Regulations Flashcards
What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carry to the destination airport?
A. Cargo and passenger distribution information.
B. Copy of the flight plan.
C. Names of all crewmembers and designated pilot in command.
B. Copy of the flight plan.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.697) ( ? )
The pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight shall carry in the airplane to its destination the original or signed copy of the load manifest, flight release, airworthiness release, pilot route certification, and flight plan.
Upon arriving at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turbopropeller flag air carrier airplane?
A. 90 minutes at holding altitude and speed fuel consumption or 30 minutes plus 15 percent of cruise fuel consumption, whichever is less.
B. 45 minutes at holding altitude.
C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.
C. 30 minutes plus 15 percent of the total time required, or 90 minutes at normal cruise, whichever is less.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.641) ( ? )
No person may dispatch or take off a turbopropeller-powered airplane unless, considering the wind and other weather conditions expected, it has enough fuel to (1) fly to and land at the airport to which it is dispatched; (2) fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport specified in the dispatch release; and (3) thereafter fly for 30 min. plus 15% of the total time required to fly at normal cruising fuel consumption to the airports specified above or for 90 min. at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.
Before requesting RVSM clearance, each person
A. should file for odd altitudes only.
B. must file an ICAO RVSM flight plan.
C. shall correctly annotate the flight plan.
C. shall correctly annotate the flight plan.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR Part 91, App G) ( ? )
Each person requesting a clearance to operate within RVSM airspace shall correctly annotate the flight plan filed with air traffic control with the status of the operation and aircraft with regard to RVSM approval.
When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an uninhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?
A. One for each passenger, plus 10 percent.
B. One for each occupant of the aircraft.
C. One for each passenger seat.
B. One for each occupant of the aircraft.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.353) ( ? )
No supplemental air carrier may conduct an operation over an uninhabited area or any other area that (the FAA specifies in its operations specifications) requires equipment for search and rescue in case of an emergency unless it has enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown, for the number of occupants of the airplane.
The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of the RVR value?
A. 5/8 SM.
B. 3/8 SM.
C. 3/4 SM.
A. 5/8 SM.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.175) ( ? )
If RVR (runway visual range) minimums for takeoff or landing are prescribed in an instrument approach procedure, but RVR is not reported for the runway of intended operation, the RVR minimum shall be converted to ground visibility. An RVR of 32 is equivalent to 5/8 SM visibility.
An example of air carrier experience a pilot may use towards the 1,000 hours required to serve as PIC in part 121 is flight time as an SIC
A. in part 91, subpart K operations.
B. in part 121 operations.
C. in part 135 operations.
B. in part 121 operations.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.436) ( ? )
On July 7, 2013, the FAA released the Final Rule for pilot certification and qualification requirements for air carrier operations. Prior to serving as pilot in command, a pilot must have 1,000 hours of air carrier experience.
A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of
A. obtaining provisions and fuel when unable, due to winds, to proceed direct to the regular airport.
B. having the aircraft catered (foods, beverages, or supplies).
C. providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.
C. providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 110.2) ( ? )
A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator (FAA) for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport used by the certificate holder is unavailable.
The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers include
A. only commercial flying in any flight crewmember position in which 14 CFR Part 121 operations are conducted.
B. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
C. all flight time, except military, in any flight crewmember position.
B. all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.517) ( ? )
The flight time limitations established for flight crewmembers employed by a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator include all commercial flying in any flight crewmember position.
When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?
A. 120 days after issue or renewal.
B. When three Category II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.
C. When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landings have been completed in the past 6 months.
B. When three Category II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 61.13) ( ? )
The Category II limitation is removed when the holder shows that, since the beginning of the sixth preceding month, (s)he has made three Category II ILS approaches with a 150-ft. decision height to a landing under actual or simulated instrument conditions.
An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?
A. VOR and ILS.
B. VOR and DME.
C. VOR.
C. VOR.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.349) ( ? )
No person may operate an airplane in VFR over-the-top conditions unless the airplane is equipped with the radio navigation equipment necessary to receive satisfactorily, by either of two independent systems, radio navigation signals from all primary en route and approach facilities intended to be used. Of the choices provided, only the VOR is required to be a dual installation.
Which documents are required to be carried aboard each domestic air carrier flight?
A. Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.
B. Dispatch release and weight and balance release.
C. Load manifest (or information from it) and flight release.
A. Dispatch release, load manifest (or information from it), and flight plan.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.695) ( ? )
The pilot in command of a domestic air carrier airplane shall carry in the airplane to its destination a copy of the completed load manifest (or information from it, except information concerning cargo and passenger distribution), a copy of the dispatch release, and a copy of the flight plan.
The training required by flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group (e.g., turbojet powered) is
A. upgrade training.
B. transition training.
C. initial training.
C. initial training.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.400) ( ? )
Initial training is required for flight crewmembers who have not qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group.
For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in airport/standby reserve time is
A. not part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period.
B. part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period.
C. part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period after being alerted for flight assignment.
B. part of the flightcrew member’s flight duty period.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 117.3) ( ? )
“Airport/standby reserve” means a defined duty period during which a flightcrew member is required by a certificate holder to be at an airport for a possible assignment. A flight duty period includes the duties performed by the flightcrew member on behalf of the certificate holder that occur before a flight segment or between flight segments without a required intervening rest period. Examples of tasks that are part of the flight duty period include deadhead transportation, training conducted in an aircraft or flight simulator, and airport/standby reserve, if the above tasks occur before a flight segment or between flight segments without an intervening required rest period.
When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman’s medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?
A. 90 days.
B. 60 days.
C. 30 days.
B. 60 days.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 61.29) ( ? )
A person who has lost an airman certificate or medical certificate may obtain a fax from the FAA confirming that it was issued. The fax may be carried as a certificate for a period not to exceed 60 days pending his or her receipt of a duplicate certificate.
Which is one of the requirements that must be met by a required pilot flight crewmember in re-establishing recency of experience?
A. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach.
B. At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine.
C. At least three landings must be made to a complete stop.
A. At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.439) ( ? )
A required pilot flight crewmember who has not made three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days must re-establish recency of experience as follows: Under the supervision of a check airman, make at least three takeoffs and landings in the type airplane in which that person is to serve or in an advanced simulator or visual simulator,
1.
At least one takeoff with a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant
2.
At least one landing from an ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimum authorized for the certificate holder
3.
At least one landing to a full stop
The required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by the
A. pilot in command.
B. air carrier’s chief pilot.
C. certificate holder.
C. certificate holder.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.397) ( ? )
The certificate holder must assign the required crewmember functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency.
Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the
A. International Flight Information Manual.
B. Airplane Flight Manual.
C. Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications.
C. Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.389) ( ? )
Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the air carrier’s operations specifications.
The persons jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier or commercial operator flight are the
A. pilot in command and the flight follower.
B. pilot in command and director of operations.
C. pilot in command and chief pilot.
B. pilot in command and director of operations.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.537) ( ? )
The pilot in command and the director of operations are jointly responsible for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a supplemental air carrier flight. The director of operations may delegate the functions for the initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination of a flight, but (s)he may not delegate the responsibility for those functions.
What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons?
A. Three.
B. Two.
C. Four.
B. Two.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? )
There must be a minimum of two acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupants who might require undiluted oxygen for physiological reasons.
When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?
A. When priority has been given.
B. Anytime an emergency occurs.
C. When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.
A. When priority has been given.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.123) ( ? )
Each pilot in command who is given priority by ATC in an emergency shall submit a detailed report of that emergency within 48 hr. to the manager of that ATC facility, if requested by ATC.
If a domestic or flag air carrier schedules a dispatcher for 13 hours of duty in a 24-consecutive-hour period, what action is required?
A. The dispatcher should be given a rest period of 24 hours at the end of the 13 hours.
B. The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty.
C. The dispatcher should refuse to be on duty 13 hours as 121.465(1) limits the duty period to 10 consecutive hours.
B. The dispatcher should be given a rest period of at least 8 hours at or before the completion of 10 hours of duty.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.465) ( ? )
If a domestic or flag air carrier schedules a dispatcher for more than 10 hr. of duty in 24 consecutive hr., the carrier must provide the dispatcher a rest period of at least 8 hr. at or before the end of 10 hr. of duty.
Flightcrew member’s flight duty periods are limited to
A. 60 hours in any 7 days.
B. 70 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.
C. 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.
C. 60 hours in any 168 consecutive hours.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.23) ( ? )
No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the flightcrew member’s total flight duty period will exceed:
1.
60 flight duty period hours in any 168 consecutive hours or
2.
190 flight duty period hours in any 672 consecutive hours.
A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?
A. A minimum of 1 hour.
B. Notification is not required, if the certificate holder has a security coordinator.
C. A minimum of 2 hours.
A. A minimum of 1 hour.
Answer (A) is correct. (49 CFR 1540.111) ( ? )
Except in an emergency, a certificate holder should be notified at a minimum of 1 hr. before the flight on which a person who is specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard that aircraft.
What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for
A. 10 percent of the passengers for 30 minutes.
B. 30 percent of the passengers.
C. each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.
C. each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.329) ( ? )
For flights at cabin pressure altitudes above 15,000 ft. in a turbine-powered airplane, there must be enough oxygen available for each passenger carried during the entire flight at those altitudes.
How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?
A. A minimum of 2-hours’ supply.
B. Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude.
C. Sufficient for the duration of the flight at 10,000 feet flight altitude, not to exceed 1 hour and 50 minutes.
A. A minimum of 2-hours’ supply.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? )
When operating a turbine-engine-powered airplane with a pressurized cabin at flight altitudes above 10,000 ft., there must be a minimum of a 2-hr. supply of supplemental oxygen for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty in the event of an emergency descent. The 2-hr. oxygen supply is that required for a constant rate of descent from the airplane’s maximum certificated operating altitude to 10,000 ft. in 10 min., followed by 1 hr. 50 min. at 10,000 ft.
When is DME or suitable RNAV required for an instrument flight?
A. In terminal radar service areas.
B. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
C. Above 12,500 feet MSL.
B. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.205) ( ? )
For flights at or above FL 240, DME or suitable RNAV is required for instrument flights when VOR navigational equipment is required.
For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for sustenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for
A. each passenger for 30 minutes.
B. 10 percent of the passengers for 1.5 hours.
C. 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers.
C. 30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.327) ( ? )
For flights in a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane of more than 30 min. duration at cabin pressure altitudes above 8,000 ft. up to and including 14,000 ft., enough oxygen must be provided for 30 min. for 10% of the passengers.
If it becomes necessary to shut down one engine on a domestic air carrier three-engine turbojet airplane, the pilot in command
A. may continue to the planned destination if approved by the company aircraft dispatcher.
B. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
C. must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
B. may continue to the planned destination if this is considered as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.565) ( ? )
If not more than one engine of an airplane that has three or more engines fails or has its rotation stopped, the pilot in command may proceed to an airport that (s)he selects (e.g., the destination airport) if, after considering various factors, (s)he decides that proceeding to that airport is as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport.
What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?
A. FL 250.
B. Above FL 250.
C. FL 240.
A. FL 250.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.333) ( ? )
If for any reason at any time it is necessary for one pilot to leave his or her station at the controls of the airplane when operating at flight altitudes above FL 250, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use his or her oxygen mask until the other pilot has returned to his or her duty station. Thus, FL 250 is the highest flight level at which operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask while the other pilot is away from the duty station.
The flight duty period may be extended due to unforeseen circumstances before takeoff by as much as
A. 30 minutes.
B. 2 hours.
C. 1 hour.
B. 2 hours.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 117.19) ( ? )
For augmented and unaugmented operations, if unforeseen operational circumstances arise prior to takeoff:
1.
The pilot in command and the certificate holder may extend the maximum flight duty period permitted in Tables B or C of 14 CFR 117 up to 2 hours. The pilot in command and the certificate holder may also extend the maximum combined flight duty period and reserve availability period limits up to 2 hours.
2.
An extension in the flight duty period of more than 30 minutes may occur only once prior to receiving a rest period of 30 consecutive hours free from all duty within the past 168 consecutive hour periods.
Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?
A. Pilot in command.
B. Person who declares the emergency.
C. Dispatcher.
B. Person who declares the emergency.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.557) ( ? )
Whenever a pilot in command or a dispatcher exercises emergency authority, (s)he shall keep the appropriate ATC facility and dispatch centers fully informed of the progress of the flight. The person declaring the emergency shall send a written report of any deviation through the air carrier’s operations manager to the administrator. A dispatcher shall send his or her report within 10 days after the date of the emergency, and a pilot in command shall send his or her report within 10 days after returning to his or her home base.
Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?
A. A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable, survival-type emergency locator transmitter for each required life raft.
B. A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane.
C. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required life raft.
C. An appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required life raft.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.339) ( ? )
No person may operate an airplane in extended overwater operations without having an appropriately equipped survival kit attached to each required life raft.
The fuel reserve required, for a turbopropeller supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at a destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is
A. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
B. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. 3 hours at normal consumption, no wind condition.
A. 3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.643) ( ? )
No person may release a turbopropeller-powered airplane of a supplemental air carrier to an airport for which an alternate is not specified unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for 3 hr. at normal cruising fuel consumption.
Which in-flight conditions are required by a supplemental air carrier to conduct a day, over-the-top flight below the specified IFR minimum en route altitude?
A. The flight must remain clear of clouds by at least 1,000 feet vertically and 1,000 feet horizontally and have at least 3 miles flight visibility.
B. The height of any higher overcast or broken layer must be at least 500 feet above the IFR MEA.
C. The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5 miles flight visibility.
C. The flight must be conducted at least 1,000 feet above an overcast or broken cloud layer, any higher broken/overcast cloud cover is a minimum of 1,000 feet above the IFR MEA, and have at least 5 miles flight visibility.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.657) ( ? )
A supplemental air carrier may conduct day over-the-top operations in an airplane at flight altitudes lower than the minimum en route IFR altitudes if the operation is conducted at least 1,000 ft. above the top of lower broken or overcast cloud cover, the top of the lower cloud cover is generally uniform and level, flight visibility is at least 5 SM, and the base of any higher broken or overcast cloud cover is generally uniform and level and is at least 1,000 ft. above the minimum en route IFR altitude for that route segment.
Where is a list maintained for routes that require special navigation equipment?
A. International Flight Information Manual.
B. Airplane Flight Manual.
C. Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications.
C. Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.389) ( ? )
Operations where a flight navigator or special navigation equipment, or both, are required are specified in the operations specifications of the air carrier or commercial operator.
At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocating-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?
A. 180 knots.
B. 230 knots.
C. 200 knots.
C. 200 knots.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.117) ( ? )
No person may operate an aircraft in the airspace underlying a Class B airspace area, or in a VFR corridor designated through a Class B airspace area, at an indicated airspeed of more than 200 kt. (230 MPH)
“Rest period” means
A. a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.
B. an 8-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.
C. a 12-hour continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.
A. a continuous period determined prospectively during which the flightcrew member is free from all restraint by the certificate holder.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.3) ( ? )
A rest period includes freedom from present responsibility for work should the occasion arise.
Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMs?
A. Any company dispatch facility.
B. Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory).
C. Notices To Airmen Publication.v
A. Any company dispatch facility.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.601) ( ? )
Any company dispatch facility of a flag air carrier shall provide the pilot information that may affect the safety of the flight, including FDC NOTAMs.
What restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under 14 CFR Part 121?
A. All cargo must be carried in a suitable flame resistant bin and the bin must be secured to the floor structure of the airplane.
B. All cargo must be separated from the passengers by a partition capable of withstanding certain load stresses.
C. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.
C. Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.285) ( ? )
Cargo may be carried aft of a bulkhead or divider in any passenger compartment provided the cargo is restrained and is properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown having enough strength to eliminate the possibility of shifting under all normally anticipated flight and ground conditions.
For which of these aircraft is the “clearway” for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?
A. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958.
B. Those passenger-carrying transport aircraft certificated between August 26, 1957, and August 30, 1959.
C. U.S. certified air carrier airplanes certificated after August 29, 1959.
A. Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.189) ( ? )
The takeoff distance may include a clearway distance, but the clearway distance included may not be greater than one-half of the takeoff run for turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958.
The training required for crewmembers or dispatchers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is
A. transition training.
B. difference training.
C. upgrade training.
A. transition training.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.400) ( ? )
Transition training is required for crewmembers and dispatchers who have qualified and served in the same capacity on another airplane of the same group.
An aircraft dispatcher shall receive at least 24 consecutive hours of rest during
A. every 7 consecutive days.
B. any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month.
C. each calendar week.
B. any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.465) ( ? )
An aircraft dispatcher must be relieved of all duty with the air carrier for at least 24 consecutive hr. during any 7 consecutive days or the equivalent thereof within any calendar month.
What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a “serious injury”?
A. 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances.
B. 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of injury.
C. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
C. 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.
Answer (C) is correct. (NTSB 830.2) ( ? )
Serious injury means any injury that requires hospitalization for more than 48 hr., commencing within 7 days from the date the injury was received.
The time spent resting during unaugmented operations will not be counted towards the flight duty period limitation if the rest period is at least
A. 3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations.
B. 4 hours long which can include transportation to suitable accommodations.
C. 4 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations.
A. 3 hours long after reaching suitable accommodations.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.15) ( ? )
For an unaugmented operation only, if a flightcrew member is provided with a rest opportunity (an opportunity to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her flight duty period, the time that the flightcrew member spends in the suitable accommodation is not part of that flightcrew member’s flight duty period if all of the following conditions are met:
1.
The rest opportunity is provided between the hours of 22:00 and 05:00 local time.
2.
The time spent in the suitable accommodation is at least 3 hours, measured from the time that the flightcrew member reaches the suitable accommodation.
3.
The rest opportunity is scheduled before the beginning of the flight duty period in which that rest opportunity is taken.
4.
The rest opportunity that the flightcrew member is actually provided may not be less than the rest opportunity that was scheduled.
5.
The rest opportunity is not provided until the first segment of the flight duty period has been completed.
6.
The combined time of the flight duty period and the rest opportunity provided in this section does not exceed 14 hours.
Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its three turbine engines is inoperative?
A. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR.
B. The flight cannot be conducted between official sunset and official sunrise.
C. Weather conditions must exceed the basic VFR minimums for the entire route, including takeoff and landing.
A. The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.611) ( ? )
The holder of an air carrier operating certificate or a certificate issued under Part 125 may conduct a ferry flight of an aircraft equipped with three turbine engines, one of which is inoperative, to a base for the purpose of repairing that engine only if the weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports are VFR.
The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crewmember, in a commercial operation, in any 30 consecutive days is
A. 300 hours.
B. 120 hours.
C. 100 hours.
C. 100 hours.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.503) ( ? )
No pilot may fly as a crewmember of a supplemental air carrier more than 100 hr. during any 30 consecutive days.
If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below landing minimums, what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport?
A. Not more than 2 hours at cruise speed with one engine inoperative.
B. Not more than 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
C. Not more than 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.617) ( ? )
If a four-engine air carrier airplane is dispatched from an airport that is below authorized landing minimums, the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be located from the departure airport is not more than 2 hr. at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?
A. Upon arrival at the holding fix depicted on the instrument approach procedure at the corrected ETA, plus or minus 3 minutes.
B. At the primary initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure at the ETA shown on the flight plan or the EFC time, whichever is later.
C. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
C. Upon arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.185) ( ? )
If two-way radio communications failure occurs en route and your clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the expect-further-clearance time if one has been received, or if no EFC has been received, proceed to clearance limit, and proceed to the appropriate initial approach fix. Commence descent and approach to coincide as closely as possible with the ETA.
Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large, turbine-powered airplane
A. may all be erased, as the voice recorder is not required on an aircraft with reciprocating engines.
B. may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.
C. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.
C. may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.359) ( ? )
All of the information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large, turbine-powered airplane may be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 min.
Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121?
A. Airplane passenger seating accommodations.
B. Number of passenger cabin occupants.
C. Number of passengers and crewmembers aboard.
A. Airplane passenger seating accommodations.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.309) ( ? )
An airplane’s passenger seating accommodations determine the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under 14 CFR Part 121
Which minimum level of RFFS do you need when filing an alternate using 180 minutes ETOPS rule?
A. ICAO Category 2.
B. ICAO Category 4.
C. ICAO Category 3.
B. ICAO Category 4.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.106) ( ? )
For ETOPS up to 180 minutes, each designated ETOPS Alternate Airport must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO as Category 4, or higher.
The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is
A. V1.
B. V2.
C. VREF.
A. V1.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? )
V1 means the maximum speed in the takeoff at which the pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance.
For flight planning, a Designated ETOPS Alternate Airport for ETOPS up to 180 minutes, must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by
A. ICAO Category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes.
B. ICAO Category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.
C. ICAO Category 3, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 45 minutes.
A. ICAO Category 4, unless the airport’s RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets within 30 minutes.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.106) ( ? )
For ETOPS up to 180 minutes, RFFS equivalent to that specified in ICAO Category 4 is a requirement; however, the RFFS can be augmented by local fire fighting assets with a 30-minute response time.
Pilot performance can be seriously degraded by
A. over-the-counter medications only.
B. prescription medications only.
C. prescribed and over-the-counter medications.
C. prescribed and over-the-counter medications.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.17) ( ? )
Over-the-counter drugs that are analgesics, such as aspirin, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen, have few side effects when taken in the correct dosage. Some people are allergic to certain analgesics or may suffer from stomach irritation. Flying usually is not restricted when taking these drugs. Flying is almost always precluded while using prescription analgesics, such as drugs containing propoxyphene, oxycodone, meperidine, and codeine, because these drugs are known to cause side effects, such as mental confusion, dizziness, headaches, nausea, and vision problems. Some antibiotics can produce dangerous side effects, such as balance disorders, hearing loss, nausea, and vomiting. Even if the antibiotics are safe for use while flying, the cause requiring the antibiotic may prohibit flying. 14 CFR prohibits pilots from performing crewmember duties while using any medication that affects the body in any way contrary to safety. The safest rule is not to fly as a crewmember while taking any medication, unless approved to do so by the FAA. If there is any doubt regarding the effects of any medication, consult an AME before flying.
In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?
A. 10 hours.
B. 8 hours.
C. 6 hours.
B. 8 hours.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 61.167) ( ? )
An airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service, excluding briefings and debriefings, for a maximum of 8 hr. in any 24-hr. consecutive period.
If an air carrier airplane’s airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only
A. in day VFR conditions.
B. when able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR/OT en route.
C. in VFR conditions.
A. in day VFR conditions.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.357) ( ? )
If an air carrier airplane’s airborne weather radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, that airplane may be dispatched only in day VFR conditions.
What information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight?
A. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.
B. Names of all passengers on board and minimum fuel supply.
C. Cargo load, weight and balance data, and identification number of the aircraft.
A. Departure airport, intermediate stops, destinations, alternate airports, and trip number.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.687) ( ? )
The dispatch release for a domestic air carrier flight may be in any form but must contain at least the following information concerning each flight: (1) identification number of the aircraft; (2) trip number; (3) departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airports, and alternate airports; (4) a statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR); (5) minimum fuel supply; and (6) current weather information.
If a flag air carrier flight lands at an intermediate airport at 1845Z, and experiences a delay, what is the latest time it may depart for the next airport without a redispatch release?
A. 1945Z.
B. 2015Z.
C. 0045Z.
C. 0045Z.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.595) ( ? )
A flag air carrier airplane may continue a flight from an intermediate airport without redispatch if the airplane has been on the ground not more than 6 hr. Thus, if the flight lands at 1845Z, the latest time it may depart without being redispatched is 0045Z.
How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 100 passengers on a trip segment when 45 passengers are carried?
A. Two; one located near or accessible to the flight crew, and one located near the center of the passenger cabin.
B. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin.
C. Two; one at the most rearward and one in the center of the passenger cabin.
B. Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location in the passenger cabin.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.309) ( ? )
Two megaphones are required in the passenger cabin on each airplane with a seating capacity of more than 99 passengers, one installed at the forward end and the other at the most rearward location, where it would be readily accessible to a normal flight attendant seat.
The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to
A. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
B. 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
C. 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period.
A. 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 61.167) ( ? )
The period of time that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service, excluding briefings and debriefings, is restricted to 36 hr. in any 7-consecutive-day period.
For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for
A. all of the passengers, plus 10 percent.
B. all aircraft occupants.
C. all passenger seats.
B. all aircraft occupants.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.353) ( ? )
No flag or supplemental air carrier may conduct an operation over an uninhabited area or any other area that (the FAA specifies in its operations specifications) requires equipment for search and rescue in case of an emergency unless it has enough survival kits, appropriately equipped for the route to be flown, for the number of occupants of the airplane.
For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system,
A. a minimum of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data must be erased to get a valid test.
B. a total of no more than 1 hour of recorded data may be erased.
C. a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased.
C. a total of 1 hour of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.343) ( ? )
For the purpose of testing the flight recorder or flight recorder system, a total of 1 hr. of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased.
When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort?
A. They shall be boarded after all other passengers board, and deplaned before all the other passengers leave the aircraft.
B. They shall board and depart before the other passengers.
C. They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft.
C. They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft.
Answer (C) is correct. (49 CFR 1544.221) ( ? )
Each person in the custody of law enforcement personnel will be boarded before all other passengers board and deplaned after all other passengers have left the aircraft.
An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be sent through the air carrier’s operations manager by the
A. certificate holder to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.
B. pilot in command to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.
C. dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.
C. dispatcher to the FAA Administrator within 10 days of the event.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.557) ( ? )
When an aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results, the dispatcher must submit a written report to the FAA Administrator through the certificate holder’s (air carrier’s) operations manager within 10 days.
What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?
A. 70 percent of the actual runway available, from a height of 50 feet over the threshold.
B. 115 percent of the runway length required for a wet runway.
C. 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.
C. 115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.195) ( ? )
No person may take off a turbojet-powered airplane when the appropriate weather reports and forecasts, or a combination thereof, indicate that the runways at the destination airport may be wet or slippery at the estimated time of arrival unless the effective runway length at the destination airport is at least 115% of the runway length required for a dry runway.
A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when
A. the airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour.
B. operations are conducted IFR or VFR on Top.
C. operations are conducted over water more than 50 miles from shore.
A. the airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.389) ( ? )
No certificate holder may operate an airplane outside the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, when its position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hr., without a flight crewmember who holds a current flight navigator certificate or approved specialized means of navigation that enables a reliable determination to be made of the position of the airplane by each pilot seated at his or her duty station.
The minimum weather conditions that must exist for a domestic air carrier flight to take off from an airport that is not listed in the Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications (takeoff minimums are not prescribed for that airport) is
A. 1,000 - 1; 900 - 1 1/4; or 800 - 2.
B. 800 - 2; 1,100 - 1; or 900 - 1 1/2.
C. 1,000 - 1; 900 - 1 1/2; or 800 - 2.
C. 1,000 - 1; 900 - 1 1/2; or 800 - 2.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.637) ( ? )
No pilot may take off a domestic air carrier airplane from a U.S. airport that is not listed in the operations specifications unless the prescribed weather minimums for takeoff exist, or if minimums are not prescribed for the airport, the weather minimums of 800 - 2, 900 - 1 1/2, or 1,000 - 1 are met.
Notification of the rest opportunity period during unaugmented operations, must be
A. given before the beginning of the flight duty period.
B. provided no later than after the first flight segment offered after the first flight segment is completed.
C. given before the next to last flight segment.
A. given before the beginning of the flight duty period.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.15) ( ? )
For an unaugmented operation only, if a flightcrew member is provided with a rest opportunity (an opportunity to sleep) in a suitable accommodation during his or her flight duty period, the time that the flightcrew member spends in the suitable accommodation is not part of that flightcrew member’s flight duty period if all of the following conditions are met:
1.
The rest opportunity is provided between the hours of 22:00 and 05:00 local time.
2.
The time spent in the suitable accommodation is at least 3 hours, measured from the time that the flightcrew member reaches the suitable accommodation.
3.
The rest opportunity is scheduled before the beginning of the flight duty period in which that rest opportunity is taken.
4.
The rest opportunity that the flightcrew member is actually provided may not be less than the rest opportunity that was scheduled.
5.
The rest opportunity is not provided until the first segment of the flight duty period has been completed.
6.
The combined time of the flight duty period and the rest opportunity provided in this section does not exceed 14 hours.
Item 3. implies that notification must be given before the beginning of the flight duty period.
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A. 24 hours.
B. 12 hours.
C. 8 hours.
C. 8 hours.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.17) ( ? )
No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft within 8 hr. after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage, while under the influence of drugs or alcohol, or while having .04% by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that an aircraft dispatcher may be scheduled is
A. 10 hours.
B. 8 hours.
C. 12 hours.
A. 10 hours.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.465) ( ? )
No domestic or flag air carrier may schedule a dispatcher for more than 10 consecutive hr. of duty.
Flightcrew members must receive fatigue education and awareness training
A. annually for flightcrew members and every 24 months for dispatchers, flightcrew member schedulers, and operational control individuals.
B. with all required air carrier dispatcher and every flightcrew member training activity.
C. annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals, and flightcrew members and dispatchers.
C. annually for flightcrew member schedulers, operational control individuals, and flightcrew members and dispatchers.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.9) ( ? )
Each certificate holder must develop and implement an education and awareness training program, approved by the Administrator. This program must provide annual education and awareness training to all employees of the certificate holder responsible for administering the provisions of this rule including flightcrew members, dispatchers, individuals directly involved in the scheduling of flightcrew members, individuals directly involved in operational control, and any employee providing direct management oversight of those areas.
If an engine’s rotation is stopped in flight, the pilot in command must report it, as soon as practicable, to the
A. appropriate ground radio station.
B. nearest FAA district office.
C. operations manager (or director of operations).
A. appropriate ground radio station.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.565) ( ? )
The pilot in command shall report each stoppage of engine rotation in flight to the appropriate ground radio station as soon as practicable and shall keep that station fully informed of the progress of the flight.
“Operational control” of a flight refers to
A. exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft.
B. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
C. the specific duties of any required crewmember.
B. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 1.1) ( ? )
Operational control of a flight refers to the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
A turbine-engine-powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?
A. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.
B. 30 minutes, plus 10 percent of the total flight time.
C. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption.
A. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.645) ( ? )
No person may release a turbine-engine-powered airplane (other than a turbopropeller airplane) to an airport for which an alternate is not specified unless it has enough fuel, considering wind and other weather conditions expected, to fly to that airport and thereafter to fly for at least 2 hr. at normal cruising fuel consumption.
The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is
A. 30 minutes plus 15 percent at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.
B. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to the alternate airport.
C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport.
C. 45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.639) ( ? )
No person may dispatch or take off an airplane unless it has enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, then fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport, and then fly for 45 min. at normal cruising fuel consumption.
If the augmented flightcrew member is not acclimated, the
A. maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes.
B. flight duty period assignment must be reduced 15 minutes by each 15 degrees of longitude difference from the previous rest location.
C. minimum rest period must be extended by 3 hours.
A. maximum flight duty period given in 14 CFR part 117, Table C (not included herein) is reduced by 30 minutes.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.17) ( ? )
For flight operations conducted with an acclimated augmented flightcrew, no certificate holder may assign and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment if the scheduled flight duty period will exceed the limits specified in Table C of 14 CFR Part 117. If the flightcrew member is not acclimated:
1.
The maximum flight duty period in Table C of 14 CFR Part 117 is reduced by 30 minutes.
2.
The applicable flight duty period is based on the local time at the theater in which the flightcrew member was last acclimated.
Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in 14 CFR Part 121 operations?
A. If required by the airplane’s type certificate.
B. If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard.
C. If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.
A. If required by the airplane’s type certificate.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.387) ( ? )
No certificate holder may operate an airplane for which a type certificate was issued before January 2, 1964, having a maximum certificated takeoff weight of more than 80,000 lb., without a flight crewmember holding a current flight engineer certificate. For each airplane type certificated after January 1, 1964, the requirement for a flight engineer is determined under the type certification requirements.
If an aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot of an air carrier flight during an emergency, the aircraft dispatcher should
A. phone the ARTCC where the flight is located and ask for a phone patch with the flight.
B. comply with the company’s lost aircraft plan.
C. take any action considered necessary under the circumstances.
C. take any action considered necessary under the circumstances.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.557) ( ? )
If the aircraft dispatcher cannot communicate with the pilot in command of a flight in an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action by the aircraft dispatcher, (s)he shall declare an emergency and take any action that (s)he considers necessary under the circumstances.
For passenger operations under Part 121, a flightcrew member may exceed maximum flight time limitations if
A. immediately followed by 11 hours of rest.
B. known ATC delays do not exceed 30 minutes.
C. unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff.
C. unforeseen operational circumstances arise after takeoff.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.19) ( ? )
Unforeseen operational circumstances permit extension as necessary to safely land the aircraft.
What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?
A. 3/4 SM.
B. 1/4 SM.
C. 1/2 SM.
B. 1/4 SM.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 91.175) ( ? )
If RVR (runway visual range) minimums for takeoff or landing are prescribed in an instrument approach procedure, but RVR is not reported for the runway of intended operation, the RVR minimum shall be converted to ground visibility. An RVR of 16 is equivalent to 1/4 SM visibility.
When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?
A. Three.
B. Five.
C. Four.
C. Four.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.391) ( ? )
The number of required flight attendants is based upon passenger seating capacity, not the number of passengers on a given flight. A seating capacity of 51 to 100 requires two flight attendants, after which one flight attendant is required for each unit (or partial unit) of 50 seats. A seating capacity of 187 requires four flight attendants.
Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an airplane?
A. VLO/MLO.
B. VMO/MMO.
C. VLE.
B. VMO/MMO.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? )
VMO/MMO is maximum operating limit speed. Maximum operating limit speed is also known as maximum Mach number, which is analogous to VNE of a small airplane.
A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
A. entering controlled airspace.
B. entering IFR weather conditions.
C. takeoff if weather conditions are below IFR minimums.
A. entering controlled airspace.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.173) ( ? )
No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has (1) filed an IFR flight plan and (2) received an appropriate ATC clearance.
An approved minimum equipment list or FAA Letter of Authorization allows certain instruments or equipment to be inoperative
A. prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed.
B. anytime with no other documentation required or procedures to be followed.
C. for a one-time ferry flight of a large airplane to a maintenance base without further documentation from the operator or FAA with passengers on board.
A. prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft if prescribed procedures are followed.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.213) ( ? )
The minimum equipment list (MEL) contains units and systems for which operation of the aircraft with some deviation from airworthiness standards or operating rules have been approved. These are components and systems that the operator or manufacturer has proven that the aircraft may safely operate without under specific conditions.
Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?
A. Operating Certificate.
B. Dispatch Release.
C. Operations Specifications.
C. Operations Specifications.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 119.5) ( ? )
Under Part 121 or 135, no person may operate an aircraft in a geographical area unless its operations specifications specifically authorize the certificate holder to operate in that area.
In order to be assigned for duty, each flightcrew member must report
A. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties.
B. on time, in uniform, and properly prepared to accomplish all assigned duties.
C. to the airport on time, after the designated rest period and fully prepared to accomplish assigned duties.
A. for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his/her assigned duties.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 117.5) ( ? )
Each flightcrew member must report for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform his or her assigned duties. No certificate holder may assign and no flightcrew member may accept assignment to a flight duty period if the flightcrew member has reported for a flight duty period too fatigued to safely perform his or her assigned duties.
A dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain or have attached to it
A. minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
B. weather information for the complete flight and a crew list.
C. trip number and weight and balance data.
A. minimum fuel supply and weather information for the complete flight.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.687) ( ? )
The dispatch release for a flag or domestic air carrier must contain, or have attached to it, weather reports, available weather forecasts, or a combination thereof, for the destination airport, intermediate stops, and alternate airports, that are the latest available at the time the release is signed by the pilot in command and the dispatcher. It may include any additional available weather reports or forecasts that the pilot in command or the aircraft dispatcher considers necessary or desirable. Additionally, the dispatch release will contain the minimum fuel supply.
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
A. Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
B. No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
C. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
C. No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 61.15) ( ? )
Each individual convicted of driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall provide a written report of each motor vehicle action to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division, no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?
A. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased.
B. All recorded information may be erased, unless the NTSB needs to be notified of an occurrence.
C. All recorded information may be erased, except for the last 30 minutes prior to landing.
A. Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.359) ( ? )
An approved cockpit voice recorder having an erasure feature may be used so that, at any time during the operation of the recorder, information recorded more than 30 min. earlier may be erased or otherwise obliterated.
What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?
A. 250 knots.
B. 230 knots.
C. 288 knots.
A. 250 knots.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.117) ( ? )
Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 ft. MSL at an indicated airspeed of more than 250 kt. (288 MPH).
Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?
A. VS1.
B. VS0.
C. VS.
C. VS.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 1.2) ( ? )
VS is the stalling speed, or the minimum steady flight speed, at which the airplane is controllable.
If a flight crewmember completes a required annual flight check in December 2017 and the required annual recurrent flight check in January 2019, the latter check is considered to have been taken in
A. December 2018.
B. November 2017.
C. January 2018.
A. December 2018.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.401) ( ? )
Whenever a flight crewmember is required to take recurrent training, a flight check, or a competence check, and takes the check or completes the training in the calendar month before or after the calendar month in which that training or check is required, (s)he is considered to have taken or completed it in the calendar month in which it was required.
No flightcrew member may accept an assignment without scheduled rest opportunities for
A. more than 4 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low in a 168 hour period.
B. consecutive nighttime flights beginning after 0001 hours local home base time.
C. more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low.
C. more than 3 consecutive nighttime flights that infringe on the window of circadian low.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 117.15, 14 CFR 117.27) ( ? )
“Window of circadian low” means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between 0200 and 0559 during a physiological night. A certificate holder may schedule and a flightcrew member may accept up to five consecutive flight duty periods that infringe on the window of circadian low if the certificate holder provides the flightcrew member with an opportunity to rest in a suitable accommodation during each of the consecutive nighttime flight duty periods. The rest opportunity must be at least 2 hours, measured from the time that the flightcrew member reaches the suitable accommodation, and must be between 2200 and 0500 local time; the rest must be scheduled before the beginning of the flight duty period, and the rest period may not be less than scheduled. Otherwise, no certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept more than three consecutive flight duty periods that infringe on the window of circadian low.
When an alternate airport outside the United States has no prescribed takeoff minimums and is not listed in a Flag Air Carrier’s Operations Specifications, the minimum weather conditions that will meet the requirements for takeoff is
A. 900-1-1/2.
B. 600-2.
C. 800-1-1/2.
A. 900-1-1/2.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.637) ( ? )
No pilot may take off a flag air carrier airplane from a non-U.S. airport that is not listed in the operations specifications unless the weather minimums for takeoff prescribed or approved by the government of the country in which the airport is located exist, or if minimums are not prescribed or approved for the airport, the weather minimums of 800-2, 900-1 1/2, or 1,000-1 are met.
A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least
A. 6 months.
B. 3 months.
C. 30 days.
B. 3 months.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.695) ( ? )
A domestic or flag air carrier shall keep copies of the flight plans, dispatch releases, and load manifests for at least 3 months.
Which information must be contained in, or attached to, the dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight?
A. Passenger manifest, company or organization name, and cargo weight.
B. Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number.
C. Total fuel supply and minimum fuel required on board the airplane.
B. Type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR), trip number.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.687) ( ? )
The dispatch release for a flag air carrier flight may be in any form but must contain at least the following information concerning each flight: (1) identification number of the aircraft; (2) trip number; (3) departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airports, and alternate airports; (4) a statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR); (5) minimum fuel supply; and (6) current weather information.
Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?
A. Appropriate dispatch office.
B. ARINC.
C. Any FSS.
A. Appropriate dispatch office.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.99) ( ? )
Each domestic and flag air carrier must show that a two-way air/ground radio communication system is available at points that will ensure reliable and rapid communications under normal operating conditions over the entire route (either direct or via approved point-to-point circuits) between each airplane and the appropriate dispatch office, and between each airplane and the appropriate air traffic control unit. For all domestic air carrier operations and for flag air carrier operations in the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, the communications systems between each airplane and the dispatch office must be independent of any system operated by the United States.
The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be
A. 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption.
B. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
C. enough fuel to return to the destination airport or to fly for 90 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption, whichever is less.
B. 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.645) ( ? )
A flag air carrier turbojet airplane operating within the 48 contiguous United States may use the fuel requirements for domestic air carriers, which states that no person may dispatch or take off an airplane unless it has enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (where required) for the airport to which dispatched, and thereafter fly for 45 min. at normal cruising fuel consumption.
What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?
A. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel remaining.
B. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event.
C. Request radar vectors from ATC to the nearest suitable airport and land.
B. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.357) ( ? )
If the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route, the pilot in command must proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event.
Which is the maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier airman may be aloft in any 30 consecutive days, as a member of a flight crew that consists of two pilots and at least one additional flight crewmember?
A. 100 hours.
B. 300 hours.
C. 120 hours.
C. 120 hours.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.521) ( ? )
The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier airman may be aloft in any 30 consecutive days as a member of a flight crew that consists of two pilots and at least one additional flight crewmember is 120 hr.
Which minimum level of RFFS do you need when filing an alternate using the beyond-180 minutes ETOPS rule?
A. ICAO Category 7.
B. ICAO Category 4.
C. ICAO Category 5.
A. ICAO Category 7.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.106) ( ? )
For ETOPS beyond 180 minutes, each designated ETOPS Alternate Airport must have RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 4, or higher. In addition, the aircraft must remain within the ETOPS authorized diversion time from an Adequate Airport that has RFFS equivalent to that specified by ICAO Category 7, or higher.
During a supplemental air carrier flight, who is responsible for obtaining information on meteorological conditions?
A. Director of operations or flight follower.
B. Aircraft dispatcher.
C. Pilot in command.
C. Pilot in command.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.603) ( ? )
During a flight, the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight shall obtain any additional information on meteorological conditions and irregularities of facilities and services that may affect the safety of the flight.
The “age 65 rule” of 14 CFR Part 121 applies to
A. any flight crewmember.
B. the pilot in command only.
C. any required pilot crewmember.
C. any required pilot crewmember.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.383) ( ? )
No certificate holder may use the services of any person as a pilot on an airplane engaged in operations under Part 121 if that person has reached his or her 65th birthday. No person may serve as a pilot on an airplane engaged in operations under Part 121 if that person has reached his or her 65th birthday.
How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?
A. 60 days.
B. 30 days.
C. 90 days.
A. 60 days.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.609) ( ? )
In the event of an accident or occurrence that results in the termination of the flight, any operator who has installed approved flight recorders and cockpit voice recorders shall keep the recorded information for at least 60 days or, if requested by the FAA or the NTSB, for a longer period.
In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flight crew is
A. encouraged; it helps to ensure that all items on the procedure are accomplished.
B. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.
C. required by the FAA as a doublecheck after the memorized procedure has been accomplished.
B. required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.315) ( ? )
Each certificate holder shall provide an approved cockpit check procedure for each type of aircraft. The approved procedures must include each item necessary for flight crewmembers to check for safety before starting engines, taking off, or landing, and in engine and systems emergencies. The procedures must be designed so that a flight crewmember will not need to rely upon his or her memory for items to be checked.
What is required when listing an ETOPS Alternate Airport greater than 180 minutes?
A. Airlines are responsible for providing a passenger recovery plan that includes safe retrieval without undue delay.
B. The aircraft must be equipped with three pilot crew members.
C. The aircraft must have a total of four engines.
A. Airlines are responsible for providing a passenger recovery plan that includes safe retrieval without undue delay.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 121.135) ( ? )
For ETOPS greater than 180 minutes, a specific passenger recovery plan is required for each ETOPS Alternate Airport used in those operations.
How often must a crewmember actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training? Once every
A. 12 calendar months.
B. 6 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
C. 24 calendar months.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.417) ( ? )
During initial training and once each 24 calendar months during recurrent training, each crewmember must perform certain emergency drills and operate specified emergency equipment.
When is a supplemental air carrier, operating under IFR, required to list an alternate airport for each destination airport within the 48 contiguous United States?
A. When the flight is scheduled for more than 6 hours en route.
B. On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination.
C. When the forecast weather indicates the ceiling will be less than 1,000 feet and visibility less than 2 miles at the estimated time of arrival.
B. On all flights, an alternate is required regardless of existing or forecast weather conditions at the destination.
Answer (B) is correct. (14 CFR 121.623) ( ? )
Each person releasing an aircraft of a supplemental air carrier in the 48 contiguous United States for operation under IFR or over-the-top shall list at least one alternate airport for each destination airport in the flight release.
Each crewmember shall have readily available for individual use on each flight a
A. certificate holder’s manual.
B. key to the flight deck door.
C. flashlight in good working order.
C. flashlight in good working order.
Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 121.549) ( ? )
Each crewmember shall, on each flight, have readily available for his or her use a flashlight in good working order.
When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?
A. The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.
B. 2000-3 for at least 1 hour before until 1 hour after the ETA.
C. The IFR alternate minimums section in front of the NOAA IAP book.
A. The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.
Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.175) ( ? )
No pilot operating a civil aircraft may land that aircraft when the flight visibility is less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach procedure being used.
