of the runway is 26 in. or less and if they are located on each side of the runway.