Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RTC written test prep > Aircraft Systems > Flashcards

Aircraft Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

A-adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

B-place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.

C-test each brake and the parking brake.

A

A-adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is one purpose for using reciprocating engines?

A-heat is distributed better.

B-to preserve cylinder head during and maintain lower temperatures.

C-they are relatively simple and inexpensive to operate.

A

C-they are relatively simple and inexpensive to operate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An electrical system failure (battery and alternator) occurs during flight. In this situation, you would:

A-experience avionics equipment failure.

B-probably experience failure of the engine igiition system, fuel gauges, aircraft lighting system, an avionics equipment.

C-probably experience engine failure due to the loss of the engine-driven fuel pump and also experience failure of the radio equipment, lights, and all instruments that require alternating current.

A

A-experience avionics equipment failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, th most noticeable result will be that the engine:

A-will run very rough.

B-cannot be started with the switch in the ON position.

C-cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

A

C-cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The operating principle of float-type carburetors is based on the:

A-automatic metering of air at the Venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.

B-difference in air pressure at the Venturi throat and the air inlet.

C-increase in air velocity at the throat of a Venturi causing an increase in air pressure.

A

B-difference in air pressure at the Venturi throat and the air inlet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to:

A-decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate of increased air density.

B-decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

C-increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.

A

B-decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

While cruising at 9500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

A-the fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

B-there will be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, an date excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.

C-the excessively rich mixture will create higher cylinder head temperatures and may cause detonation.

A

A-the fuel/air mixture may become excessively lean.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

A-any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.

B-temperature between 32 and 50 degrees F and low humidity.

C-temperature between 20 and 70 degrees F and high humidity.

A

C-temperature between 20 and 70 degrees F and high humidity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The possibility of carburetor icing exists even when the ambient air temperature is as:

A-high as 70 degrees F and the relative humidity is high.

B-high as 95 degrees F and there is visible moisture.

C-low as 0 degrees F and the relative humidity is high.

A

A-high as 70 degrees F and the relative humidity is high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Carburetor icing can occur with an OAT as high as:

A-100 degrees F and visible moisture.

B-20 degrees C and high relative humidity.

C-75 degrees F and low relative humidity.

A

B-20 degrees C and high relative humidity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Applying carburetor head will:

A-result in more air going through the carburetor.

B-enrich the fuel/air mixture.

C-not affect the fuel/air mixture.

A

B-enrich the fuel/air mixture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?

A-a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.

b-the fuel/air mixture becomes richer.

C-the fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.

A

b-the fuel/air mixture becomes richer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to:

A-decrease engine performance.

B-increase engine performance.

C-have no effect on engine performance.

A

A-decrease engine performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

With regards to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be:

A-more susceptible to icing.

B-equally susceptible to icing.

C-less susceptible to icing.

A

A-more susceptible to icing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If the grade of fuel used the aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause:

A-a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.

B-low cylinder head temperatures.

C-detonation.

A

C-detonation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Detonation may occur at high-power settings when:

A-the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead o burning progressively and evenly.

B-an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.

C-the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.

A

A-the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead o burning progressively and evenly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when:

A-the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.

B-hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture advance of normal ignition.

C-the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

A

C-the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as:

A-combution.

B-pre-igition.

C-detonation.

A

B-pre-igition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?

A-the next higher octane aviation gas.

B-the next lower octane aviation gas.

C-unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.

A

A-the next higher octane aviation gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will:

A-force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.

B-prevent expansion o fat fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

C-prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

A

C-prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with the fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the:

A-fuel strainer drain.

B-lowest point the the fuel system.

C-fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

A

C-fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures will:

A-cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.

B-cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

C-not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.

A

B-cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will:

A-increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat.

B-result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans.

C-cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

A

C-cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with:

A-the moisture set too rich.

B-higher-than-normal oil pressure.

C-too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

A

C-too much power and with the mixture set too lean.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

A-using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.

B-using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.

C-operating with higher-than-normail oil pressure.

A

A-using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on:

A-a properly functioning thermostat.

B-air flowing over the exhaust manifold.

C-the circulation of lubricating oil.

A

C-the circulation of lubricating oil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by:

A-the oil level being too low.

B-operating with a too high viscosity oil.

C-operating with an excessively rich mixture.

A

A-the oil level being too low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

A-reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

B-reduce climb speed and increase RPM.

C-increase climb speed and increase RPM.

A

A-reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?

A-enrichen the fuel mixture.

B-increase the RPM.

C-reduce the airspeed.

A

A-enrichen the fuel mixture.

30
Q

The most important rule to remember in the event of power failure after becoming airborne is to:

A-immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.

B-quickly check the fuel supply for possible fuel exhaustion.

C-determine the wind direction to plan of the forced landing.

A

A-immediately establish the proper gliding attitude and airspeed.

31
Q

During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe for flight?

A-the pilot-in-command.

B-the owner or operator.

C-the certified mechanic who performed the annual inspection.

A

A-the pilot-in-command.

32
Q

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

A-quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.

B-thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.

C-any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command.

A

B-thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.

33
Q

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airworthy condition?

A-pilot-in-command.

B-owner or operator.

C-mechanic.

A

B-owner or operator.

34
Q

During flight, if cyclic control pressure is applied which results in a maximum increase in pitch angle of the rotor blade at position A, the rotor disc will tilt:

A-forward.

B-aft.

C-left.

A

A-forward.

35
Q

The lift differential that exists between the advancing main rotor blade and the retreating main rotor blade is known as:

A-transverse flow effect.

B-dissymmetry of lift.

C-hunting tendency.

A

B-dissymmetry of lift.

36
Q

During forward cruising flight at constant airspeed and altitude, the individual rotor blades, when compared to each other, are operating:

A-with increased lift on the retreating blade.

B-with a decreasing angle of attack on the advancing blade.

C-at unequal airspeed, unequal angles of attack, and equal lift moment.

A

C-at unequal airspeed, unequal angles of attack, and equal lift moment.

37
Q

The upward bending of the rotor blades resulting from the combined forces of lift and centrifugal force is known as:

A-coning.

B-blade flapping.

C-inertia.

A

A-coning.

38
Q

When a blade flaps up, the CG moves closer to the axis of rotation giving that blade a tendency to:

A-decelerate.

B-accelerate.

C-stabilize its rotational velocity.

A

B-accelerate.

39
Q

During a hover, a helicopter tends to drift to the right. To compensate for this, some helicopters have the:

A-tail rotor tilted to the left.

B-tail rotor tilted to the right.

C-rotor mast rigged to the left side.

A

C-rotor mast rigged to the left side.

40
Q

Translational lift is the result of:

A-decreased rotor efficiency.

B-airspeed.

C-both airspeed and groundspeed.

A

B-airspeed.

41
Q

The primary purpose of the tail rotor system is to:

A-assist in making a coordinated turn.

B-maintain heading during forward flight.

C-counteract the torque effect of the main rotor.

A

C-counteract the torque effect of the main rotor.

42
Q

if RPM is low and manifold pressure is high, what initial corrective action should be taken?

A-increase the throttle.

B-lower the collective pitch.

C-raise the collective pitch.

A

B-lower the collective pitch.

43
Q

The purpose of the lead-lag (drag) hinge in a three-bladed, fully articulated helicopter rotor system is to compensate for:

A-coriolis effect.

B-coning.

C-geometric unbalance.

A

A-coriolis effect.

44
Q

High airspeeds, particularly in turbulent air, should be avoided primarily because of the possibility of:

A-an abrupt pitch.

B-retreating blade stall.

C-a low-frequency vibration developing.

A

B-retreating blade stall.

45
Q

The maximum forward speed of a helicopter is limited by:

A-retreating blade stall.

B-the rotor RPM red line.

c-solidity ratio.

A

A-retreating blade stall.

46
Q

When operating at high forward airspeeds, retreating blade stalls are more likely to occur under which condition?

A-low gross weight and low density altitude.

B-high RPM and low density altitude.

C-steep turns in turbulent air.

A

C-steep turns in turbulent air.

47
Q

Ground resonance is most likely to develop when:

A-on the ground and harmonic vibrations develop between. the main and tail rotors.

B-a series of shocks cause the rotor system to become unbalanced.

C-there is a combination of a decrease in the angle of attack on the advancing blade and the increase in the angel of attack on the retreating blade.

A

B-a series of shocks cause the rotor system to become unbalanced.

48
Q

While in level cruising flight in a helicopter, a pilot experiences low frequency vibrations (100 to 400 cycles per minute.) These vibrations are normally associated with the:

A-engine.

B-cooling fan.

C-main rotor.

A

C-main rotor.

49
Q

Select the helicopter component that, if defective, would cause medium-frequency vibrations:

A-tail rotor.

b-main rotor.

C-engine.

A

A-tail rotor.

50
Q

The principal reason the shaded area of a height vs. velocity chart should be avoided is:

A-turbulence near the surface can rephrase the blade edampers.

B-rotor RPM my decay before ground contact is made if an engine failure should occur.

C-insufficient airspeed would be available to ensure a safe landing in case of engine failure.

A

C-insufficient airspeed would be available to ensure a safe landing in case of engine failure.

51
Q

During surface taxiing, the collective pitch is used to control:

A-drift during a crosswind.

B-rate of speed.

C-ground track.

A

B-rate of speed.

52
Q

During surface taxiing, the cyclic pitch stick is used to control:

A-forward movement.

B-heading.

C-ground track.

A

C-ground track.

53
Q

If the pilot experiences ground resonance, and the rotor RPM is not sufficient for flight,

A-open the throttle full and liftoff.

B-apply the rotor brake and stop the rotor as soon as possible.

C-attempt to take off at that power setting.

A

B-apply the rotor brake and stop the rotor as soon as possible.

54
Q

With calm wind conditions, which flight operation would require the most power?

A-a right-hovering turn.

B-a left-hovering turn.

C-hovering out of ground effect.

A

B-a left-hovering turn.

55
Q

If the pilot were to make a near-vertical power approach into a confined area with the airspeed near zero, what hazardous condition may develop?

A-ground resonance when ground contact is made.

B-a vortex ring state condition.

C-blade stall vibration could develop.

A

B-a vortex ring state condition.

56
Q

A fully developed vortex ring state may reach a rate of descent that approaches:

A-4,000 FPM.

B-6,000 FPM.

C-8,000 FPM.

A

B-6,000 FPM.

57
Q

An uncommanded, rapid yaw towards the advancing blade which does not subside of its own accord is known as:

A-a loss of tail rotor effectiveness.

B-vortex ring state.

C-main rotor disk interference.

A

A-a loss of tail rotor effectiveness.

58
Q

What flight activity or condition would lend itself to a higher risk for loss of tail rotor effectiveness (LTE)?

A-while on a short approach to land at a heliport.

B-during departure from a heliport in a no-wind condition.

C-in a low-and-slow situation over a remote area.

A

C-in a low-and-slow situation over a remote area.

59
Q

Which airspeed/altitude combination should be avoided during helicopter operations?

A-30 mph/200 feet AGL.

B-50 mph/300 feet AGL.

C-60 mph/20 feet AGL.

A

C-60 mph/20 feet AGL.

60
Q

Which airspeed/altitude combination should be avoided during helicopter operations?

A-20 mph/200 feet AGL.

B-35 mph/175 feet AGL.

C-40 mph/75 feet AGL.

A

A-20 mph/200 feet AGL.

61
Q

If anti-torque failure occurred during the landing touchdown, what could be done to help straighten out a left yaw prior to touchdown?

A-a flare to zero airspeed and a vertical descent to touchdown should be made.

B-apply available throttle to help swing the nose to the right just prior to touchdown.

C-a normal running landing should be made.

A

B-apply available throttle to help swing the nose to the right just prior to touchdown.

62
Q

Which flight technique is recommended for use during hot weather?

A-use minimum allowable RPM and maximum allowable manifold pressure during all phases of flight.

B-during hovering flight, maintain minimum engine RPM during left pedal turns, and maximum engine RPM during right pedal turns.

C-during takeoff, accelerate slowly into forward flight.

A

C-during takeoff, accelerate slowly into forward flight.

63
Q

Under what condition should a helicopter pilot consider using a running takeoff?

A-when gross weight or density altitude prevents a sustained hover at normal hovering altitude.

B-when a normal climb speed is assured between 10 and 20 feet.

C-when the additional airspeed can be quickly converted to altitude.

A

A-when gross weight or density altitude prevents a sustained hover at normal hovering altitude.

64
Q

What action should the pilot take if engine failure occurs at altitude?

A-open the throttle as the collective pitch is raised.

B- reduce cyclic back stick pressure during turns.

C-lower the collective pitch control, as necessary, to maintain rotor RPM.

A

C-lower the collective pitch control, as necessary, to maintain rotor RPM.

65
Q

Which is a precaution to be observed during an authoritative descent?

A-normally, the airspeed is controlled with the collective pitch.

B-normally, only the cyclic control is used to make turns.

C-do not allow the rate of descent to get too low at zero airspeed.

A

B-normally, only the cyclic control is used to make turns.

66
Q

The proper action to initiate a quick stop is to apply:

A-forward cyclic and lower the collective pitch.

B-aft cyclic and raise the collective pitch.

C-aft cyclic and lower the collective pitch.

A

C-aft cyclic and lower the collective pitch.

67
Q

What is the procedure for a slope landing?

A-when the downslope skid is on the ground, hold the collective pitch at the same position.

B-minimum RPM shall be held until the full weight of the helicopter is on the skid.

C-when parallel to the slope, slowly lower the upslope skid to the ground prior to lowering the downslope skid.

A

C-when parallel to the slope, slowly lower the upslope skid to the ground prior to lowering the downslope skid.

68
Q

Takeoff from a slope is normally accomplished by:

A-moving the cyclic in a direction away from the slope.

B-bringing the helicopter to a level attitude before completely leaving the ground.

C-moving the cyclic stick to a full up position as the helicopter nears a level attitude.

A

B-bringing the helicopter to a level attitude before completely leaving the ground.

69
Q

Which action would be appropriate for confined area operations?

A-takeoffs and landings must be made into the wind.

B-plan the flightpath over areas suitable for a forced landing.

C-a very steep angle of descent should be used to land on the selected spot.

A

B-plan the flightpath over areas suitable for a forced landing.

70
Q

If possible, when departing a confined area, what type of takeoff is preferred?

A-a normal takeoff from a hover.

B-a vertical takeoff.

C-a normal takeoff from the surface.

A

A-a normal takeoff from a hover.

71
Q

Which is a correct general rule for pinnacle and Ridgeline operations?

A-gaining altitude on takeoff is more important than gaining airspeed.

B-the approach path to a Ridgeline is usually perpendicular to the ridge.

C-a climb to a pinnacle or Ridgeline should be performed on the upwind side.

A

C-a climb to a pinnacle or Ridgeline should be performed on the upwind side.

72
Q

Before beginning a confined area or pinnacle landing, the pilot should first:

A-execute a high reconnaissance.

B- execute a low reconnaissance.

C-fly around the area to discover areas of turbulence.

A

A-execute a high reconnaissance.

RTC written test prep (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions