Refugee Flashcards
As discussed in Baglay and Jones, Bill C-55, passed in 1988, established which key institution for refugee status determinations in Canada?
The Immigration and Refugee Board
Which of the following measures were introduced in 2002 as part of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act?
A) The power to designate safe countries, nationals of which could not appeal to the Refugee Appeal Division.
B) Panels hearing refugee claims were reduced from two members to one.
C) The Minister of Employment and Immigration had to decide refugee protection claims based on a recommendation from the Refugee Status Advisory Committee.
D) Referrals from UNHCR or a sponsorship undertaking were made mandatory for refugee resettlement applications.
E) Refugee claimants were to be detained for 10 days and only released if they resided with a sponsor and posted a $5,000 bond.
B) Panels hearing refugee claims were reduced from two members to one.
D) Referrals from UNHCR or a sponsorship undertaking were made mandatory for refugee resettlement applications.
According to Sasha Baglay and Martin Jones, what was the main avenue for refugee admissions to Canada until the 1980s?
A) Inland protection claims
B) Resettlement
C) Irregular entry
D) Expedited approval
B) Resettlement
In 2004, the federal government established a new merits-based process for selecting Immigration and Refugee Board members. True or False
True
Under the Supreme Court of Canada’s Singh decision, discussed by Baglay and Jones, the lack of oral hearings for refugee claimants violate which of the following Charter right(s)?
A) Section 11(c): The right to remain silent.
B) Section 7: The right to life, liberty and security of the person and the right not to be deprived thereof except in accordance with the principles of fundamental justice.
C) Section 2(b): Freedom of thought, belief, opinion and expression.
D) Section 2(a): Freedom of conscience and religion.
B) Section 7: The right to life, liberty and security of the person and the right not to be deprived thereof except in accordance with the principles of fundamental justice.
Which of the following institutions was newly provided for in 2002’s Immigration and Refugee Protection Act?
A) A new “Refugee Appeal Division”
B) A new “Immigration and Refugee Board”
C) A new “Refugee Claims Division”
D) A new “Refugee Hearings Division”
A) A new “Refugee Appeal Division” However, the Refugee Appeal Division, or RAD, did not come into force until 2012.
Under the Supreme Court of Canada’s Singh decision, discussed by Baglay and Jones, are refugee protection claimants constitutionally entitled to an oral hearing?
Yes: “The Supreme Court [in Singh] recognized that refugee claimants were entitled to an oral refugee determination hearing. It also found that the lack of an oral hearing violated the principles of procedural fairness under … the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms.”]
According to Valerie Knowles, the federal government introduced Bill C-4, the Preventing Human Smugglers from Abusing Canada’s Immigration System Act in response to which event?
A) The arrest of a vast network of human smugglers in Vancouver, which authorities said had been responsible for bringing hundreds of “bogus” refugee claimants to Canada over the years.
B) The arrival in 2010 of 492 Sri Lankan refugee protection claimants on the MV Sun Sea, a cargo ship.
C) An unprecedented surge in refugee protection claimants traversing the border with the United States in 2017.
D) The arrival in 2009 of 76 Sri Lankan refugee protection claimants on the MV Ocean Lady, a cargo ship.
B) The arrival in 2010 of 492 Sri Lankan refugee protection claimants on the MV Sun Sea, a cargo ship.
True or False: The principle of non-refoulement does not protect a person with respect to whom there are reasonable grounds for regarding as a danger to the security of the country of refuge.
True
Which of the following is not a “limit” on the refugee definition, according to Chetail?
A) To be a refugee, a person must face persecution, rather than being forced to move because of a natural disaster, famine, extreme poverty, or a pandemic.
B) To be a refugee, a person must face persecution based on one of only five grounds (race, religion, nationality, membership in a particular social group, and political opinion).
C) To be a refugee, a person must be outside their country of origin.
D) To be a refugee, a person must not have crossed a border without legal authorization.
D) To be a refugee, a person must not have crossed a border without legal authorization.
According to Chetail, how is persecution “conventionally defined”?
A) As a serious violation of human rights.
B) As torture.
C) As discriminatory harassment.
D) As disproportionate harm.
A) As a serious violation of human rights.
True or False: States have only one option to comply with their duty of non-refoulement: sending the claimant to a different country where there is no risk of persecution.
False: Granting temporary asylum in order to examine whether the asylum-seeker is a refugee
under the Geneva Convention, or sending him or her to a different country where there is no risk of persecution
True or False: Chetail says that some see the 1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees as tracing an “assimilative path” for refugees. He says that this was indeed the design of the parties who negotiated the Convention.
False: Chetail says that this is a revisionist interpretation of the Convention, which does not reflect the negotiating history or the actual practice of states. He also says that it does not reflect the actual rights as they are set out in the Convention. The Convention’s content is not the result of “a deliberate nor coherent design of its drafters.”
Chetail says that the 1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees may be seen as tracing an “assimilative path” for refugees. What is the beginning and what is the end of this path?
A) The beginning of the path are the core rights granted without qualification to refugees once their status is declared – the right against non-discrimination, personal status rights, the right to transfer assets, and the right against non-refoulement. The end of the path is naturalization.
B) The beginning of the path are the human rights granted in instruments like the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights. The end of the path is permanent residence.
A) The beginning of the path are the core rights granted without qualification to refugees once their status is declared – the right against non-discrimination, personal status rights, the right to transfer assets, and the right against non-refoulement. The end of the path is naturalization.
True or False: The historical reason for requiring claimants to be outside of their country of origin is that, during the drafting of the 1951 Convention, the treatment of nationals within the territory of their own country was deemed to fall under the sovereignty of each state. At the time no human rights treaty had been adopted by the UN to protect them from abuses by their own governments.
True
Which of the following is not one of the four cumulative conditions required by the inclusion criteria in the Geneva Convention?
A) Fleeing one’s country of origin at the first possible opportunity.
B) Being outside one’s country of origin.
C) Being unable or unwilling to avail oneself of the protection of one’s country.
D) Having a well-founded fear of persecution.
E) Facing persecution because of one’s race, religion, nationality, membership of particular social group, or political opinion.
A
True or False: The principle of non-refoulement found in the 1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees is an absolute duty.
False
True or False: The 1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees is the only international law instrument that includes, either explicitly or implicitly, the principle of non-refoulement.
False: Other conventions, like the Convention against Torture or the International Convenant on Civil and Political Rights, prohibit refoulement to face torture or serious human rights violations).
Which of the following accurately describe the distinction between non-refoulement and asylum?
A) Non-refoulement is a negative obligation, with “non” being French for “no” and “foulement” being French for “mob violence”; asylum is also a negative obligation, with the Latin prefix “asy” meaning “no” and the Latin root “lum” meaning “craziness”.
B) Non-refoulement is a right of states, whereas asylum is a state duty.
C) Non-refoulement is a negative notion, prohibiting states from sending any person back to a country of persecution; asylum is a positive concept, entailing the admission to a new residence and long-lasting protection against the jurisdiction of another state.
D) Non-refoulement is an obligation of states, whereas asylum is a right of states.
C) Non-refoulement is a negative notion, prohibiting states from sending any person back to a country of persecution; asylum is a positive concept, entailing the admission to a new residence and long-lasting protection against the jurisdiction of another state.
D) Non-refoulement is an obligation of states, whereas asylum is a right of states.
True or False: According to the UNHCR Handbook on Procedures, a refugee claimant becomes a refugee when their refugee status is formally determined.
False: The UNHCR Handbook on Procedures states that a person is a refugee within the meaning of the 1951 Convention as soon as they fulfil the criteria contained in the definition.
This instrument is the cornerstone of the international refugee protection regime. It includes the legal definition of “refugee” as someone facing a well-founded fear of persecution. It enshrines the duty of non-refoulement, although this duty is not absolute.
1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees
Which of the following guarantee(s) do all refugees benefit from?
A) Prohibition of discrimination
B) Free access to domestic courts
C) Rationing
D) Post-secondary education
E) Medical treatment
F) Fiscal equality
A) Prohibition of discrimination
B) Free access to domestic courts
C) Rationing
F) Fiscal equality
True or False: Chetail says that, as a matter of practice, there are many ways to assure compliance with the principle of non-refoulement other than granting asylum.
False: Only 2: granting temporary asylum in order to examine whether the asylum-seeker is a refugee
under the Geneva Convention, or sending him or her to a different country where there is
no risk of persecution
True or False: Non-refoulement is subordinated to the five grounds of persecution: race, religion, nationality, membership in a particular social group, and political opinion.
Non-refoulement is not subordinated to the five grounds of persecution required by the refugee definition under the Geneva Convention.
True or False: Assessments of risk under either the 1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees or general human rights instruments are prospective (or “forward-looking”).
True
True or False: According to the IRPA, a Convention refugee is a person who has a well-founded fear of persecution for reasons of race, religion, nationality, membership in a particular social group or political opinion.
This is false because it is incomplete. See IRPA s 96: A Convention refugee is a person who, by reason of a well-founded fear of persecution for reasons of race, religion, nationality, membership in a particular social group or political opinion, is outside each of their countries of nationality and is unable or, by reason of that fear, unwilling to avail themselves of the protection of each of those countries. Similarly, if a person is stateless, they must be outside the country of their former habitual residence and is unable or, by reason of that fear, unwilling to return to that country.
True or False: The Global Compact on Refugees aim to ease pressures on countries hosting large numbers of refugees, support refugee self-reliance, expand access to durable solutions in third countries, and support returns to countries of origin in safety and dignity.
True
True or False: Section 96 of the IRPA reproduces in its essentials the definition of “refugee” found in the 1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees.
True
True or False: Applications for a pre-removal risk assessment (i.e., applications for protection) are granted on the basis of one of two regulatory categories – the Convention refugees from abroad class and the Country of asylum class.
False: Applications for pre-removal risk assessments are evaluated using sections 96 to 98 of the IRPA.
True or False: A foreign national may receive protected person status by making an application from abroad under section 25 of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act, or IRPA, for a humanitarian and compassionate exemption.
False: A foreign national may receive protected person status from abroad by applying for a visa under either the Convention Refugee Abroad Class, the Country of Asylum Class, or as a Protected Temporary Resident. See s 95(1)(a) of the IRPA and ss 144-151.1 of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations.
True or False: A person may not become a protected person by applying for refugee protection from the Immigration and Refugee Board.
False: See IRPA, ss 95(1)(b) and (2).
True or False: To give primary consideration to the best interest of the child is an example of an obligation set out in the 1951 Refugee Convention and 1967 Protocol.
False: The obligation to give primary consideration to the best interests of the child is set out in the Convention on the Rights of the Child.
True or False: To be a member of the country of asylum class, a foreign national must be outside their country of nationality or habitual residence. Further, they must have been, and continue to be, seriously and personally affected by civil war, armed conflict or massive violation of human rights in each of those countries
True: See IRPR, s 147
True or False: The Comprehensive Refugee Response Framework and the Global Compact on Refugees are both binding in international law.
False: While these instruments seek to improve international cooperation on matters relating to refugees, they are both non-binding.
True or False: According to the IRPA, a person whose removal to their country of nationality would subject them personally to a danger of torture is a person in need of protection.
True: See s 97(1)(a) of IRPA: A person in need of protection is a person in Canada whose removal to their country or countries of nationality or, if they do not have a country of nationality, their country of former habitual residence, would subject them personally to a danger, believed on substantial grounds to exist, of torture within the meaning of Article 1 of the Convention Against Torture. Paragraph 97(1)(b) of the IRPA provides an alternate ground for being a person in need of protection.
True or False: A claim for refugee protection made by a person inside Canada can be submitted by making an application for a visa as a Convention refugee.
False: See IRPA s 99(3): A claim for refugee protection made by a person inside Canada must be made to an immigration officer. The officer must then determine if the claim is eligible to be referred to the Immigration and Refugee Board.
True or False: One cannot be found to be a person in need of protection if the risk to your life is caused by your home country’s inability to provide adequate health or medical care.
True: See IRPA, s 97(1)(b)(iv).
True or False: Subsection 12(3) of the IRPA provides the statutory basis for selecting refugees as permanent residents, whereas section 95 lays out the different ways a foreign national or permanent resident may become a protected person.
True: Note that there is nothing in IRPA that prevents a permanent resident from applying to become a protected person, as unlikely as that may be.
True or False: A foreign national who may be inadmissible can be granted a temporary resident permit if the officer is of the opinion that it is justified in the circumstances.
True: See IRPA s 24(1)).
True or False: Foreign nationals applying to resettle in Canada must fulfill either the Convention refugee definition in section 96 of the IRPA and the definition of persons in need of protection in section 97.
False: Foreign nationals applying from abroad for refugee protection through resettlement must fulfill either the Convention refugee definition (IRPA, s 96) or the definition of the country of asylum class (section 147 of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations (IRPR)).
True or False: According to the IRPR, a member of the country of asylum class requires the individual to be outside of their country of nationality and have been and continue to be seriously and personally affected by civil war, armed conflict, or massive violation of human rights in their countries.
True: See IRPR s 147: A foreign national is a member of the country of asylum class if they have been determined by an officer to be in need of resettlement because: (a) they are outside all of their countries of nationality and habitual residence; and (b) they have been, and continue to be, seriously and personally affected by civil war, armed conflict or massive violation of human rights in each of those countries.
True or False: Section 115 of the IRPA fulfills Canada’s obligation for Article 3 of the Convention against Torture.
False: Section 115 allows for deportation to torture in exceptional circumstances. Article 3 contains an absolute prohibition on refoulement where there are substantial grounds for believing that he would be in danger of being subjected to torture.
True or False: There are three avenues for becoming a protected person in Canada, which are all addressed in sections 96 and 97 of the IRPA.
False: Not all of the three avenues involve applying sections 96 and 97 of the IRPA.
True or False: The Minister of Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship supervises and directs the staff at the Immigration and Refugee Board.
False: The Chairperson of the Immigration and Refugee Board supervises and directs the staff at the IRB.
True or False: The legal guidance published by UNHCR are binding authority on Canadian decision-makers evaluating refugee claims.
False: The legal guidance on the interpretation of the Convention refugee definition and other aspects of refugee law published by the UNHCR are influential, but not legally binding on Canadian decision-makers.
Which Minister is responsible for the management and direction of the Department of Immigration, Refugees, and Citizenship?
The Minister of Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship
Which officers handle routine applications for protection – that is, applications for pre-removal risk assessments that do not raise security or criminality issues?
A) Immigration officers employed by the Canada Border Services Agency
B) Immigration officers employed by the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees.
C) Immigration officers employed by the Department of Immigration, Refugees, and Citizenship.
D) Immigration officers employed by the Immigration and Refugee Board.
C) Immigration officers employed by the Department of Immigration, Refugees, and Citizenship. (References to “officers” in the IRPA are to immigration officers who work for the Department of Immigration, Refugees, and Citizenship, unless the reference relates to a part of the Act having to do with matters under the responsibility of the Minister of Public Safety – that is, matters relating to enforcement and security.
For instance, IRCC immigration officers receive refugee protection claims inside Canada and determine their eligibility. Such officers also process most applications for pre-removal risk assessments.)
True or False: The Minister of Immigration, Refugees and Citizenship issues guidelines for the Refugee Protection Division and the Refugee Appeal Division.
False: The Chairperson of the Immigration and Refugee Board issues guidelines for the Refugee Protection Division and the Refugee Appeal Division.
True or False: Examine the 1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees. Is Canada obligated under the Convention to cooperate with the United Nations High Commissioner of Refugees?
True: Under article 35 of the 1951 Convention relating to the Status of Refugees, Canada undertakes to cooperate with the UNHCR, and in particular to facilitate its duty of supervising the application of the provisions of the Convention
True or False: Representatives of the United Nations High Commissioner of Refugees may attend refugee protection hearings.
True: Section 166 of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act gives the UNHCR the right to attend refugee hearings, despite the non-public nature of those hearings. This is consistent with the UNHCR’s role monitoring role.
True or False: The Chairperson of the Immigration and Refugee Board is appointed by the Governor General.
False: The Chairperson of the Immigration and Refugee Board is appointed by the Governor in Council.
True or False: Claimants are photographed and fingerprinted as part of their application process. The purpose of collecting such biometrics is to maintain the federal government’s biometrics database on every individual who is present in Canada.
False: The purpose of taking biometrics is to verify the claimant’s identity. It is also to determine if the person is eligible to make a refugee protection claim, including whether they are ineligible because of inadmissibility on grounds of security, international criminality, organized criminality, or serious criminality.
Jolene’s claim has been referred to the Refugee Protection Division. Subsequently, a CBSA officer learns that Jolene was found guilty of murder in her home country 10 years ago. Which of the following best describes the officer’s possible course(s) of action?
A) The officer cannot do anything about Jolene’s claim. Once a claimant has been referred to the RPD, the eligibility determination is deemed final.
B) The officer should intervene before the RPD to ask that the RPD deem Jolene to be ineligible.
C) The officer can initiate a section 44 report regarding Jolene’s inadmissibility for serious criminality. If the report is referred to the Immigration Division, then the officer can give notice to the RPD. Such notice would suspend Jolene’s claim.
C) The officer can initiate a section 44 report regarding Jolene’s inadmissibility for serious criminality. If the report is referred to the Immigration Division, then the officer can give notice to the RPD. Such notice would suspend Jolene’s claim. See IRPA, s 103.
Under which of the following circumstance(s) must a claim be suspended?
A) The claimant has a matter referred to the Immigration Division for a determination that they are inadmissible on grounds of criminality.
B) An officer provides notice to the RPD that they are waiting for a court decision with respect to an offense punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of 5 years.
C) The claimant becomes the subject of extradition proceedings.
D) The claimant has married a Canadian citizen and is eligible to be sponsored for permanent residence under the Family Class.
C, See s 105 for when claims are suspended due to extradition proceedings.
Parminder’s claim has been rejected by the Refugee Protection Division. He has launched an appeal of that decision to the Refugee Appeal Division. A CBSA officer subsequently learns that the referral was in error, after confirming pursuant to an information-sharing agreement that Parminder made a claim for refugee protection in Australia. What can the officer do?
A) Nothing. Once a claim has been the subject of a decision by the RPD, the officer no longer has the power to suspend or terminate the claim.
B) The officer may terminate the claim pursuant to IRPA, s 104(1)(a)
C) The officer may terminate the claim pursuant to IRPA, s 104(1)(a.1)
D) The officer may terminate the claim pursuant to IRPA, s 104(1)(b)
E) The officer may terminate the claim pursuant to IRPA, s 104(1)(c)
F) The officer may terminate the claim pursuant to IRPA, s 104(1)(d)
C, See IRPA, s 104(1)(a.1). That provision allows an officer to give notice to the IRB that a claimant has made a claim for refugee protection in another country which has been confirmed pursuant to an information-sharing agreement. The effect of such a notice is to terminate proceedings before either the RPD or the RAD, pursuant to IRPA, s 104(2)(a.1).
True or False: If an officer has not made a decision on eligibility, the Refugee Protection Division can determine a claimant’s eligibility on its own and proceed to hear the claim.
False: IRPA, s 100(3) states that the “Refugee Protection Division may not consider a claim until it is referred by the officer.”
True or False: Twenty years ago, Mikhail’s parents brought him to Canada and made a claim for refugee protection. Mikhail was only 4 at the time. The family’s claim was subsequently determined to be abandoned, and they returned to their country of origin. Mikhail is now back in Canada and has made a claim for refugee protection on his own behalf. Unfortunately, his claim is ineligible.
True: IRPA, s 101(1)(c) states that a claim is ineligible if a prior claim by the claimant was determined to be abandoned. Because Mikhail’s prior claim was determined to be abandoned, his new claim is not eligible even though he was a child and his parents were acting on his behalf 20 years ago.
Under which of the following circumstance(s) can a claim be suspended? Choose all that apply.
A) The claimant has a matter referred to the Immigration Division for a determination that they are inadmissible on grounds of security.
B) The officer is waiting for a court decision with respect to a punishable offense by a minimum term of imprisonment of at least 10 years.
C) The claimant has a matter referred to the Immigration Division for a determination that they are inadmissible on grounds of organized criminality.
D) The claimant has requested their claim to be examined by another officer.
A) The claimant has a matter referred to the Immigration Division for a determination that they are inadmissible on grounds of security.
C) The claimant has a matter referred to the Immigration Division for a determination that they are inadmissible on grounds of organized criminality.
See s 103(1) of the IRPA for when a claim for refugee protection may be suspended by an officer.
B –> should be a MAXIMUM term of at least 10 years
True or False: Five years ago, Peter was convicted of Arson by negligence (see section 436 of the Criminal Code) and sentenced to 1 year in prison. He has been determined to be inadmissible. He nonetheless wishes to make a claim for refugee protection to avoid deportation to his home country, where he says he faces persecution. Is his claim eligible?
True: The offence of Arson by negligence is punishable by up to 5 years’ imprisonment if prosecuted by way of indictment. Peter must have been prosecuted by way of indictment, since he received a 1-year term of imprisonment, and the maximum term of imprisonment for summary offences is 6 months. Peter therefore is inadmissible on grounds of criminality, not serious criminality. Therefore his claim is not ineligible under IRPA, s 101(1)(f).
True or False: In assessing the eligibility of a claim for refugee protection, the officer bears the burden of proof to establish ineligibility based on the evidence given.
False: According to s 100(1.1) of the IPRA, the burden of proving that a claim is eligible rests on the claimant.
Which of the following claimant(s) may be ineligible to be referred to the Refugee Protection Division? Choose all that apply.
A) A claimant who has abandoned a previous claim
B) A claimant who has refugee protection conferred under the IRPA
C) A claimant who has a family member with serious medical conditions
D) A claimant who has made a claim for refugee protection to another country after making a claim for refugee protection in Canada
A) A claimant who has abandoned a previous claim
B) A claimant who has refugee protection conferred under the IRPA
See s 101(1) of the IRPA for the full list of ineligible claims.
True or False: During the application process at a port of entry, the claimant can request their counsel to represent them at interview(s), including by questioning the claimant and objecting to lines of questions from an officer.
False: Although counsel can attend interviews, they are not allowed to interfere with the interview process.
Which of the following claimant(s) may be ineligible to be referred to the Refugee Protection Division? Click on all that apply.
A) A claimant who has withdrawn a previous claim
B) A claimant who is a Convention refugee in another country and can be returned to that country
C) A claimant who has a medical condition in need of urgent treatment
D) A claimant who has a rejected claim from the IRB
A, B, D: See s 101(1) of the IRPA for the full list of grounds of ineligibility.
Which of the following is not a method in applying for refugee protection under section 95 of the IRPA?
A)Applying for a visa from abroad
B) Making a claim for “refugee protection”
C) Making a claim for “humanitarian and compassionate grounds”
D) Making a claim for “protection”
C) Making a claim for “humanitarian and compassionate grounds” Subsection 95(1) sets out three ways a person may apply for refugee protection. They may: 1) apply for a visa from abroad to be resettled to Canada as a Convention refugee or a person in similar circumstances; 2) making a claim for “refugee protection”, which will be processed by the Refugee Protection Division, or RPD, and possibly the Refugee Appeal Division, or RAD, of the IRB; 3) make a claim for “protection” by applying for a pre-removal risk assessment.
Five years ago, Bob was convicted of Arson – disregard for human life (see section 433 of the Criminal Code) and sentenced to 1 year in prison. He has been determined to be inadmissible on grounds of serious criminality. He nonetheless wishes to make a claim for refugee protection to avoid deportation to his home country, where he says he faces persecution. Is his claim eligible?
No: The offence of Arson – disregard for human life is punishable by life imprisonment. IRPA, s 101(1)(f) states that a person may be ineligible if they have been determined to be inadmissible on grounds of serious criminality. IRPA, s 101(2)(a) states that in the case of inadmissibility because of conviction in Canada, the conviction must be “for an offence under an Act of Parliament punishable by a maximum term of imprisonment of at least 10 years.”
According to the Refugee Protection Division Rules, when notifying the claimant about the hearing, which of the following must the officer include in the written notice?
A) Date, time, and location of the hearing
B) Date, time, location, and name of attending officer for the hearing
C) Date, time, location, and the right to request an interpreter for the hearing
D) Date, time, location, and the right to counsel for the hearing
A) Date, time, and location of the hearing: According to RPD rule 3(4)(a) the officer must notify the claimant in writing by way of a notice to appear: (i) of the date, time and location of the hearing of the claim.
True or False: Proceedings before the RPD and RAD are adversarial in nature.
False: Proceedings before the RPD and RAD are meant to be inquisitorial. The member is to play an active role in questioning witnesses and determining how evidence is to be elicited during proceedings.
After Aldous’s RPD hearing but before the RPD issued its decision, his family mailed him an affidavit from his former lawyer, attesting to the fact that he had been imprisoned for political reasons. The affidavit was not procured sooner because his lawyer has been in a coma after being beaten by police for helping Aldous flee his country. Because Aldous’s hearing had concluded, he did not submit the evidence to the RPD. His claim was subsequently rejected. Is the affidavit admissible on appeal to the RAD under IRPA, s 110(4)?
A) No. Aldous may not submit the evidence under s 110(4) because he could have submitted it prior to the RPD’s rejection of his claim.
B) Yes. Aldous may submit the evidence under s 110(4) because he could not have submitted it prior to his RPD hearing.
C) Yes. Aldous may submit the evidence under s 110(4) because in the circumstances he could not reasonably have been expected to present it
D) No. Aldous may not submit the evidence under s 110(4) because it is not material.
A) No. Aldous may not submit the evidence under s 110(4) because he could have submitted it prior to the RPD’s rejection of his claim.
The admissibility of evidence before the RAD under s 110(4) is determined having reference to the time of the RPD’s decision (“at the time of the rejection”), not the time of the hearing. D is not correct because, on the facts, the evidence is likely to be material.
Hagrid is a citizen of Country Y. He lived in the United States under a student visa for 12 months. In 2018, he came to Canada and made a refugee protection claim. Despite the Safe Third Country Agreement, he was permitted to do so because his mother lives in Canada. His claim was rejected by the RPD. The RPD stated in its decision that Hagrid was “the least credible claimant he had ever come across.” Can Hagrid appeal the decision to the RAD?
No. While the RPD on the facts did not state there was no credible basis for Hagrid’s claim or that it was manifestly unfounded, Hagrid was only eligible to make a claim for refugee protection under an exception to the Safe Third Country Agreement. Therefore his has no right of appeal to the RAD under IRPA, s 110(2)(d).
True or false: Subsection 162(2) confirms an intention that the IRB’s divisions proceed informally and quickly. Therefore, the IRB can sacrifice procedural fairness in favor of efficiency.
False: Although subsection 162(2) confirms an intention that the IRB’s divisions proceed informally and quickly, it also confirms that they are bound by the requirements of natural justice and fairness.
Under the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations, an appellant has:
A) 10 days to file a notice of appeal and 1 month to perfect their appeal.
B) 15 days to file a notice of appeal and 1 month to perfect their appeal.
C) 20 days to file a notice of appeal and 1 month to perfect their appeal.
D) 30 days to file a notice of appeal and 1 month to perfect their appeal.
B) 15 days to file a notice of appeal and 1 month to perfect their appeal. See IRPR, s 159.91
True or False: Although each division of the IRB has jurisdiction to decide all matters that come before it, this broad power does not apply to constitutional questions.
False: The RPD and RAD have broad powers to decide the factual and legal issues that come before them, including legal issues with respect to their own statutory framework as well as constitutional questions.
True or False: Claimants have a right to request counsel to be provided free of charge at IRB proceedings.
False: Subsection 167(1) of the IRPA provides a right to be represented by counsel before the IRB. The right is only to representation at the expense of the person who is the subject of proceedings. There is no right to government-funded counsel.
Which of the following need not be included in a perfected appeal record on appeal to the RAD?
A) The RPD’s written reasons.
B) Any documents the RPD refused to accept as evidence, if the appellants wants to make use of them in the appeal.
C) A statement of the most up-to-date information regarding the appellant’s immigration status.
D) All or part of the transcript of the RPD hearing, if the appellant wants to make use of it in the appeal.
C) A statement of the most up-to-date information regarding the appellant’s immigration status. See rule 3 of the RAD Rules.
Claimants are expected to put forth their strongest case before the RPD, rather than waiting for their appeal to the RAD. Which of the following showed Parliament’s intent to narrowly define the introduction of any new evidence at RAD proceedings?
A) Leave from the RAD is required to introduce new evidence.
B) The evidentiary burden is increased to the balance of probabilities for new evidence.
C) New evidence is only allowed if it arose after the rejection of the claim, or if it was not reasonably available, or if the claimant could not reasonably have been expected in the circumstances to present the evidence at the time of the rejection.
D) The new evidence must be credible, relevant, and material to the RAD proceeding, whereas the evidence need not be material during the RPD proceeding.
C. In Canada (Citizenship and Immigration) v Singh, 2016 FCA 96, the Federal Court of Appeal found that subsection 110(4) showed Parliament’s “clear wish to narrowly define the introduction of any new evidence” at the RAD. Subsection 110(4) only allows for the submission of evidence that arose after the rejection of the claim; or that was not reasonably available; or that was reasonably available, but that the person could not reasonably have been expected in the circumstances to have presented, at the time of the rejection.
True or False: In Huruglica, the Federal Court of Appeal determined that the RAD must review RPD decisions on a correctness standard. It owes no deference on any issue, including credibility determinations.
False: While the Federal Court of Appeal determined that the RAD must review the RPD on a correctness basis, it “should sometimes exercise restraint” when the RPD enjoys a “meaningful advantage” in making findings of fact or mixed fact and law requiring an assessment of the credibility or weight to be assigned to oral testimony.
True or False: Because the RAD appeal must proceed on the basis of the RPD record, the RAD may not base its decision on its own specialized knowledge or on facts with respect to which it takes judicial notice.
False: Although RAD appeals must proceed on the basis of the RPD record, IRPA s 171(b) states that it “may take notice of any facts that may be judicially noticed and of any other generally recognized facts and any information or opinion that is within its specialized knowledge.”
True or False: If a claimant has established that they are a Convention refugee, the RPD can nonetheless exercise its discretion not to grant protected person status.
False: Subsection 107(1) of the IRPA uses the mandatory “shall”, rather than the discretionary “may.” The RPD has no discretion to reject a claim if a person falls within either section 96 or 97. It also has no discretion to accept a claim if they do not or if they are excluded under section 98.
True or False: Any new evidence submitted by the Minister on an appeal to the RAD must comply with IRPA, s 110(4).
False: See IRPA, s 110(5).
True or False: The RPD rejects Polly’s claim on the basis that she has not provided sufficient evidence to establish her alleged risk. The RPD makes no credibility findings. On appeal, Polly submits new evidence to support her claim under IRPA, s 110(4). The new evidence is an Amnesty International Report documenting human rights abuses in Polly’s country of origin similar to the persecution she says she faces if returned. The RAD must hold an oral hearing on this new evidence.
False: The new evidence does not raise a serious issue regarding Polly’s credibility, therefore the requirements of IRPA, s 110(6) are not met.
To be appointed as a designated representative for claimants under 18 years old, which of the following must be satisfied?
A) The designated representative must be over 18 years old
B) The designated representative must be a Canadian-licensed lawyer
C) The designated representative must not have a conflict of interest
D) The designated representative must have immigration law or consultancy experience
A and C: RPD rule 20 provides that to become a designated representative, a person must be 18 years or older, understand the nature of the proceedings, be willing and able to act in the best interests of the claimant, and not have a conflict of interest
Which of the following defines the RPD’s inquisitorial powers?
A) The RPD is not bound by any legal or technical rules of evidence
B) The RPD can question the claimant to determine if there is a well-founded claim, but the questions are limited to circumstances surrounding the claim
C) The RPD can take notice of any facts that may be judicially noticed
D) The RPD can base its decision on credible evidence adduced in the proceedings
A, C and D: Section 170 of the IRPA further defines the RPD’s inquisitorial powers: the RPD may inquire into any matter that it considers relevant to establishing whether a claim is well-founded; it may question the witnesses, including the claimant; it is not bound by any legal or technical rules of evidence; it may receive and base a decision on evidence that is adduced in the proceedings and considered credible or trustworthy in the circumstances; and it may take notice of any facts that may be judicially noticed, any other generally recognized facts and any information or opinion that is within its specialized knowledge.
Which of the following is/are grounds for denying a right of appeal to RAD?
A) A decision concerning foreign nationals who are citizens of designated countries of origin
B) A decision by the RPD rejecting a claim that has been declared to have no credible basis or to be manifestly unfounded
C) A claim that has been determined to be withdrawn or abandoned
D) A decision of the RPD allowing an application by the Minister for a determination that refugee protection has ceased under s 108 of the IRPA
B, C and D: A is incorrect because paragraph 110(2)(d.1) was declared unconstitutionally discriminatory under section 15 of the Charter in YZ v Canada (Citizenship and Immigration), 2015 FC 892. It is therefore of no force or effect.
Which of the following decisions may be made by the RAD if it decides that the RPD erred in its determination of a claim? Click all that apply.
A) The RAD may refer the matter back to the RPD with directions if it cannot make a decision without hearing evidence that was presented to the RPD.
B) The RAD may substitute its own determination for that of the RPD, but only after holding a new hearing at which claimants may present all their evidence afresh.
C) The RAD may set aside only negative decisions of the RPD. Positive decisions are not subject to appeal.
D) The RAD may aside the determination and substitute a determination that, in its opinion, should have been made.
A and D: See IRPA, s 111(1) and (2), which set out the remedies available to the RAD.
True or False: In Thamotharem v Canada (Minister of Citizenship & Immigration), the Federal Court of Appeal considered Guideline 7’s requirement that RPD hearings begin with the questioning of a claimant by the presiding member. The Court held that this Guideline breached procedural fairness because it deprived the claimant of the opportunity to be questioned first by their own counsel.
False: The Federal Court of Appeal held this Guideline does not distort the inquisitorial process established by the IRPA. RPD members are responsible for making the inquiries necessary, including questioning the claimant, to determine the validity of the claim. Guideline 7 does not curtail counsel’s participation in the hearing; counsel is present throughout and may conduct an examination of the client to ensure that the claimant’s testimony is before the decision-maker. The right to be represented by counsel does not include the right of counsel to determine the order of questioning.
True or False: Ichabod comes from an Islamic country in which apostasy is illegal and punishable by death. The RPD rejects Ichabod’s claim. It finds his allegation of having renounced Islam is not credible. On appeal, Ichabod submits a letter from his brother saying Ichabod had told him that he could no longer follow the Islamic faith. The RAD admits this letter under IRPA, s 110(4). The RAD must hold an oral hearing on this new evidence.
False: Even if on the facts the new evidence raises a serious issue with respect to Ichabod’s credibility on a matter central to his claim, IRPA s 110(6) states only that the RAD “may” hold a hearing if its requirements are met. The RAD may decline to hold a hearing if it determines that fairness and natural justice do not require one.
True or False: In Canadian Association of Refugee Lawyers v Canada (Citizenship and Immigration), 2020 FCA 196, the Federal Court of Appeal held that the IRB Chairperson had no authority to issue jurisprudential guides on issues of fact.
False: The Federal Court of Appeal held that there is no limitation confining the scope of paragraph 159(1)(h) to issues of law or mixed fact and law. On the contrary, the authority of the Chairperson to issue JGs is conferred in the broadest terms, as long as their purposes are to assist members in carrying out their duties, and with the only requirement that their issuance be preceded by consultation with the Deputy Chairperson.
True or False: In Canadian Association of Refugee Lawyers v Canada (Citizenship and Immigration), 2020 FCA 196, the Federal Court of Appeal held that the statement that RPD and RAD members are “expected” to apply jurisprudential guides in similar cases or explain why not unlawfully fettered members’ discretion.
False: The Federal Court found that this statement of “expectation” fettered members’ discretion, however, the Federal Court of Appeal reversed. It was held that the facts at issue in the jurisprudential guides were general in nature and likely to apply to a range of claimants from a given country of origin. Further, the jurisprudential guides are also public and therefore “much less susceptible to give rise to an apprehension of coercion or to a perception of interference by superiors.” The decisionmakers could justify their reasons in departing from the jurisprudential guides, and in fact, did so in a significant percentage of cases.
Which of the following do not correspond to principles set out in Guideline 7?
A) Claimants do not set the agenda for proceedings; RPD members are the ones to determine what issues must be resolved
B) To use a document at the proceeding, the claimant/Minister must disclose the document to the other party
C) When a claimant is more than 15 minutes late for a hearing, the RPD members can decide if the claim should be declared abandoned.
D) The order of questioning will usually start with the RPD member questioning the claimant; this is also set out in rule 10 of the RPD Rules.
C: If a claimant arrives more than 15 minutes late for a hearing, RPD members may either adjourn the hearing or schedule a special hearing to decide whether a claim should be declared abandoned. The Guidelines do not state that the RPD will decide on abandonment immediately.
True or False: In Thamotharem v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2007 FCA 198, the Federal Court of Appeal held that guidelines and policies are “soft law”, which must be followed by decision-makers to produce consistent decisions.
False: Justice Evans notes that while agencies may issue guidelines or policy statements to structure the exercise of statutory discretion in order to enhance consistency, administrative decision makers may not apply them as if they were law.
True or False: In Thamotharem v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2007 FCA 198, the Federal Court of Appeal held that although having the RPD member question the claimant first is unfair, it does not amount to breach procedural fairness where the claim is manifestly unfounded.
False: The Federal Court of Appeal held that while a claimant may derive tactical advantage from being taken through their claim first by their own counsel, the loss of that advantage does not necessarily lead to unfairness. Indeed, having the RPD member question a claimant first in one sense increases the level of fairness, in that it provides notice to the claimant and their counsel as to which areas of the claim most concern the member.
Which of the following are policy instruments that the Chairperson may issue under IRPA, s 159(1)(h)?
A) Divisional rules
B) Chairperson’s Guidelines
C) Federal Court decisions
D) Ministerial Instructions
B: Note that the Chairperson is authorized to make rules for each division under IRPA, s 161.
Which of the following correspond to principles set out in Guideline 7?
A) The principles of natural justice and fairness require the RPD to give the claimant or their counsel discretion as to the length of their submissions.
B) If the National Documentation Package has been updated in the week before the RPD hearing, the RPD may not relied on the updated version in its decision.
C) Conferences will be held between the RPD member and the parties at the outset of every hearing to ensure the efficiency and fairness of proceedings.
D) At the beginning of the hearing, the interpreter must confirm they have used a standardized script to ensure that the interpreter and claimant understand each other.
D: See section 4.8 of Guideline 7.
Which of the following is/are held by the Federal Court of Appeal in Thamotharem v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2007 FCA 198?
A) The degree of procedural protection at the RPD must be tailored to fit the inquisitorial and relatively informal nature of its hearings
B) The fair adjudication of individual rights is better achieved in an adversarial process
C) When the RPD member pose probing questions to the claimant, it makes the proceeding adversarial in the procedural sense
D) Guideline 7 jeopardizes the ability of the RPD to accurately determine claims for refugee protection
A: The Federal Court of Appeal held that the fair adjudication of individual rights is perfectly compatible with an inquisitorial process. In the absence in most cases of a party to oppose the claim, RPD members are responsible for making the inquiries necessary, including questioning the claimant, to determine the validity of the claim. The fact that the member may ask probing questions does not make the proceeding adversarial in the procedural sense.
Which of the following is/are held by the Federal Court of Appeal in Thamotharem v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2007 FCA 198?
A) The fair adjudication of individual rights requires an adversarial process. Refugee claims are no different than criminal trials in that respect.
B) The seriousness of the rights involved in the determination of a refugee claim suggest a high degree of procedural protection is required.
C) Due to the difficulty of making credibility findings, RPD members may question claimants in a badgering or aggressive manner.
D) Chairperson’s Guidelines have the same binding force as the statute.
B: The seriousness of the rights involved in the determination of a refugee claim suggest a high degree of procedural protection is required. See paragraph 41 of the decision.
Which of the following are tools that RPD and RAD members can use to guide their decisions?
A) Jurisprudential guides
B) Persuasive decisions
C) Reasons of interest
D) Laws of the foreign national’s country of nationality
A, B and C: The tools used that specific aim at guiding decision-making with respect to certain kinds of claims are the following:
Jurisprudential guides, which the website describes as “policy instruments that support consistency in adjudicating cases which share essential similarities.”
Persuasive decisions, identified by the head of a division “as being of persuasive value in developing the jurisprudence of a particular division.”
Reasons of interest, which are decisions “that the IRB deems noteworthy” as models, among other things, of excellence in reasons writing, of a thorough assessment of a complex issue, or of how to respond to a timely or emerging issue.
True or False: When a counsel wishes to terminate representation of a claimant, they can do so during the RPD proceeding by asking for leave to do so.
False: According to RPD subrule 15(1), counsel must first provide to the claimant and to the Minister, if the Minister is a party, a copy of a written request to be removed and then provide the written request to the Division, no later than three working days before the date fixed for the next proceeding. A request to be removed as counsel of record may only be made at the hearing if it is impossible to comply with subrule 15(1).
Which of the following is/are factors the RPD will consider in determining whether a claimant is unable to appreciate the nature of the proceedings and hence requires a designated representative?
A) The claimant’s behaviour at the proceeding
B) The evidence of an expert witness on the claimant’s intellectual capacity
C) Specialized knowledge with respect to claimants with similar circumstances
D) The claimant’s age or educational credentials
A) The claimant’s behaviour at the proceeding
B) The evidence of an expert witness on the claimant’s intellectual capacity
RPD Rule 20(5) lists the factors to consider when determining if a claimant is unable to appreciate the nature of the proceedings.
True or False: If the claimant wishes to use a document in a hearing, they must provide a copy of the document to the RPD. Failing to do so will result in the claimant being forbidden from using the document.
False: Under RPD Rule 34, when a party wants to use a document in a hearing, they must provide a copy to the other party and the RPD. If the party fails to do so, the RPD can decide to nevertheless allow the document to be used under Rule 36.
If a party wishes to provide a document as evidence after a hearing, the RPD can decide to accept it based on which of the following factor(s)?
A) Whether the party could have provided the document during the hearing with reasonable efforts
B) Whether this document brings any new evidence to the proceeding
C) Whether the document is authentic
D) Whether the document is relevant to the proceeding
A and B: Under RPD Rule 43(3), the RPD must consider: (a) the document’s relevance and probative value (which includes authenticity); (b) any new evidence the document brings to the proceedings; and (c) whether the party, with reasonable effort, could have provided the document as required by rule 34.
True or False: If the Minister wishes to intervene at an appeal before the RAD, the Minister must provide a written notice to the RAD only. Any evidence can be submitted at the RAD hearing.
False: Under RAD Rule 4(1), the Minister must provide, first to the appellant and then to the RAD, a written notice of intervention, together with any documentary evidence that the Minister wants to rely on in the appeal. The RAD rarely holds hearings and may only do so when the requirements of IRPA, s 110(6) are met.
True or False: In a RPD hearing of a claim for refugee protection where the Minister is not a party, the RPD member will typically question the claimant first.
True: Unless there are exceptional circumstances, the claimant will be questioned first by the RPD member, and then by the claimant’s counsel according to RPD Rule 10(1).
True or False: Claimants may request extensions of time to complete Basis of Claim Form; however, extensions will not be granted for medical reasons.
False: Applications for extensions of time to submit the Basis of Claim form can be made for medical reasons under Rule 8(3) of RPD.