Recall Fatima Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the use of Infliximab in immunomodulatory treatment.

A

Infliximab is used when there is no concurrent CMV infection.

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2
Q

What should be done for the delivered placenta in post-delivery management?

A

Ensure IV access.

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3
Q

What action should be taken for the undelivered placenta in post-delivery management?

A

Perform uterine massage.

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4
Q

How should supportive care be managed post-delivery?

A

Hydration is key.

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5
Q

What are the first-line antibiotics for treatment?

A

Doxycycline and erythromycin.

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6
Q

What are the second-line antibiotics for treatment?

A

Corticosteroids.

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7
Q

What is the recommended method for diagnosing squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Biopsy.

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8
Q

What are the options for topical treatment of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Various options available.

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9
Q

What caution should be exercised when using SSRIs?

A

Watch for interactions with cannabis and alcohol.

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10
Q

How should withdrawal of SSRIs in young people be managed?

A

Withdrawal should be gradual over months.

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11
Q

Differentiate between palliative care and hospice care.

A

Palliative care includes pain management alongside curative treatments and is not necessarily terminal, while hospice care is for terminal patients typically with less than 6 months to live.

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12
Q

What are the symptoms of Mycoplasma Pneumonia?

A

Can cause rash, bullous erythema.

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13
Q

How is Mycoplasma Pneumonia transmitted?

A

Spread through respiratory droplets.

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14
Q

What are the instructions for insulin administration in major surgery?

A

Maintain usual dose and diet but fast from midnight, start insulin 24 hours post-surgery until oral fluids are resumed, and regularly monitor blood glucose during surgery.

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15
Q

What is the approach to insulin administration in minor surgery?

A

Delay insulin administration until post-surgery.

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16
Q

How are HLA genes associated with celiac disease?

A

Presence of certain HLA genes increases the risk for celiac disease.

17
Q

What dietary management is recommended for individuals with celiac disease?

A

Avoid cow’s milk in sensitive individuals.

18
Q

What are the recommended oral laxatives for constipation in infants <1 month?

A

Coloxyl drops.

19
Q

What are the recommended oral laxatives for constipation in infants 1-12 months?

A

Iso-osmotic laxative (Movicol Junior™ or Lactulose).

20
Q

What are the recommended oral laxatives for constipation in children?

A

Iso-osmotic laxative or lubricant (paraffin oil).

21
Q

What may be needed for children with stool withholding and constipation?

A

Inpatient disimpaction.

22
Q

Define secondary amenorrhea.

A

Absence of menses for >3 months in previously regular cycles or >6 months in previously irregular cycles.

23
Q

Describe the significance of a positive serum hCG result in the evaluation process.

A

A positive serum hCG result indicates pregnancy.

24
Q

What are some major causes assessed during the evaluation process based on history and physical examination?

A

Weight change, eating disorders, excessive exercise, galactorrhea, hot flashes, acne, hirsutism, systemic illness, uterine instrumentation.

25
Q

How should elevated Prolactin levels be interpreted in the evaluation process?

A

Repeat Prolactin test; if elevated again, consider Hyperprolactinemia (Next step: Pituitary MRI); if normal, continue normal evaluation.

26
Q

Define the next steps if FSH levels are found to be elevated during the evaluation process.

A

Elevated FSH suggests Primary ovarian insufficiency (typically with low E2).

27
Q

What should be done if TSH levels are abnormal during the evaluation process?

A

Treat thyroid disease.

28
Q

Describe the evaluation process if E2 levels are found to be low.

A

Low E2 indicates Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism (Functional hypothalamic amenorrhea, systemic illness, hypothalamic/pituitary disorders).

29
Q

What is the recommended action if signs of Hyperandrogenism are present during the evaluation process?

A

Consider Pituitary MRI to rule out sellar mass. Likely PCOS.

30
Q

How should normal labs and a history of uterine instrumentation be further evaluated during the process?

A

Perform Progestin Withdrawal Test; if no bleeding, conduct further tests like estrogen/progestin withdrawal test or hysteroscopy.

31
Q

What type of test is recommended for drug abuse evaluation in the initial stage of assessment?

A

Urine test.

32
Q

Describe the medication that is contraindicated for females planning conception due to teratogenicity.

A

Methotrexate (MTX) is contraindicated.

33
Q

Do males shift to 5-aminosalicylic acid without causing oligospermia?

A

Yes, males can shift to 5-aminosalicylic acid without causing oligospermia.

34
Q

Describe the management of electrolyte imbalances in TPN related to rapid refeeding.

A

Monitor electrolytes, supplement phosphate, magnesium, potassium, gradual refeeding, and provide thiamine supplementation.

35
Q

How should head injury management be approached based on GCS levels?

A

Mild head injury without risk factors (GCS = 15) requires a secondary survey and discharge if acting normally. Mild head injury with risk factors (GCS = 14 to 15) involves observation for up to 4 hours and consideration of neuroimaging. Moderate head injury (GCS = 9 to 13) requires consultation with a senior clinician/neurosurgical team, urgent CT head +/- cervical spine, and specific management protocols. Severe head injury (GCS = 3 to 8) necessitates activation of the trauma team, consideration of intubation, consultation with the neurosurgical team, urgent CT head +/- cervical spine, and specific management protocols.

36
Q

Define the initial assessment steps for managing an Iliac Pseudoaneurysm (IPA).

A

The initial assessment involves vascular imaging to determine the size of the IPA.

37
Q

What are the treatment options for an Iliac Pseudoaneurysm (IPA) with a size of 3.0 cm or larger?

A

For an IPA size ≥ 3.0 cm, treatment options include Ultrasound-Guided Thrombin Injection (UGTI) for uncomplicated cases and Open Surgical Repair for complicated cases.