Regulations Flashcards
1
Q
The definition of nighttime is:
A-sunset to sunrise.
B-1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C-the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
A
C-the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
2
Q
In regards to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may:
A-not pay less than the pro rate share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
B-act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.
C-not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.
A
A-not pay less than the pro rate share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
3
Q
According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may:
A-be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoff and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days.
B-not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.
C-not pay less than the pro rate share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
A
C-not pay less than the pro rate share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
4
Q
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot-in-command of any aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
A-if the passengers pay all the operating expenses.
B-if a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
C-there is no exception.
A
B-if a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
5
Q
(Refer to figure 74.) What minimum pilot certificate is require for a flight departing out of Hayward Executive (area 6)?
A-student pilot certificate.
B-private pilot certificate.
C-sport pilot certificate.
A
A-student pilot certificate.
6
Q
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
A-gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.
B-airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
C-single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and see.
A
B-airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.
7
Q
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?
A-airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than air.
B-single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and see.
C-ligher-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.
A
B-single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and see.
8
Q
The pilot-in-command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
A-aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the administrator.
B-aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
C-aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.
A
B-aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
9
Q
A third class medical certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire on midnight on:
A-august 10, 2 years later.
B-august 31, 5 years later.
C-august 31, 2 years later.
A
B-august 31, 5 years later.
10
Q
A third class medical certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire on midnight on:
A-august 10, 3 years later.
B-august 31, 5 years later.
C-august 31, 3 years later.
A
B-august 31, 5 years later.
11
Q
A third class medical certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on:
A-may 3, 1 year later.
B-may 31, 1 year later.
C-may 31, 2 years later.
A
C-may 31, 2 years later.
12
Q
For private pilot operations, a Second Class medical certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year will expire at midnight on:
A-july 15, 2 years later.
B-july 31, 1 year later.
C-july 31, 2 years later.
A
C-july 31, 2 years later.
13
Q
For private pilot operations, a first class medical certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year will expire at midnight on:
A-october 21, 2 years later.
B-october 31, next year.
C-october 31, 5 years later.
A
C-october 31, 5 years later.
14
Q
To operate under basicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding:
A-48 months.
B-24 months.
C-12 months.
A
A-48 months.
15
Q
For private pilot operations under basicMed, the pilot-in-command is allowed to fly with no more than:
A-six passengers.
B-five passengers.
C-five occupants.
A
B-five passengers.
16
Q
To maintain basicMed privilege you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every:
A-48 months.
B-24 months.
C-12 months.
A
A-48 months.
17
Q
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot-in-command of an aircraft?
A-certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review.
B-a pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
C-an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate Current medical certificate if required.
A
C-an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate Current medical certificate if required.
18
Q
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
A-when acting as a crew chief during launch an recovery.
B-only when passengers are carried.
C-anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crew-member.
A
C-anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crew-member.
19
Q
A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot-in-command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current:
A-logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
B-medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
C-endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
A
B-medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
20
Q
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request that any:
A-authorized representative pf the department of transportation.
B-person in a position of authority.
C- local law enforcement officer.
A
C- local law enforcement officer.
21
Q
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding:
A-6 calendar months.
B-12 calendar months.
C-24 calendar months.
A
C-24 calendar months.
22
Q
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is at 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is:
A-1829
B-1859
C-1929
A
C-1929
23
Q
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding:
A-90 days.
B-12 calendar months.
C-24 calendar months.
A
A-90 days.
24
Q
Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least thee takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding:
A-90 days.
B-60 days.
C-30 days.
A
A-90 days.
25
To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same:
A-make and model.
B-category and class, but not type.
C-category, class, and type if a type rating is required.
C-category, class, and type if a type rating is required.
26
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot-in-command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in:
A-the same category and class of aircraft to be used.
B-the same type of aircraft to be used.
C-any aircraft.
A-the same category and class of aircraft to be used.
27
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
A-august 8, 2 years later.
B-august 31, next year.
C-august 31, 2 years later.
C-august 31, 2 years later.
28
Each recreational or private pilot is required to have:
A-a biennial flight review.
B-an annual flight review.
Ca semiannual flight review.
A-a biennial flight review.
29
Three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot-in-command at night must be done during the time period from:
A-sunrise to sunset.
B-1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
C-the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
B-1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
30
If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only:
A-30 days after the date of the move.
B-60 days after the date of the move.
C-90 days after the date of the move.
A-30 days after the date of the move.
31
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the:
A-federal aviation administration.
B-pilot-in-command.
C-aircraft manufacturer.
B-pilot-in-command.
32
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot-in-command may:
A-deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the administrator within 24 hours.
B-deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency.
C-not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the administrator.
B-deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency.
33
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the administrator?
A-within7 days.
B-within 10 days.
C-upon request.
C-upon request.
34
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
A-a certificated aircraft mechanic.
B-the pilot-in-command.
C-the owner or operator.
B-the pilot-in-command.
35
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
A-check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
B-become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
C-review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
B-become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
36
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include:
A-the designation of an alternate airport.
B-a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.
C-an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
C-an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
37
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot-in-command to:
A-review traffic control light signal procedures.
B-check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locater transmitter (ELT).
C-determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
C-determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
38
No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly thereafter for at least:
A-20 minutes.
B-30 minutes.
C-1 hour.
A-20 minutes.
39
Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:
A-takeoffs and landings.
B-all flight conditions.
C-flight in turbulent air.
A-takeoffs and landings.
40
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to see their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?
A-safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
B-safety belts Turing takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during take of and landing and while en route.
C-safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
C-safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
41
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does the pilot-in-command have concerning the use of safety belts?
A-the pilot-in-command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight.
B-the pilot-in-command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
C-the pilot-in-command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts.
B-the pilot-in-command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
42
Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of:
A-all passengers.
B-the pilot-in-command.
C-the right-seat pilot.
B-the pilot-in-command.
43
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about the passengers during:
A-taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
B-all flight conditions.
C-flight in turbulent air.
A-taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
44
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?
A-pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.
B-passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
C-each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.
B-passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.
45
A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding:
A-8 hours.
B-12 hours.
C-24 hours.
A-8 hours.
46
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
A-in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
B-only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment.
C-under no condition.
A-in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
47
No person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with:
A-.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
B-.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
C-.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
C-.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
48
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Devision?
A-no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
B-no later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
C-required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
A-no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
49
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?
A-a balloon.
B-an aircraft in distress.
C-an aircraft on final approach to land.
B-an aircraft in distress.
1. AiD
2. balloon
3. glider
4. aircraft towing. / refueling.
5. airship
6. airplane/rotorcraft/gyroplane.
50
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A-glider.
B-airship.
C-aircraft refueling other aircraft.
A-glider.
1. AiD
2. balloon
3. glider
4. aircraft towing. / refueling.
5. airship
6. airplane/rotorcraft/gyroplane.
51
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?
A-the faster aircraft shall give way.
B-the aircraft on the left shall give way.
C-each aircraft shall give way to the right.
B-the aircraft on the left shall give way.
52
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?
A-the airship.
B-the airplane.
C-each pilot should alter course to the right.
A-the airship.
1. AiD
2. balloon
3. glider
4. aircraft towing. / refueling.
5. airship
6. airplane/rotorcraft/gyroplane.
53
Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?
A-gyroplane.
B-airship.
C-aircraft towing other aircraft.
C-aircraft towing other aircraft.
1. AiD
2. balloon
3. glider
4. aircraft towing. / refueling.
5. airship
6. airplane/rotorcraft/gyroplane.
54
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft:
A-that has the other to its right.
B-that is the least maneuverable.
C-at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
C-at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
55
An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding:
A-120 days.
B-180 days.
C-365 days.
B-180 days.
56
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
A-when a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.
B-when intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.
C-when intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees.
B-when intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.
57
When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot-in-command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is:
A-when the clearance states "at pilot's discretion."
B-an emergency.
C-if the clearance contains a restriction.
B-an emergency.
58
As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?
A-when operating in Class A airspace at night.
B-if an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions.
C-in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
C-in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
59
When should a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?
A-within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
B-immediately.
C-Within 7 days.
A-within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
60
What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
A-take no special action since you are pilot-in-command.
B-file a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
C-file a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.
B-file a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
61
An ACT clearance provides:
A-priority over all other traffic.
B-adequate separation from all traffic.
C-authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
C-authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
62
While on a VFR cross-country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
A-121.5 MHz.
B-122.5 MHz.
C-128.725 MHz.
A-121.5 MHz.
63
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
A-an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
B-an altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
C-an altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
A-an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
64
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is:
A-1,000 feet.
B-1,500 feet.
C.2,000 feet.
C-2,000 feet.
Class C, D, or E (below 10,000 MSL)
65
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
A-1 mile.
B-3 miles.
C-4 miles.
B.-3 miles.
(below 10,000 MSL is in B, C, D or E FOR 3)
66
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is:
A-remain clear of clouds.
B-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
C-500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
B-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
(below 10,000 MSL is in B, C, D or E)
67
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is:
A-500 feet.
B-1,000 feet.
C-1,500 feet.
B-1,000 Feet.
(above 1,200 MSL is class B,C, D, E)
68
VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of:
A-3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
B-5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
C-5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.
A-3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
(True for C, D, E, but 3 miles for B is true)
69
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in a controlled airspace is:
A-1 mile.
B-3 miles.
C-5 miles.
C-5 miles.
(Class E above 10,000MSL)
70
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is:
A-1,000 feet.
B-2,000 feet.
C-1 mile.
C-1 mile.
(Class E above 10,000MSL)
71
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 Feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is:
A-500 feet.
B-1,000 feet.
C-1,500 feet.
B-1,000 feet.
(Class E above is 1,000 above & below, 1 mile horizontal)
72
(Refer to figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,200 feet AGL are:
A-1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
B-1 mile and clear of clouds.
C-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
C-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
(Class E airspace starts at 700 Feet AGL)
73
(Refer to figure 22, Area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are:
A-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
B-3 miles and clear of clouds.
C-1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
A-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.
(Class E, but below 700 during DAY, VIS is 1 mile, night is 3)
74
(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are:
A-1 mile and clear of clouds.
B-1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
C-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
C-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
(Class E airspace, during daylight)
75
(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are:
A-3 miles and clear of clouds.
B-1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.
C-1 mile and clear of clouds.
C-1 mile and clear of clouds.
(Outside airspace and Below 1200 [at 700] is class G)
76
(Refer to figure 78). What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from Ozawa (K36) airport during the day?
A-3 statue miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds.
B-0 statute miles, clear of clouds.
C-1 statue mile, Clear of clouds.
C-1 statue mile, Clear of clouds.
(outside any shading or lines, means class G, 1 statue mile, CoC basic departure min.)
77
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is:
A-less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
B-at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain Clear of Clouds.
C-at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
B-at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain Clear of Clouds.
78
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
A-1 mile flight visibility.
B-1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceilings.
C-3 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceilings.
A-1 mile flight visibility.
79
Under what conditions, if any, may a private pilot operate a helicopter under special VFR at night within a class D airspace?
A-the helicopter must be fully instrument equipped and the pilot must be instrument rated.
B-the flight visibility must be at least 1 mile.
C-there are no conditions; regulations permit this.
C-there are no conditions; regulations permit this.
80
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
A-automated flight service station.
B-air traffic control tower.
C-air route traffic control center.
B-air traffic control tower.
81
(Refer to Figure 26, area 2.) Inflight and approaching the Bryn (PVT) Airstrip, the weather minimums are:
A-1 statue mile visibility.
B-3 statute miles in all airspace.
C-no visibility, remain clear of clouds.
A-1 statue mile visibility.
82
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a VFR operations in a Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
A-1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
B-1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
C-3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
A-1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
(below 700 in Class G)
83
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is:
A-1 mile.
B-3 miles.
C-5 miles.
B-3 miles.
( Glass G at night more than 1,200AGL)
84
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is:
A-1 mile.
B-3 miles.
C-5miles.
A-1 mile.
(Class G, more than 1,200AGL in day)
85
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is:
A-500 feet.
B-1,000 feet.
C-1,500 feet.
A-500 feet.
(Class G more than 1,200AGL during day and night)
86
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the:
A-flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
B-ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
C-ground visibility a that airport is at least 3 miles.
C-ground visibility a that airport is at least 3 miles.
(Class D airspace)
87
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are:
A-500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
B-1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
C-clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.
B-1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
88
Which causing altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?
A-even thousandths.
B-even thousandths plus 500 feet.
C-odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
C-odd thousandths plus 500 feet.
89
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a victor airway with a magnetic course of 175 degrees? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet.
A-4,500 feet.
B-5,000 feet.
C-5,500 feet.
C-5,500 feet.
90
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185 degrees?
A-4,000 feet.
B-4,500 feet.
C-5,000 feet.
B-4,500 feet.
91
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a:
A-magnetic heading of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.
B-magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.
C-true course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.
B-magnetic course of 0 degrees through 179 degrees.
92
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
A-normal, utility, acrobatic.
B-airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
C-landplane, seaplane.
A-normal, utility, acrobatic.
93
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
A-airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
B-normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
C-transport, restricted, provisional.
A-airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
94
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate:
A-beneath the floor of Class B airspace.
B-over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
C-from the primary airport within Class D airspace.
B-over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
95
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
A-flight under instrument flight rules.
B-flight over aa densely populated area.
C-flight within Class Airspace.
B-flight over aa densely populated area.
96
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight:
A-over a densely populated area.
B-in Class D airspace under special VFR.
C-except by prior arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft.
C-except by prior arrangement with the pilot-in-command of each aircraft.
97
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
A-only in an emergency.
B-if precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
C-if prior permission is received from the FAA.
B-if precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
98
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?
A-the tower will automatically close the flight plan when the aircraft turns off the runway.
B-the pilot must close the flight plan with the FAA upon landing.
C-the tower will relay the instructions to the nearest FSS when the aircraft contacts the tower for landing.
B-the pilot must close the flight plan with the FAA upon landing.
99
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 MSL?
A-200 knots.
B-250 knots.
C-288 knots.
B-250 knots.
100
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is:
A-200 knots.
B-230 knots.
C-250 knots.
A-200 knots.
101
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is:
A-200 knots.
B -230 knots.
C-250 knots.
A-200 knots.
102
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is:
A-180 knots.
B-200 knots.
C-250 knots.
B-200 knots.
103
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
A-on the airworthiness certificate.
B-in the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
C-in the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
B-in the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
(A-airworthiness, R- registrations, O-operating limitations, W-weight and balance)
104
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an experiment or special light-sport airworthiness certificate?
A-attached to the airworthiness certificate.
B-in the current, FAA-approved flight manual.
C-in the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
A-attached to the airworthiness certificate.
(A-airworthiness, R- registrations, O-operating limitations, W-weight and balance)
105
in addition to a valid airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be onboard an aircraft during flight?
A-aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
B-radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
C-operating limitations and registration certificate.
C-operating limitations and registration certificate.
(A-airworthiness, R- registrations, O-operating limitations, W-weight and balance)
106
How long does the airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
A-as long as the aircraft has a current registration certificate.
B-indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
C-as long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by the Federal Aviation Regulations.
C-as long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by the Federal Aviation Regulations.
(A-airworthiness, R- registrations, O-operating limitations, W-weight and balance)
107
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in airworthy condition is primarily that of the:
A-pilot-in-command.
B-owner or operator.
C-mechanic who performs the work.
B-owner or operator.
108
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a:
A-statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy.
B-log book endorsement from a flight instructor.
C-review of the maintenance records.
C-review of the maintenance records.
109
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the:
A-owner or operator.
B-pilot-in-command.
C-mechanic who performed the work.
A-owner or operator.
110
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
A-owner or operator.
B-certifed mechanic.
C-repair station.
A-owner or operator.
111
Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by:
A-the relicensing date on the registration certificate.
B-an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
C-an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.
B-an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
112
An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than:
A-july 1, next year.
B-july 13, next year.
C-july 31, next year.
C-july 31, next year.
113
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the:
A-airworthiness certificate.
B-registration certificate.
C-aircraft maintenance records.
C-aircraft maintenance records.
114
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
A-annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
B-biannual condition and 100-hour inspections.
C-annual condition and 50-hour inspections.
A-annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
115
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than:
A-september 30, 2015.
B-september 1, 2016.
C-september 30, 2016.
C-september 30, 2016.
116
Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
A-a full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
B-the date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.
C-the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
C-the signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
117
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
A-14 CFR 91.403.
B-14 CFR 43.7.
C-14 CFR 61.113.
B-14 CFR 43.7.
118
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for service?
A-student or recreational pilot.
B-private or commercial pilot.
C-none of the above.
B-private or commercial pilot.
119
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
A-replenishing hydraulic fluid.
B-repair of portions of skins sheets by making additional seams.
C-repair of landing gear brace struts.
A-replenishing hydraulic fluid.
120
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated:
A-by any private pilot.
B-with passengers on board.
C-for compensation for hire.
B-with passengers on board.
121
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristic, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a:
A-commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating.
B-private pilot certificate.
C-commercial pilot certificate and a mechanic's certificate.
B-private pilot certificate.
122
An aircraft had 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
A-1349.6 hours.
B-1359.6 hours.
C-1369.6 hours.
B-1359.6 hours.
123
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
A-3312.5 hours.
B-3402.5 hours.
C-3395.5 hours.
B-3402.5 hours.
124
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
A-aircraft maintenance records.
B-airworthiness certificate and pilot's operating handbook.
C-airworthiness and registration certificates.
A-aircraft maintenance records.
125
What should an owner or operator know about airworthiness directives (AD's)?
A-for informational purposes only.
B-they are mandatory.
C-they are voluntary.
B-they are mandatory.
126
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive (AD)?
A-yes, under VFR conditions only.
B-yes, ADs are only voluntary.
C-yes, if allowed by the AD.
C-yes, if allowed by the AD.
127
Who is responsible for ensuring airworthiness directives (ADs) are complied with?
A-owner or operator.
B-repair station.
C-mechanic with inspection authorization (IA.)
A-owner or operator.
128
FAA Advisory Circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by:
A-distribution from the nearest FAA district office.
B-ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
C-subscribing to the Federal Register.
B-ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
129
FAA Advisory Circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number?
A-60.
B-70.
C-90.
A-60.
130
FAA Advisory Circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number?
A-60.
B-70.
C-90.
B-70.
131
FAA Advisory Circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?
A-60.
B-70.
C-90.
C-90.
132
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified:
A-immediately.
B-within 48 hours.
C-within 7 days.
A-immediately.
133
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
A-a forced landing due to engine failure.
B-landing gear damage due to a hard landing.
C-flight control system malfunction or failure.
C-flight control system malfunction or failure.
134
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
A-an inflight generator/alternator failure.
B-an inflight fire.
C-an in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability.
B-an inflight fire.
135
Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office?
A-an overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
B-an inflight radio communications failure.
C-an inflight generator or alternator failure.
A-an overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
136
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?
A-yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
B-yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
C-no, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
B-yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
137
The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?
A-5.
B-7.
C-10.
C-10.
138
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB:
A-within 7 days.
B-within 10 days.
C-when requested.
C-when requested.
