Aviation Weather Flashcards
The Mid-Level Significant weather (SIGWX) Chart is used to determine an overview of flying weather conditions between what altitudes?
A. 10,000 feet AGL and 45,000 feet AGL.
B. 10,000 feet MSL and FL 450.
C. 10,000 feet AGL and FL 450
B. 10,000 feet MSL and FL 450.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
Dispatchers and flight crew members can use the Mid-Level Significant Weather (SIGWX) Chart to determine an overview of selected flying weather conditions. The altitude areas for this chart are between 10,000 feet MSL and FL 450. This information can be used for flight planning and weather briefings before departure and during flight.
Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-3) are issued
A. every morning at 0400.
B. hourly.
C. two times a day.
B. hourly.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
Maximum turbulence potential charts (GTG-3) graphics are computer generated, four-dimensional forecasts of information related to the likelihood of encountering Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) associated with upper-level fronts and jet streams. This forecast is updated every hour and includes 06, 09, and 12-hour forecasts, which are updated every 3 hours, starting at 00Z.
A cyclone is
A. a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean with highest sustained winds of 64 knots or higher.
B. a tropical depression in the Northwest Pacific with sustained winds of 63 knots.
C. a tropical storm in the Atlantic with highest sustained winds of 35 through 64 knots.
A. a hurricane force storm in the Indian Ocean with highest sustained winds of 64 knots or higher.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 21) ( ? )
Tropical cyclone is a general term for any low that originates over tropical oceans. Tropical cyclones are classified according to their intensity based on average 1-minute wind speeds. Tropical cyclone international classifications are
1.
Tropical Depression–highest sustained winds up to 33 knots;
2.
Tropical Storm–highest sustained winds of 34 through 63 knots; and
3.
Hurricane, Cyclone, or Typhoon–highest sustained winds 64 knots or more.
Strong tropical cyclones are known by different names in different regions of the world. A tropical cyclone in the Atlantic and eastern Pacific is a “hurricane”; in the western Pacific, “typhoon”; near Australia and in the Indian Ocean, simply “cyclone.”
METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020 BKN040CB 30/27 A3001.
SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK RAB12 WS TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC.
What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815 UTC at Harrison (KHRO)?
A. The ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds developed.
B. Visibility reduced to IFR conditions.
C. Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour.
Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
The special report (SPECI) taken at 1815 UTC at KHRO reports thunderstorm with heavy rain (+TSRA), and the remarks state that the rain began at 12 min. past the hour (RAB12).
Determine the approximate wind direction and velocity at FL 240 over the station in central Oklahoma. A. 280° at 30 knots. B. 100° at 30 knots. C. 280° at 35 knots. See Figure 153,154,155
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? ) To determine the approximate wind direction, you must interpolate between values for FL 180 (500-mb chart) and FL 300 (300-mb chart). The wind direction and speed are determined by the flag at the reporting station. First decode the two given pressure levels: FL 180 (500 mb) = 280° at 25 kt. FL 300 (300 mb) = 280° at 35 kt. Difference = 0° at 10 kt. Interpolation for each value gives the following: FL 240 = 280° at 30 kt.
Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?
A. The start of rain at the surface.
B. Growth rate of the cloud is at its maximum.
C. The appearance of an anvil top.
A. The start of rain at the surface.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 19) ( ? )
The mature stage of a thunderstorm begins when rain begins falling at the surface. This means that downdrafts have developed sufficiently to carry water all the way through the thunderstorm.
Cumuliform clouds signify
A. unstable air conditions.
B. low temperatures.
C. mountainous terrain below.
A. unstable air conditions.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 13) ( ? )
Unstable air favors convection. Cumulus (meaning heap) clouds form in a convective updraft and build upward. Within an unstable layer, clouds are cumuliform. The vertical extent of the cloud depends on the depth of the unstable layer.
Middle clouds are considered to be the clouds between
A. 1,000 and 6,500 feet AGL.
B. 20,000 feet AGL and above.
C. 6,500 and 20,000 feet AGL.
C. 6,500 and 20,000 feet AGL.
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
The middle cloud family consists of the altostratus, altocumulus, and nimbostratus clouds. These clouds are primarily water, much of which may be supercooled. The height of the bases of these clouds ranges from about 6,500 to 20,000 feet in middle latitudes.
Steady-state thunderstorms are usually associated with
A. the mature stage.
B. weather systems.
C. surface heating.
B. weather systems.
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
Weather systems such as fronts, converging winds, and troughs aloft force upward motion spawning these storms that often form into squall lines. Steady-state thunderstorms usually are associated with weather systems.
What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?
A. Intermittent light turbulence.
B. Occasional light chop.
C. Moderate chop.
A. Intermittent light turbulence.
Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 7-1-25) ( ? )
Light turbulence is defined as turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude. Intermittent is defined as occurring from one-third to two-thirds of the time.
What was the local Central Standard Time of the Aviation Routine Weather Report at Austin (KAUS)? A. 5:53 p.m. B. 11:53 a.m. C. 10:53 p.m. See figure 145
B. 11:53 a.m.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
The date/time after Austin (KAUS) on Fig. 145 is 131753Z. The first two digits are the date and the last four digits are the time, followed by Z to denote coordinated universal time (UTC). Thus, the report was issued at 1753 UTC. To determine Central Standard Time, you must subtract 6 hr. from UTC; thus, the time is 11:53 a.m. (1753 – 6 = 1153) CST.
What will be the wind and temperature trend for a DEN-ICT-OKC flight at 11,000 feet?
A. Windspeed increase slightly.
B. Wind shift from calm to a westerly direction.
C. Temperature decrease.
See figure 149
A. Windspeed increase slightly.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 7) ( ? )
To determine the wind and temperature trend, the winds and temperatures aloft must be interpolated for 11,000 ft. The table below shows data for 9,000 and 12,000 ft. and the interpolated data for 11,000 ft.
9,000 12,000 11,000 DEN 9900+09 9900+04 9900+06 ICT 0607+08 9900+04 0602+05 OKC 1106+10 9900+05 1102+07 The best answer is that wind speed increases slightly from light and variable in DEN to 2 kt. at ICT and OKC.
Gusts in tropical cyclones can exceed the average one-minute wind speed by as much as
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
B. 50%
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 21) ( ? )
Tropical cyclones are classified according to their intensity based on average one-minute wind speeds. Wind gusts in these storms may be as much as 50% higher than the average one-minute wind speeds.
Tropical storms form when
A. a system has peak wind gusts that do not exceed 65 knots.
B. a system of air surrounds an area with pressure of 48 mb.
C. a system has sustained winds of 34 to 63 knots.
C. a system has sustained winds of 34 to 63 knots.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 21) ( ? )
The classification of a tropical storm is based upon sustained winds of 34 through 63 knots.
Updrafts in the mature stage of a thunderstorm can exceed
A. 6,000 feet per minute.
B. 8,000 feet per minute.
C. 7,000 feet per minute.
A. 6,000 feet per minute.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6A Chap 11) ( ? )
Updrafts and downdrafts in close proximity create strong vertical shear and a very turbulent environment. Updrafts reach a maximum with speeds possibly exceeding 6,000 feet per minute.
Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream?
A. Occluded front.
B. Warm front.
C. Cold front and warm front.
A. Occluded front.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 10) ( ? )
The development of a surface low usually is south of the jet stream and moves nearer as the low deepens. The occluding low moves north of the jet stream, and the jet stream crosses the frontal system near the point of occlusion.
The peak wind at KAMA was reported to be from 320° true at 39 knots,
A. with gusts to 43 knots.
B. which occurred at 1743Z.
C. with .43 of an inch liquid precipitation since the last report.
See figure 145
B. which occurred at 1743Z.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
Whenever the peak wind exceeds 25 kt., PK WND will be included in the remarks with three digits for direction and two or three digits for speed followed by the time (in hours and minutes or just minutes past the hour) of occurrence. The time of the METAR report for KAMA is 1755Z, and the remark PK WND 32039/43 means the peak wind 320° true at 39 kt. occurred at 43 min. past the hour, or at 1743Z.
Shear turbulence may be expected
A. no more than 10 miles from a severe thunderstorm.
B. usually within 20 miles of a severe thunderstorm.
C. probably not more than 15 miles from a severe thunderstorm.
B. usually within 20 miles of a severe thunderstorm.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-24C) ( ? )
Outside of the cloud, shear turbulence has been encountered several thousand feet above and 20 miles laterally from a severe storm.
Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters “VC.” When VC appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of
A. a 5-to-10 statute mile radius from the airport.
B. a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex.
C. 10 miles of the station originating the forecast.
A. a 5-to-10 statute mile radius from the airport.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 7) ( ? )
When VC appears in a TAF, it applies to weather conditions expected to occur in an area within a 5- to 10-SM radius of the airport, but not at the airport itself.
What type weather system is approaching the Oregon Coast from the northwest?
A. Cold front.
B. HIGH.
C. LOW.
C. LOW.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
A three-dimensional picture can be developed by following the change in height of the height contours. These are the solid lines on Fig. 153, and the height is indicated on the lines. The contour that is approaching the Oregon coast is lower than the contours over the northwestern U.S. Thus, a low-pressure area must be approaching.
A calm wind that is forecast, in the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), is encoded as
A. 00003KT.
B. 00000KT.
C. VRB00KT.
B. 00000KT.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 7) ( ? )
In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a calm wind that is forecast is encoded as 00000KT.
Convective SIGMETs are issued for a line of thunderstorms at least
A. 100 miles long with severe thunderstorms affecting 50 percent of its length.
B. 60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting 40 percent of its length.
C. 40 miles long with thunderstorms affecting 50 percent of its length.
B. 60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting 40 percent of its length.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H) ( ? )
A convective SIGMET will be issued when (1) a line of thunderstorms is at least 60 miles long with thunderstorms affecting at least 40% of its length or (2) an area of active thunderstorms is (a) affecting at least 3,000 square miles, (b) covering at least 40% of the area concerned, and (c) exhibiting a very strong radar reflectivity intensity or a significant satellite or lightning signature.
As you approach an airport to land, you observe a convective cloud over the airport with virga below it. This could indicate
A. the presence of a microburst.
B. smooth air.
C. heavy rain showers.
A. the presence of a microburst.
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
Rain that falls through the atmosphere but evaporates prior to striking the ground is known as virga. The process of evaporation cools the air around the virga and can create strong downdrafts and in some cases microbursts.
If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur? A. 3 and 4. B. 2 and 3. C. 4 and 5. See figure 144
A. 3 and 4.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-54) ( ? )
The most severe downdrafts occur at the center of the microburst, indicated by positions 3 and 4 in Fig. 144.
What is the approximate rate unsaturated air will cool flowing upslope?
A. 4°C per 1,000 feet.
B. 2°C per 1,000 feet.
C. 3°C per 1,000 feet.
C. 3°C per 1,000 feet.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 11) ( ? )
Unsaturated air moving upward and downward cools and warms at about 3°C (5.4°F) per 1,000 ft. This is the dry adiabatic rate of temperature change.
The Federal Aviation Administration’s Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) is designed to provide data on a common frequency to flight crews from
A. 5,000 feet MSL to 17,500 feet MSL.
B. 17,500 feet MSL down to 5,000 feet AGL.
C. 17,500 feet AGL down to 5,000 feet MSL.
B. 17,500 feet MSL down to 5,000 feet AGL.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-63A) ( ? )
The FAA’s Flight Information Service Data Link (FISDL) system is designed to provide coverage throughout the continental U.S. from 5,000 ft. AGL to 17,500 ft. MSL, except in those areas where this is unfeasible due to mountainous terrain.
A public severe thunderstorm watch implies
A. 58 mph winds or greater and/or surface hail of 1 inch or more in diameter.
B. 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail of 1/2 inch or greater.
C. 45 mph winds or greater and/or surface hail of 1 inch or more in diameter.
A. 58 mph winds or greater and/or surface hail of 1 inch or more in diameter.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
The National Weather Service may issue a public severe thunderstorm watch when conditions are favorable to winds of 58 mph (50 kt.) or greater and/or surface hail of 1 inch or more in diameter.
What weather database can a dispatcher access concerning wind shear activity at an airport?
A. ATIS.
B. TWIP.
C. AWOS.
B. TWIP.
Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 7-1-26) ( ? )
Dispatchers can access the TWIP database and send messages to specific aircraft whenever wind shear activity begins or ends at an airport.
What is indicated by the following report?
TYR UUA/OV TYR180015/TM 1757/FL310/TP B737/TB MOD-SEV CAT 350-390
A. A special METAR issued on the 18th day of the month at 1757Z.
B. An urgent pilot report for moderate to severe clear air turbulence.
C. A routine pilot report for overcast conditions from flight levels 350-390.
B. An urgent pilot report for moderate to severe clear air turbulence.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Sect 3.2) ( ? )
The UUA found in the first section of the report indicates an “Urgent Upper Air” report. The /TB MOD-SEV CAT 350-390 in the last section of the report indicates moderate to severe clear air turbulence for flight levels 350 to 390.
METAR KFSO 031053Z VRB02KT 7SM MIFG SKC 15/14 A3012 RMK SLP993 60000 T01500139 56012
In the above METAR, the SLP993 60000 indicates
A. sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals which in the last 6 hours has dropped .4 hectopascals.
B. sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and in the last 6 hours that four-tenths of an inch of precipitation has fallen.
C. sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and a trace amount of precipitation has occurred over the last 3 hours.
C. sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and a trace amount of precipitation has occurred over the last 3 hours.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
In the remarks (RMK) section of the METAR, the coded group SLP993 means the sea-level pressure (SLP) is 999.3 hectopascals. A coded element beginning with the number 6 indicates the 3- and 6-hr. precipitation amount. The “6” is followed by four digits indicating precipitation about using tens, units, tenths, and hundredths of an inch. When a trace amount of precipitation has occurred, four zeros will follow the number 6 (60000).
What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORECAST (FB) report for FL 390 - “731960”?
A. 230° at 119 knots.
B. 073° at 196 knots.
C. 131° at 96 knots.
A. 230° at 119 knots.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 7) ( ? )
The first two digits are the direction group, and since it is greater than 36, the wind speed must be 100 kt. or greater. Subtract 50 from the direction group to determine wind direction of 230° (73 – 50 = 23). The second two digits are the wind speed; since it was determined that the wind was 100 kt. or greater, add 100 to this group. Thus, the wind speed is 119 kt. (100 + 19 = 119).
Precipitation-induced fog
A. results from relatively warmer rain or drizzle falling through cooler air.
B. results from relatively cooler rain or drizzle falling through warmer air.
C. is usually of short duration.
A. results from relatively warmer rain or drizzle falling through cooler air.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 16) ( ? )
Precipitation-induced fog results from relatively warmer rain or drizzle falling through cooler air. This fog may extend over large areas, completely suspending air operations.
The horizontal wind shear, critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) per 150 miles is
A. not a factor, only vertical shear is a factor.
B. 18 knots or less.
C. greater than 18 knots.
C. greater than 18 knots.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-30C) ( ? )
The horizontal wind shear critical for turbulence (moderate or greater) is greater than 18 kt. per 150 NM.
Cumulus clouds often indicate
A. a temperature inversion.
B. a dry adiabatic lapse rate.
C. possible turbulence.
C. possible turbulence.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B) ( ? )
Cumulus clouds are formed in a convective updraft, build upward, and are associated with turbulence.
Except for temperature, ice fog forms in conditions favorable to
A. Arctic fog.
B. advection fog.
C. radiation fog.
C. radiation fog.
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
Conditions favorable for this type of fog are the same as for Arctic fog except for the temperature. Radiation fog forms at night under clear skies with calm winds when heat absorbed by the Earth’s surface during the day is radiated into space. Provided a deep enough layer of moist air is present near the ground, as the Earth’s surface continues to cool, the humidity will reach 100% and fog will form. Radiation fog varies in depth from 3 feet to about 1,000 feet, is always found at ground level, and usually remains stationary. This type of fog can reduce visibility to near zero at times and makes flying very hazardous during takeoffs and landings.
A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface wind is
A. 50 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1/2 inch or more in diameter.
B. 58 mph or greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch or more in diameter.
C. 45 knots or greater and/or surface hail is 1 inch or more in diameter.
B. 58 mph or greater and/or surface hail is 3/4 inch or more in diameter.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
A severe thunderstorm is one in which the surface winds are greater than or equal to 58 mph (50 kt.), hail at the surface is greater than or equal to 3/4 in. in diameter, or tornadoes are present.
Storm gust fronts often move as much as
A. 20 miles ahead of the associated precipitation.
B. 15 miles ahead of the associated precipitation.
C. 10 miles ahead of the associated precipitation.
B. 15 miles ahead of the associated precipitation.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-24C) ( ? )
Gust fronts often move far ahead (up to 15 miles) of associated precipitation. The gust front causes a rapid and sometimes drastic change in surface wind ahead of an approaching storm.
The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is
METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK A02 $.
A. a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile.
B. less than 1/4 statute mile.
C. measured 1/4 statute mile.
B. less than 1/4 statute mile.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
Prevailing visibility is reported in statute miles with a space and then fractions of statute miles, as needed, with SM appended to it. This METAR was produced at an automated station, as indicated by the modifier AUTO. At an automated station, visibility of less than 1/4 SM is reported as M1/4SM.
A prognostic chart depicts the conditions
A. forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.
B. existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.
C. which presently exist from the 1,000-millibar through the 700-millibar level.
A. forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 8) ( ? )
Prognostic charts show conditions as they are forecast to be at the valid time (UTC or Zulu) for the chart. The charts are issued four times daily.
A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft to be 280° at 205 knots; temperature –51°C at FL 390. How would this data be encoded in the FB?
A. 789951
B. 780051
C. 280051
A. 789951
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 7) ( ? )
At FL 390, a 280° wind at 205 kt. is encoded as 789951. The first two digits are the direction. The second two digits are velocity. When wind speed is forecast at 200 kt. or greater, the wind group is coded as 99, and 50 is added to the direction code. Here the direction is 78 for 280°. The last two digits indicate the temperature, and minus signs are omitted above 24,000 ft. MSL.
What characterizes a ground-based inversion?
A. Convection currents at the surface.
B. Poor visibility.
C. Cold temperatures.
B. Poor visibility.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 21) ( ? )
A ground-based inversion is characterized by poor visibility as a result of trapping fog, smoke, and other restrictions into low levels of the atmosphere.
If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL 310, what is the relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?
A. True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
B. Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
C. They are both the same, 31,000 feet.
A. True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 5) ( ? )
At FL 310, the altimeter is set to pressure altitude (29.92). If the outside air temperature (ambient) is colder than standard, the air is compressed and heavier in weight per unit volume than on a warm day. Thus, in colder-than-standard air, the true altitude is lower than the pressure altitude.
SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 2SM +SHRA SCT005 BKN035 OVC050CB 24/23 A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA.
This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition?
A. Precipitation started at 57 after the hour.
B. 5,000 feet overcast with towering cumulus.
C. Wind steady at 100° magnetic at 12 knots, gusts to 21.
A. Precipitation started at 57 after the hour.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
The remarks (RMK) section of the SPECI report at KGLS indicates rain began at 57 min. past the hour (RAB57); wind shear occurred during takeoff on RWY 09L (WS TKO RW09L); and the wind shifted in direction at 58 min. past the hour due to a frontal passage (WSHFT 58 FROPA).
What wind direction and speed aloft are forecast by this WINDS AND TEMPERATURE ALOFT FORECAST (FB) for FL 390 - “750649”?
A. 150° at 6 knots.
B. 250° at 106 knots.
C. 350° at 64 knots.
B. 250° at 106 knots.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
Coded directions with wind speed greater than 100 kt. range from 51 to 86. Fifty must be subtracted from the direction group and 100 added to the speed group. In this forecast, the wind direction is 250° (75 – 50 = 25), and the wind speed is 106 kt. (100 + 06 = 106).
A low-pressure area is an area of
A. stagnant air.
B. ascending air.
C. descending air.
B. ascending air.
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
Air flows into low pressure areas to replace rising air.
What type conditions can be expected for a flight scheduled to land at Austin-Bergstrom International Airport (KAUS) at 1200Z?
A. IFR conditions due to low visibility.
B. Chance of 1 statute mile visibility and cumulonimbus clouds.
C. MVFR conditions due to low ceilings.
See Figure 147
C. MVFR conditions due to low ceilings.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 7) ( ? )
IFR conditions are due to low visibility in rain and mist, not low ceilings and fog. At KAUS from 0900 to 1800Z (UTC), the forecast is wind 180° at 7 kt., visibility greater than 6 SM, and a broken ceiling at 1,500 ft. AGL. Thus, the expected conditions are MVFR conditions due to a low ceiling that is below 3,000 ft. AGL
What weather feature occurs at altitude levels near the tropopause?
A. Thin layers of cirrus (ice crystal) clouds at the tropopause level.
B. Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones.
C. Abrupt temperature increase above the tropopause.
B. Maximum winds and narrow wind shear zones.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-30C) ( ? )
Temperature and wind vary greatly in the vicinity of the tropopause. Maximum winds generally occur near the tropopause. These winds create narrow zones of wind shear, which often generate hazardous turbulence.
Which type jet stream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?
A. A jet stream associated with a wide isotherm spacing.
B. A straight jet stream associated with a high pressure ridge.
C. A curving jet stream associated with a deep low pressure trough.
C. A curving jet stream associated with a deep low pressure trough.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-30C) ( ? )
The jet stream cirrus shield is its association with turbulence. Extensive cirrus cloudiness often occurs with deepening surface and upper lows. These deepening systems produce the greatest turbulence.
Which weather condition is an example of a nonfrontal instability band?
A. Squall line.
B. Advective fog.
C. Frontogenesis.
A. Squall line.
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
An instability line is a narrow, nonfrontal line or band of convective activity. If this activity is fully developed thunderstorms, it is called a squall line.
The three jet streams are
A. the polar jetstream, the Tropic of Cancer jetstream, and the Maritime jetstream.
B. the polar front jetstream, the subtropical jetstream, and the polar night jetstream.
C. the polar front jetstream, the subtropical jetstream, and the polar jetstream.
B. the polar front jetstream, the subtropical jetstream, and the polar night jetstream.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 8) ( ? )
There are three jetstreams. The polar front jetstream is associated with the polar front or the division between the cold polar and warm tropical air masses. The subtropical jetstream is a very persistent circumpolar jetstream found on the northern periphery of the tropical latitudes between 20° and 30° north latitude. The polar night jetstream is found in the stratosphere in the vicinity of the Arctic Circle during the winter months.
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A. 7,000 ft/min.
B. 6,000 ft/min.
C. 8,000 ft/min.
B. 6,000 ft/min.
Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 7-1-26) ( ? )
Downdrafts in a microburst can be as strong as 6,000 ft/min. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as strong as 45 kt., resulting in a 90-kt. wind shear. The strong horizontal winds occur within a few hundred feet of the ground.
Convective clouds which penetrate a stratus layer can produce which threat to instrument flight?
A. Embedded thunderstorms.
B. Clear air turbulence.
C. Freezing rain.
A. Embedded thunderstorms.
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
A stratus layer may sometimes form in a mildly stable layer while convective clouds penetrate the layer and possibly form thunderstorms. These thunderstorms may be almost or entirely embedded in a massive stratus layer and pose an unseen threat to instrument flight.
Which wind-shear condition results in an increase in airspeed?
A. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
B. Increasing tailwind and decreasing headwind.
C. Increasing tailwind and headwind.
A. Decreasing tailwind and increasing headwind.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-54) ( ? )
When a tailwind shears to a headwind, the airspeed initially increases, the aircraft pitches up, and the altitude increases.
What is the forecast temperature at ATL for the 3,000-foot level? A. Not reported. B. +6°C. C. +6°F. See figure 149
A. Not reported.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
In the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecasts, no temperatures are forecast for the 3,000-ft. level or for a level within 2,500 ft. of station elevation.
Under what conditions would clear air turbulence (CAT) most likely be encountered?
A. When constant pressure charts show 60-knot isotachs less than 20 NM apart.
B. When a sharp trough is moving at a speed less than 20 knots.
C. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart.
C. When constant pressure charts show 20-knot isotachs less than 60 NM apart.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 6) ( ? )
When constant pressure charts show 20-kt. isotachs less than 60 NM apart, there is sufficient horizontal shear for CAT. These conditions normally occur on the polar side of the jet stream.
SIGMETs (other than domestic convective SIGMETs) may be valid for not more than
A. 6 hours for other phenomena.
B. 4 hours for other phenomena.
C. 4 hours for other phenomena and may be issued 2 hours before the valid time.
B. 4 hours for other phenomena.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
SIGMETs are issued for 6 hour periods for conditions associated with hurricanes and 4 hours for all other events. If conditions persist beyond the forecast period, the SIGMET is updated and reissued.
What weather improvement was reported at Lubbock (KLBB) between 1750 and 1818 UTC?
A. The vertical visibility improved by 2,000 feet.
B. The temperature and dew point spread improved.
C. The wind shift and frontal passage at 1812Z.
See figure 145
A. The vertical visibility improved by 2,000 feet.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
The vertical visibility at KLBB at 1750 UTC was reported to be 1,000 ft. (VV010). At 1818 UTC, the vertical visibility was reported to be 3,000 ft. (VV030), an improvement of 2,000 ft. from the 1750 UTC report.
What is the relative moisture content of the air mass along the California coast?
A. Dry in the southern part of the state, with increased chance for wet conditions in the mid portion, then drying over the northern section.
B. Very wet with high potential for condensation.
C. Moist enough for condensation along the length of the coast.
See figure 153,154,155
A. Dry in the southern part of the state, with increased chance for wet conditions in the mid portion, then drying over the northern section.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
Determine the moisture content by comparing the temperature/dew point spread of the stations along the California coast at the 200-, 300-, and 500-mb pressure levels. The spread, if given, is located at the lower left of the station symbol. Both the 500- and 200-mb charts indicate relatively wide spread dry conditions. The 300-mb chart shows that moisture is high in northern California
The decrease in wind speed from the core of the jet stream is the greatest on
A. the acute angle side of the jet stream.
B. the equatorial side of the jet stream.
C. the polar side of the jet stream.
C. the polar side of the jet stream.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-30C) ( ? )
The rate of decreased wind speed is considerably greater on the polar side than on the equatorial side. The magnitude of wind shear is greater on the polar side than on the equatorial side.
Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as
A. 1,500 ft/min.
B. 6,000 ft/min.
C. 4,500 ft/min.
B. 6,000 ft/min.
Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 7-1-26) ( ? )
Downdrafts in a microburst can be as strong as 6,000 ft/min. Horizontal winds near the surface can be as strong as 45 kt., resulting in a 90-kt. wind shear. The strong horizontal winds occur within a few hundred feet of the ground.
Which pressure is defined as station pressure?
A. Altimeter setting.
B. Actual pressure at field elevation.
C. Station barometric pressure reduced to sea level.
B. Actual pressure at field elevation.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 5) ( ? )
Pressure can be measured only at the point of measurement. The pressure measured at a station or airport is “station pressure,” or the actual pressure at field elevation.
METAR KFSO 031053Z VRB02KT 7SM MIFG SKC 15/14 A3012 RMK SLP993 SNINCR 1/10
In the above METAR, the SNINCR 1/10 indicates
A. sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and 1” of snow in the last 10 hours.
B. sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and a snow depth of 10” and a 1” increase in the last hour.
C. sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and 0.10” of snow on the runway landing zone during the last hour.
B. sea-level pressure 999.3 hectopascals and a snow depth of 10” and a 1” increase in the last hour.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
SNINCR (Snow Increasing Rapidly) indicates a snow depth increase of 1 inch in the past hour with a total depth on the ground of 10 inches.
What weather condition occurs at the altitude where the dewpoint lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge?
A. Stable air changes to unstable air.
B. Precipitation starts.
C. Cloud bases form.
C. Cloud bases form.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 11) ( ? )
The altitude where the dew point lapse rate and the dry adiabatic lapse rate converge is where convective cloud bases form. Unsaturated air in a convective current cools at about 3.0°C (5.4°F) per 1,000 ft.; dew point decreases at about 5/9°C (1°F) per 1,000 ft. When they converge, cloud bases form.
What term describes an elongated area of low pressure?
A. Trough.
B. Ridge.
C. Hurricane or typhoon.
A. Trough.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 5) ( ? )
A trough is defined as an elongated area of low pressure with the lowest pressure along a line marking maximum cyclonic curvature.
A SIGMET may be issued
A. for an area where conditions are deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations.
B. for an area where conditions are likely to develop air turbulence above FL 310.
C. when expectations for dust storms or icing is predicted to be higher than 40% over a 1,000 square mile area.
A. for an area where conditions are deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
A SIGMET may be issued when any of the specific conditions occur or are expected to occur in an area deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations.
Land surface cooling on the coast results in
A. a land breeze.
B. a sea breeze.
C. a chinook wind.
A. a land breeze.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 9) ( ? )
At night, the wind blows from cool land to warmer water and creates a land breeze.
What determines how icing is reported on a PIREP?
A. Rate of accumulation.
B. Type of ice.
C. Thickness of ice.
A. Rate of accumulation.
Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 7-1-21) ( ? )
Icing intensities are classified based on the rate of icing accumulation.
En route at FL 270, the altimeter is set correctly. On descent, a pilot fails to set the local altimeter setting of 30.57. If the field elevation is 650 feet, and the altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate upon landing?
A. 585 feet.
B. 1,300 feet.
C. Sea level.
C. Sea level.
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 8) ( ? )
If an altimeter is set to 29.92 for flight at FL 270 and is not adjusted to the correct altimeter setting of 30.57 during descent, the altimeter will indicate an altitude lower than actual by 650 ft. (1,000 ft. × the difference between the two altimeter settings, which is .65). Thus, if the airplane lands at an airport with a field elevation of 650 ft., the altimeter will indicate sea level (650 ft. airport elevation – 650 ft. altimeter setting error).
Where do squall lines most often develop?
A. In an occluded front.
B. Behind a stationary front.
C. Ahead of a cold front.
C. Ahead of a cold front.
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
A squall line is a nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms. Most often squall lines develop ahead of a cold front in moist, unstable air.
All ATC facilities using radar weather processors with the ability to determine precipitation intensity will describe the intensity as
A. light, moderate, heavy, extreme.
B. light, moderate, heavy, extreme, severe.
C. light, moderate, heavy, intense, extreme, severe.
A. light, moderate, heavy, extreme.
Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 7-1-13) ( ? )
All ATC facilities using radar weather processors with the ability to determine precipitation intensity will describe the intensity to pilots as light, moderate, heavy, or extreme.
Which type weather conditions are covered in the Convective SIGMET?
A. Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4-inch hail or tornadoes.
B. Cumulonimbus clouds with tops above the tropopause and thunderstorms with 1/2-inch hail or funnel clouds.
C. Any thunderstorm with a severity level of VIP 2 or more.
A. Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4-inch hail or tornadoes.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
Convective SIGMETs are issued for (1) severe thunderstorm due to surface winds greater than 50 kt., hail at the surface equal to or greater than 3/4 in. in diameter, or tornadoes; (2) embedded thunderstorms; (3) line of thunderstorms; or (4) thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level 4 affecting 40% or more of an area at least 3,000 square mi.
When encountering severe turbulence, you should
A. Maintain a constant altitude.
B. Slow to turbulent air penetration speed.
C. Maintain constant airspeed and altitude.
B. Slow to turbulent air penetration speed.
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA H-8083-25B)
When encountering severe turbulence, you should slow down to turbulent air penetration speed, maneuvering speed (VA). A faster airspeed could cause excessive stress on the aircraft when maneuvering.
Downdrafts in a thunderstorm may exceed
A. 24 knots.
B. 34 knots.
C. 14 knots.
A. 24 knots.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6A Chap 11) ( ? )
Downdrafts can exceed 2,500 feet per minute (fpm). We convert that to knots by multiplying
2,500 fpm × 60 minutes = 150,000 feet per hour
1 nautical mile = 6,076 feet
150,000 feet per hour ÷ 6,076 feet = 24.69 knots
To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly
A. on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.
B. above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.
C. below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline.
A. on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.
Answer (A) is correct. (AIM Para 7-3-8) ( ? )
To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid wake turbulence, pilots of aircraft that produce strong wake vortices, which include heavy and large jet aircraft, should fly on the established glide path and on the approach course centerline or the extended centerline of the runway.
Which INITIAL flight deck indications should a pilot be aware of when a headwind shears to a calm wind?
A. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
B. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches up, and altitude decreases.
C. Indicated airspeed increases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude increases.
A. Indicated airspeed decreases, aircraft pitches down, and altitude decreases.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-54) ( ? )
As the wind shears from a headwind to a calm wind, there is a quick reduction in the headwind component and a decrease in aircraft performance. The indications will be a decrease in indicated airspeed, a pitch down of the airplane’s nose, and a decrease in altitude.
Which area or areas of the Northern Hemisphere experience a generally east to west movement of weather systems?
A. Subtropical only.
B. Arctic only.
C. Arctic and subtropical.
C. Arctic and subtropical.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 10) ( ? )
The high-pressure belt at about 30° north latitude forces air outward at the surface to the north and to the south. The southward moving air is deflected by the Coriolis force, becoming the well-known subtropical northeast (moving northeast to southwest) trade winds.
In the arctic region (60° north latitude and above), the heavier, denser air moves south at a low level toward the Equator but is turned to the right by the Coriolis force, causing the low-level polar easterlies (moving east to west).
What is the approximate temperature for a flight from southern California to central Kansas at FL 350? A. –39°C. B. –48°C. C. –44°C. See figure 153,154,155
C. –44°C.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
You will need to use the 300-mb (FL 390) chart and the 200-mb (FL 300) chart and interpolate for FL 350.
The temperature is located in the upper left corner of the station on a constant pressure chart. On the 300-mb chart, the station in Southern California is reporting –36°C. Following the reporting stations along the intended flight path, you will find temperatures of –36, –38, –39, –42, and –41°C on the 300-mb chart. Similarly, you will find temperatures of –47, –47, –48, –48, and –52°C on the 200-mb chart. When averaging these temperatures at each level, the difference is about 9°, or approximately 1° per thousand feet of altitude. For FL 350, the estimated temperature would be –44°C.
What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?
A. Rotor cloud.
B. Low stratus.
C. Standing lenticular.
A. Rotor cloud.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 17) ( ? )
When moisture is sufficient to produce clouds on the lee side of a mountain, the lowest clouds associated with mountain wave are rotor clouds. These are found under each crest of the standing wave.
Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds?
A. Rime ice.
B. Clear ice.
C. Frost ice.
A. Rime ice.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 18) ( ? )
Rime ice forms when drops are small, such as those found in low-level stratus clouds. Its irregular shape makes it very effective in decreasing aerodynamic efficiency of airfoils.
An increase in temperature with an altitude increase
A. is indication of an inversion.
B. denotes the beginning of the stratosphere.
C. means a cold front passage.
A. is indication of an inversion.
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
Normally, as air rises and expands in the atmosphere, the temperature decreases. However, when the temperature of the air rises with altitude, this indicates that a temperature inversion exists.
What condition produces the most frequent type of ground- or surface-based temperature inversion?
A. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.
B. Widespread sinking of air within a thick layer aloft resulting in heating by compression.
C. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over cold air.
A. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively calm night.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 2) ( ? )
An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when the wind is relatively calm. The ground radiates heat and cools much faster than the overlying air. Air in contact with the ground becomes cold, while the temperature a few hundred feet above changes very little.
Which weather condition is present when the tropical storm is upgraded to a hurricane?
A. Highest windspeed, 100 knots or more.
B. A clear area or hurricane eye has formed.
C. Sustained winds of 64 knots or more.
C. Sustained winds of 64 knots or more.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 21) ( ? )
Tropical cyclones are classified by their intensity based on average 1-min. wind speeds. To be classified as a hurricane, the cyclone must have sustained winds of 64 kt. or more.
What is the primary cause of all changes in the Earth’s weather?
A. Movement of air masses from moist areas to dry areas.
B. Variations of solar energy at the Earth’s surface.
C. Changes in air pressure over the Earth’s surface.
B. Variations of solar energy at the Earth’s surface.
Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of a heat exchange. Unequal solar heating of the Earth’s surface causes differences in air pressure that result in all changes in the Earth’s weather.
When you hear a SIGMET on an ATC frequency forecasting severe icing conditions on the route to your destination, you plan for
A. very little airframe icing because of an OAT of -10°C or colder, the moisture is already frozen and cannot adhere to airplane surfaces.
B. the possibility of freezing rain and freezing drizzle that can accumulate on and beyond the limits of any system.
C. the installed transport category airplane ice protection system protecting against all types and levels of icing as designed.
B. the possibility of freezing rain and freezing drizzle that can accumulate on and beyond the limits of any system.
Answer (B) is correct. (AIM PC Glossary) ( ? )
Severe icing is defined by the rate of accumulation such that deicing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard.
Clear air turbulence associated with a jet stream is
A. most commonly found in temperatures between -40° and -50°C.
B. most commonly found in the vicinity of the tropopause.
C. similar to that associated with a tropical maritime front.
B. most commonly found in the vicinity of the tropopause.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-30C) ( ? )
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a jet stream is most often found in the vicinity of the tropopause, which is the boundary layer between the troposphere and the stratosphere.
With high altitude moisture present, cirrus clouds will form
A. on the polar side of the jet stream.
B. on the acute angle side of the jet stream.
C. on the equatorial side of the jet stream.
C. on the equatorial side of the jet stream.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-30C) ( ? )
Air travels in a corkscrew path around the jet core with upward motion on the equatorial side. When high level moisture is available, cirriform clouds form on the equatorial side of the jet stream.
Steep frontal surfaces are usually associated with
A. fast moving cold front.
B. fast moving warm front.
C. dry lines.
A. fast moving cold front.
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
A fast moving, steep cold front forces upward motion of the warm air along its leading edge. The frontal slope is steep near the leading edge as cold air replaces warm air.
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
A. Dew collects on the surface and then freezes because the surface temperature is lower than the air temperature.
B. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling.
C. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.
C. Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint and the dewpoint is also below freezing.
Answer (C) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
Frost forms when both the temperature of the collecting surface is below the dew point and the dew point is also below freezing. Frost is the deposition of water vapor to ice crystals.
METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44.
Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland (KMAF)?
A. Wind was 020° magnetic at 20 knots.
B. The ceiling was at 25,000 feet MSL.
C. Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour.
C. Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
The report at KMAF indicates RMK RAE44, which means remarks follow: rain ended 44 min. past the hour (or 16 min. before the hour).
Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?
A. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
B. Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
C. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
C. Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 7-3-3) ( ? )
The strength of a vortex is governed by the weight, speed, and shape of the wing of the generating aircraft. The vortex characteristics of any aircraft can be changed by extension of flaps and landing gear, as well as by changes in speed. The greatest vortex strength of a large jet airplane occurs when the airplane is heavy, slow, and clean (gear and flaps up).
What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?
A. Thunderstorms may occur over the station and within 50 miles of the station.
B. Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity.
C. Thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 miles of the runway complex.
B. Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 7) ( ? )
The term VC (vicinity) applies to weather conditions expected within a 5- to 10-SM radius of the airport, but not at the airport itself. Thus, VCTS in a TAF means thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity of the airport.
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A. Air mass thunderstorms.
B. A stable layer of air.
C. An unstable layer of air.
B. A stable layer of air.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 2) ( ? )
A temperature inversion is defined as an increase in temperature with height; i.e., the normal lapse rate is inverted. Thus, any warm air rises to its own temperature and forms a stable layer of air.
What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) are expected for a flight over TUS at FL 270? A. 010° true; 5 knots; ISA +13°C. B. 347° magnetic; 5 knots; ISA –10°C. C. 350° true; 5 knots; ISA +5°C. See Figure 149
A. 010° true; 5 knots; ISA +13°C. Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? ) For conditions at FL 270 over TUS in Fig. 149, interpolate between values at FL 240 and FL 300. First decode the two given flight levels: FL 240 = 050° at 05 kt. and –17°C FL 300 = 330° at 05 kt. and –33°C Difference = 80° at 0 kt. and –16°C Interpolation for each value gives the following: FL 270 = 010° at 5 kt. and –25°C Compare the temperature to standard. Compute the standard temperature by subtracting the lapse rate at FL 270 [(27,000 ÷ 1,000) × 2° = 54°] from sea level standard of 15°C, which is –39°C. The interpolated temperature for FL 270 is approximately 14°C (39 – 25) warmer than standard. Due to variations, temperature is ISA +13°C. (ISA is the International Standard Atmosphere. ISA temperature at sea level is 15°C and decreases at a rate of 2°/1,000 ft. up to 36,000 ft. MSL.)
Why are downdrafts in a mature thunderstorm hazardous?
A. Downdrafts become warmer than the surrounding air and reverse into an updraft before reaching the surface.
B. Downdrafts converge toward a central location under the storm after striking the surface.
C. Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity.
C. Downdrafts are kept cool by cold rain which tends to accelerate the downward velocity.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 19) ( ? )
During the mature stage, cold rain in the downdraft slows compressional heating, and the downdraft remains colder than the surrounding air. Thus, its downward speed is accelerated and may exceed 2,500 fpm.
Shallow frontal surfaces tend to give
A. extensive cloudiness and large areas of precipitation.
B. heavy precipitation developing along the leading edge of the front.
C. areas of cloudiness and scattered precipitation.
A. extensive cloudiness and large areas of precipitation.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 10) ( ? )
Shallow frontal surfaces tend to give extensive cloudiness with large precipitation areas.
Visibility above a haze layer is poor when looking
A. forward.
B. upward.
C. downward.
C. downward.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 16) ( ? )
Haze occurs in stable air and is usually only a few thousand feet thick, but sometimes may extend as high as 15,000 feet. Downward visibility above a haze layer is poor.
Stratus clouds are known for
A. little or no turbulence with hazardous icing at temperatures near or below freezing.
B. some turbulence and not significant icing.
C. some turbulence and small amounts of icing.
A. little or no turbulence with hazardous icing at temperatures near or below freezing.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 3) ( ? )
Stratus clouds are known for very little turbulence but can pose a serious icing problem if temperatures are near or below freezing.
Which type clouds are indicative of very strong turbulence?
A. Standing lenticular.
B. Cirrocumulus.
C. Nimbostratus.
A. Standing lenticular.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-57) ( ? )
Standing lenticular clouds are formed on the crests of mountain waves. Wind can be quite strong blowing through these clouds, and their presence is a good indication of very strong turbulence.
Any wind blowing down an incline where the incline is influential in causing the wind is a
A. katabatic wind.
B. land breeze.
C. valley wind.
A. katabatic wind.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-6A Chap 4) ( ? )
A katabatic wind is any wind blowing down an incline when the incline is influential in causing the wind. Mountain wind is a katabatic wind.
What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)?
A. Heavy rain showers began 42 minutes after the hour.
B. The ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated 1,800 feet above sea level.
C. Light rain showers.
See figure 145
C. Light rain showers.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
In the METAR for KCDS is the code –SHRA, which means there are light (–) showers (SH) and the precipitation type is rain (RA).
The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of
A. SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Wind Shear Advisories, and Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW).
B. Wind Shear Advisories, Radar Weather Reports, SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).
C. SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).
C. SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 1) ( ? )
The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast service over selected VORs of in-flight weather advisories, i.e., SIGMETs, convective SIGMETs, AIRMETs, severe weather forecast alerts (AWW), and center weather advisories (CWA).
Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is
A. using high power settings.
B. operating at high airspeeds.
C. developing lift.
C. developing lift.
Answer (C) is correct. (AIM Para 7-3-1) ( ? )
Lift is generated by the creation of a pressure differential over the wing’s, or other airfoil’s, surface. The lowest pressure occurs over the upper wing surface and the highest pressure under the wing. This pressure differential triggers the roll up of the airflow aft of the wing resulting in swirling air masses trailing downstream from the wingtips. An airplane’s wake consists of two counter-rotating vortices.
Isobars on a surface weather chart represent lines of equal pressure
A. at a given atmospheric pressure altitude.
B. at the surface.
C. reduced to sea level.
C. reduced to sea level.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
Isobars on a surface analysis (weather) chart represent the sea level pressure pattern, usually spaced at 4-mb, or 4-hPa, intervals. This allows a comparison to be made of pressure reports by stations at various altitudes.
Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to
A. temperature reaching a maximum closer to noon than to sunset.
B. outgoing terrestrial radiation peaking at noon.
C. minimum temperature occurring after sunrise.
C. minimum temperature occurring after sunrise.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-6B) ( ? )
At night, heating is absent, but terrestrial radiation continues cooling the earth’s surface. Cooling continues until shortly after sunrise, when incoming solar radiation once again exceeds outgoing terrestrial radiation. Minimum surface air temperature usually occurs shortly after sunrise.
Which conditions are necessary for the formation of upslope fog?
A. Rain falling through stratus clouds and a 10- to 25-knot wind moving the precipitation up the slope.
B. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind.
C. A clear sky, little or no wind, and 100 percent relative humidity.
B. Moist, stable air being moved over gradually rising ground by a wind.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-6B Chap 16) ( ? )
Upslope fog is formed by moist, stable air being cooled as it is gradually moved up sloping terrain by a wind. Once the upslope wind ceases, the fog dissipates.
When will frost most likely form on aircraft surfaces?
A. On clear nights with stable air and light winds.
B. On overcast nights with freezing drizzle precipitation.
C. On clear nights with convective action and a small temperature/dewpoint spread.
A. On clear nights with stable air and light winds.
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
Frost will most likely form on aircraft surfaces on clear nights with stable air and light winds. These are conditions that in all other respects make weather ideal for flying.
Constant Pressure Analysis Charts contain contours, isotherms, and some contain isotachs. The contours depict
A. highs, lows, troughs, and ridges on the surface.
B. ridges, lows, troughs, and highs aloft.
C. highs, lows, troughs, and ridges corrected to MSL.
B. ridges, lows, troughs, and highs aloft.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 4) ( ? )
Constant pressure analysis charts contain contours and isotherms, and some contain isotachs. Contours are lines of equal height and depict highs, lows, troughs, and ridges aloft in the same manner as isobars on the surface chart.
On final approach to the airport, airplane in position #5 would experience A. decreased ground speed. B. downdraft. C. poor performance. See Figure 144
C. poor performance.
Answer (C) is correct. (AC 00-54) ( ? )
Groundspeed will increase while indicated airspeed and lift will decrease, potentially leading to a stall with loss of altitude and landing short of the runway.
If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off
A. prior to the point where the jet touched down.
B. beyond the point where the jet touched down.
C. at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
B. beyond the point where the jet touched down.
Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 7-3-6) ( ? )
You should ensure that an interval of at least 2 min. has elapsed before your takeoff behind a heavy jet that has just landed. Note the point where the heavy jet touched down and plan to lift off beyond that point. The vortices developed by the heavy jet will no longer be generated when lift is no longer produced (which is at the point of touchdown of the jet’s nose gear).
Which type storms are most likely to produce funnel clouds or tornadoes?
A. Cold front or squall line thunderstorms.
B. Storms associated with icing and supercooled water.
C. Air mass thunderstorms.
A. Cold front or squall line thunderstorms.
Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25B Chap 12) ( ? )
Funnel clouds or tornadoes normally form with steady-state thunderstorms associated with cold fronts or squall lines. The mature stage updrafts in a steady-state thunderstorm are stronger and last longer than those in air mass storms and may persist for several hours.
Maximum Turbulence Potential forecasts
A. exhibit the same accuracy during all 24 hours of the day.
B. are only as accurate as the computer model.
C. display all turbulence well.
B. are only as accurate as the computer model.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 5) ( ? )
This product is based on an ensemble of turbulence indicators and, therefore, can capture more diverse sources of turbulence and provide a more reliable forecast than can be provided by a single indicator. The accuracy of the product depends on the accuracy of the computer model output used to create it.
Moderate CAT is considered likely when the vertical wind shear is
A. 5 knots per 1,000 feet or greater and/or the horizontal wind shear is 40 knots per 150 miles or greater.
B. 10 knots per 1,000 feet or greater and/or the horizontal wind shear is 50 knots per 150 miles or greater.
C. 15 knots per 2,000 feet or greater and/or the horizontal wind shear is 40 knots per 150 miles or greater.
A. 5 knots per 1,000 feet or greater and/or the horizontal wind shear is 40 knots per 150 miles or greater.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-30C) ( ? )
Wind shear occurs in all directions, but, for convenience, it is measured along vertical and horizontal axes, thus becoming horizontal and vertical wind shear. Moderate clear air turbulence (CAT) is considered likely when the vertical wind shear is 5 knots per 1,000 feet or greater and/or the horizontal wind shear is 40 knots per 150 miles or greater.
Which is one of the three key elements in an effective clear air turbulence (CAT) Avoidance System?
A. A dedicated planning/dispatch function.
B. An ATC-based communications system.
C. Appropriate training every 6 months.
A. A dedicated planning/dispatch function.
Answer (A) is correct. (AC 00-30C) ( ? )
There are three key elements in an effective CAT avoidance system: (1) an appropriate initial and recurrent training program, (2) a dedicated planning/dispatch function, and (3) a fully supported operational implementation of a PIREP/communications system (not ATC-based).
If a SIGMET alert is announced, how can information contained in the SIGMET be obtained?
A. By contacting a weather watch station.
B. By contacting the nearest FSS.
C. ATC will announce the hazard and advise when information will be provided in the FSS broadcast.
B. By contacting the nearest FSS.
Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 7-1-11) ( ? )
Pilots, upon hearing the alert notice, if they have not received the advisory or are in doubt, should contact the nearest FSS and ascertain whether the advisory is pertinent to their flights.
The minimums for the nonprecision approach at KAMA are 3/4 mile visibility and 400 feet. When operating under Part 121, can the pilot legally execute the approach with the given METAR data?
A. No, they do not meet the minimum visibility requirements.
B. Yes, they meet the minimum visibility requirements.
C. No, they do not meet the minimum ceiling requirements.
See figure 145
B. Yes, they meet the minimum visibility requirements.
Answer (B) is correct. (AC 00-45H Chap 3) ( ? )
The visibility given in the METAR is 3/4 mile, equal to the minimum for the approach. Part 121 allows the approach to continue past the final approach fix if a weather report indicates the visibility is equal to or greater than the approach minimum, irrespective of the ceiling level.
