Regulations Flashcards

1
Q

The definition of nighttime is:

A-sunset to sunrise.

B-1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

C-the time between the end of benign civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

A

C-the time between the end of benign civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

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2
Q

In regards to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may:

A-not pay less than the pro rate share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

B-act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment.

C-not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

A

A-not pay less than the pro rate share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

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3
Q

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may:

A-be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoff dn three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days.

B-not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

C-not pay less than the pro rate share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

A

C-not pay less than the pro rate share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

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4
Q

What exception, fi any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot-in-command of any aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?

A-if the passengers pay all the operating expenses.

B-if a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

C-there is no exception.

A

B-if a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

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5
Q

(Refer to figure 74.) What minimum pilot certificate is require for a flight departing out of Hayward Executive (area 6)?

A-student pilot certificate.

B-private pilot certificate.

C-sport pilot certificate.

A

A-student pilot certificate.

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6
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

A-gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon.

B-airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

C-single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and see.

A

B-airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

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7
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are classes of aircraft?

A-airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than air.

B-single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and see.

C-ligher-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

A

B-single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and see.

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8
Q

The pilot-in-command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?

A-aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the administrator.

B-aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

C-aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.

A

B-aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

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9
Q

A third class medical certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on Augurs 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire on midnight on:

A-august 10, 2 years later.

B-august 31, 5 years later.

C-august 31, 2 years later.

A

B-august 31, 5 years later.

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10
Q

A third class medical certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire on midnight on:

A-august 10, 3 years later.

B-august 31, 5 years later.

C-august 31, 3 years later.

A

B-august 31, 5 years later.

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11
Q

A third class medical certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on:

A-may 3, 1 year later.

B-may 31, 1 year later.

C-may 31, 2 years later.

A

C-may 31, 2 years later.

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12
Q

For private pilot operations, a Second Class medical certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year will expire at midnight on:

A-july 15, 2 years later.

B-july 31, 1 year later.

C-july 31, 2 years later.

A

C-july 31, 2 years later.

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13
Q

For private pilot operations, a first class medical certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year will expire at midnight on:

A-october 21, 2 years later.

B-october 31, next year.

C-october 31, 5 years later.

A

C-october 31, 5 years later.

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14
Q

To operate under basicMed the pilot-in-command must have completed a physical examination by a state-licensed physician within the preceding:

A-48 months.

B-24 months.

C-12 months.

A

A-48 months.

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15
Q

For private pilot operations under basicMed, the pilot-in-command is allowed to fly with no more than:

A-six passengers.

B-five passengers.

C-five occupants.

A

B-five passengers.

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16
Q

To maintain basicMed privilege you are required to complete the comprehensive medical examination checklist (CMEC) every:

A-48 months.

B-24 months.

C-12 months.

A

A-48 months.

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17
Q

What document(s) must be in you personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot-in-command of an aircraft?

A-certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current flight review.

B-a pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.

C-an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate Curren medical certificate if required.

A

C-an appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate Curren medical certificate if required.

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18
Q

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot’s personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?

A-when acting as a crew chief during launch an recovery.

B-only when passengers are carried.

C-anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crew-member.

A

C-anytime when acting as pilot-in-command or as a required crew-member.

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19
Q

A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot-in-command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current:

A-logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

B-medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.

C-endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

A

B-medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.

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20
Q

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request that any:

A-authorized representative pf the department of transportation.

B-person in a position of authority.

C- local law enforcement officer.

A

C- local law enforcement officer.

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21
Q

To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding:

A-6 calendar months.

B-12 calendar months.

C-24 calendar months.

A

C-24 calendar months.

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22
Q

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is at 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is:

A-1829

B-1859

C-1929

A

C-1929

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23
Q

To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding:

A-90 days.

B-12 calendar months.

C-24 calendar months.

A

A-90 days.

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24
Q

Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least thee takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding:

A-90 days.

B-60 days.

C-30 days.

A

A-90 days.

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25
Q

To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same:

A-make and model.

B-category and class, but not type.

C-category, class, and type if a type rating is required.

A

C-category, class, and type if a type rating is required.

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26
Q

To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot-in-command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in:

A-the same category and class of aircraft to be used.

B-the same type of aircraft to be used.

C-any aircraft.

A

A-the same category and class of aircraft to be used.

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27
Q

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?

A-august 8, 2 years later.

B-august 31, next year.

C-august 31, 2 years later.

A

C-august 31, 2 years later.

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28
Q

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have:

A-a biennial flight review.

B-an annual flight review.

Ca semiannual flight review.

A

A-a biennial flight review.

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29
Q

Three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot-in-command at night must be done during the time period from:

A-sunrise to sunset.

B-1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

C-the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

A

B-1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

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30
Q

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only:

A-30 days after the date of the move.

B-60 days after the date of the move.

C-90 days after the date of the move.

A

A-30 days after the date of the move.

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31
Q

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the:

A-federal aviation administration.

B-pilot-in-command.

C-aircraft manufacturer.

A

B-pilot-in-command.

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32
Q

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot-in-command may:

A-deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must sup bit a written report to the administrator within 24 hours.

B-deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency.

C-not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the administrator.

A

B-deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency.

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33
Q

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the administrator?

A-within7 days.

B-within 10 days.

C-upon request.

A

C-upon request.

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34
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A-a certificated aircraft mechanic.

B-the pilot-in-command.

C-the owner or operator.

A

B-the pilot-in-command.

35
Q

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A-check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.

B-become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

C-review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

A

B-become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

36
Q

Preflightaction, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include:

A-the designation of an alternate airport.

B-a study of arrival procedures at airports/heliports of intended use.

C-an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

A

C-an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

37
Q

In addition to other preflight actions fora. VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot-in-command to:

A-review traffic control light signal procedures.

B-check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locater transmitter (ELT).

C-determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.

A

C-determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.

38
Q

No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly thereafter for at least:

A-20 minutes.

B-30 minutes.

C-1 hour.

A

A-20 minutes.

39
Q

Flight crew members are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:

A-takeoffs and landings.

B-all flight conditions.

C-flight in turbulent air.

A

A-takeoffs and landings.

40
Q

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to see their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

A-safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

B-safety belts Turing takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during take of and landing and while en route.

C-safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

A

C-safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

41
Q

With respect to passengers, whaat obligation, if any, does the pilot-in-command have concerning the use of safety belts?

A-the pilot-in-command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight.

B-the pilot-in-command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

C-the pilot-in-command has no obligation in regard to passengers’ use of safety belts.

A

B-the pilot-in-command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

42
Q

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts for a flight is the responsibility of:

A-all passengers.

B-the pilot-in-command.

C-the right-seat pilot.

A

B-the pilot-in-command.

43
Q

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about the passengers during:

A-taxi, takeoffs, and landings.

B-all flight conditions.

C-flight in turbulent air.

A

A-taxi, takeoffs, and landings.

44
Q

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

A-pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.

B-passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.

C-each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight.

A

B-passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.

45
Q

A person may not act as a crew member of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding:

A-8 hours.

B-12 hours.

C-24 hours.

A

A-8 hours.

46
Q

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

A-in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

B-only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot’s compartment.

C-under no condition.

A

A-in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

47
Q

No person may attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft with:

A-.008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

B-.004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

C-.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

A

C-.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

48
Q

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Devision?

A-no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

B-no later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.

C-required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

A

A-no later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

49
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A-a balloon.

B-an aircraft in distress.

C-an aircraft on final approach to land.

A

B-an aircraft in distress.

  1. AiD
  2. balloon
  3. glider
  4. aircraft towing. / refueling.
  5. airship
  6. airplane/rotorcraft/gyroplane.
50
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A-glider.

B-airship.

C-aircraft refueling other aircraft.

A

A-glider.

  1. AiD
  2. balloon
  3. glider
  4. aircraft towing. / refueling.
  5. airship
  6. airplane/rotorcraft/gyroplane.
51
Q

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

A-the faster aircraft shall give way.

B-the aircraft on the left shall give way.

C-each aircraft shall give way to the right.

A

B-the aircraft on the left shall give way.

52
Q

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A-the airship.

B-the airplane.

C-each pilot should alter course to the right.

A

A-the airship.

  1. AiD
  2. balloon
  3. glider
  4. aircraft towing. / refueling.
  5. airship
  6. airplane/rotorcraft/gyroplane.
53
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A-gyroplane.

B-airship.

C-aircraft towing other aircraft.

A

C-aircraft towing other aircraft.

  1. AiD
  2. balloon
  3. glider
  4. aircraft towing. / refueling.
  5. airship
  6. airplane/rotorcraft/gyroplane.
54
Q

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft:

A-that has the other to its right.

B-that is the least maneuverable.

C-at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

A

C-at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

55
Q

An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding:

A-120 days.

B-180 days.

C-365 days.

A

B-180 days.

56
Q

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?

A-when a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers.

B-when intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.

C-when intentionally banking in excess of 30 degrees.

A

B-when intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.

57
Q

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot-in-command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is:

A-when the clearance states “at pilot’s discretion.”

B-an emergency.

C-if the clearance contains a restriction.

A

B-an emergency.

58
Q

As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

A-when operating in Class A airspace at night.

B-if an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions.

C-in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

A

C-in response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

59
Q

When should a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A-within 48 hours if requested by ATC.

B-immediately.

Within 7 days.

A

A-within 48 hours if requested by ATC.

60
Q

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an AATC instruction during na emergency and is given priority?

A-take no special action since you are pilot-in-command.

B-file a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.

C-file a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.

A

B-file a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.

61
Q

An Act clearance provides:

A-priority over all other traffic.

B-adequate separation from all traffic.

C-authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

A

C-authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

62
Q

While on a VFR cross-country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?

A-121.5 MHz.

B-122.5 MHz.

C-128.725 MHz.

A

A-121.5 MHz.

63
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

A-an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

B-an altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

C-an altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

A

A-an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

64
Q

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is:

A-1,000 feet.

B-1,500 feet.

C.2,000 feet.

A

C-2,000 feet.

Class C, D, or E (below 10,000 MSL)

65
Q

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

A-1 mile.

B-3 miles.

C-4 miles.

A

B.-3 miles.

(below 10,000 MSL is in B, C, D or E FOR 3)

66
Q

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is:

A-remain clear of clouds.

B-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

C-500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

A

B-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.

(below 10,000 MSL is in B, C, D or E)

67
Q

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is:

A-500 feet.

B-1,000 feet.

C-1,500 feet.

A

B-1,000 Feet.

(above 1,200 MSL is class B,C, D, E)

68
Q

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of:

A-3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

B-5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.

C-5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.

A

A-3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

(True for C, D, E, but 3 miles for B is true)

69
Q

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in a controlled airspace is:

A-1 mile.

B-3 miles.

C-5 miles.

A

C-5 miles.

(Class E above 10,000MSL)

70
Q

For VFR flight operations above 10,00 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is:

A-1,000 feet.

B-2,000 feet.

C-1 mile.

A

C-1 mile.

(Class E above 10,000MSL)

71
Q

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 Feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is:

A-500 feet.

B-1,000 feet.

C-1,500 feet.

A

B-1,000 feet.

(Class E above is 1,000 above & below, 1 mile horizontal)

72
Q

(Refer to figure 22, area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over Sandpoint Airport at 1,2000 feet AGL are:

A-1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

B-1 mile and clear of clouds.

C-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

A

C-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

(Class E airspace starts at 700 Feet AGL)

73
Q

(Refer to figure 22, Area 1.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate at night over Sandpoint Airport at less than 700 feet AGL are:

A-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

B-3 miles and clear of clouds.

C-1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

A

A-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below and 2,000 feet horizontally from each cloud.

(Class E, but below 700 during DAY, VIS is 1 mile, night is 3)

74
Q

(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are:

A-1 mile and clear of clouds.

B-1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

C-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

A

C-3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

(Class E airspace, during daylight)

75
Q

(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The day VFR visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate over the town of Cooperstown after departing and climbing out of Cooperstown Airport at or below 700 feet AGL are:

A-3 miles and clear of clouds.

B-1 mile and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

C-1 mile and clear of clouds.

A

C-1 mile and clear of clouds.

(Outside airspace and Below 1200 [at 700] is class G)

76
Q

(Refer to figure 78). What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from Ozawa (K36) airport during the day?

A-3 statue miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds.

B-0 statute miles, clear of clouds.

C-1 statue mile, Clear of clouds.

A

C-1 statue mile, Clear of clouds.

(outside any shading or lines, means class G, 1 statue mile, CoC basic departure min.)

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A