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RECALL DETAIL > Recall - Fatima > Flashcards

Recall - Fatima Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the treatment for Reiter Syndrome post-Campylobacter infection.

A

NSAIDs are typically used for symptom management.

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2
Q

Define osteoporosis.

A

A condition characterized by weakening of bones, making them fragile and more likely to break.

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3
Q

What do elevated prostate levels due to prostate cancer metastasis lead to?

A

Osteoblastic (bone-forming) lesions.

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4
Q

Differentiate between osteoblastic and sclerotic lesions.

A

Both indicate increased bone density but are not identical.

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5
Q

What are the guidelines regarding prostate cancer in Australian men?

A

It is the most common non-skin cancer.

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6
Q

What is the recommended action for PSA levels below 10 ng/mL?

A

Active surveillance is recommended.

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7
Q

What treatment is often utilized for tumor stage 3b prostate cancer?

A

Radiation therapy.

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8
Q

What is the most common side effect post-prostatectomy?

A

Erectile dysfunction.

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9
Q

Do individuals with Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome have an absent uterus?

A

Yes, they have a 46, XY karyotype.

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10
Q

Describe the absence of breast development in Turner Syndrome.

A

It is due to a 45, XO karyotype.

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11
Q

What do low FSH and LH levels indicate?

A

Hypogonadism.

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12
Q

What do high FSH and LH levels suggest, with karyotyping for diagnosis?

A

Hypergonadism.

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13
Q

What karyotype is associated with premature ovarian failure?

A

45, XO.

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14
Q

What does delayed puberty in girls aged 8-13 without breast development indicate?

A

Delayed puberty.

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15
Q

What testis volume in boys aged 9-14 indicates delayed puberty?

A

Less than 4 mL.

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16
Q

Describe Glioblastoma in pediatric brain tumors.

A

It is rare in young children, aggressive, and leads to rapid neurological decline.

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17
Q

What symptoms are associated with Ependymoma in pediatric brain tumors?

A

Hydrocephalus symptoms.

18
Q

What causes precocious puberty in Pinealoma?

A

Beta-hCG secretion.

19
Q

What are the effects of Craniopharyngioma on puberty and growth?

A

It causes delayed puberty and growth failure.

20
Q

What trimester should Nitrofurantoin be avoided in during pregnancy?

A

The 3rd trimester.

21
Q

When should Trimethoprim be avoided during pregnancy?

A

The first trimester (due to low folate risk).

22
Q

Describe the management of rectal bleeding in gastrointestinal conditions.

A

DRE and Proctoscopy.

23
Q

How is labor progression managed in a primigravida if CTG is normal?

A

Wait.

24
Q

Define Presbycusis and its symptoms.

A

Age-related hearing loss; Increased volume for TV, hearing aids, etc.

25
Q

What is the recommended antibiotic prophylaxis for GBS during labor?

A

IV Prophylaxis for high-risk individuals.

26
Q

Do for Neck Masses evaluation.

A

Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology (FNAC).

27
Q

Describe the functions associated with the left parietal brain lobe.

A

Apraxia, writing, math issues.

28
Q

How is Cryptogenic Organizing Pneumonia treated?

A

Prednisolone or dexamethasone for 6-12 months.

29
Q

Define Tinea and its management.

A

Fungal infection; Skin scraping, repeat nail clipping if initial negative. Oral terbinafine for 3 months or itraconazole.

30
Q

How is Impetigo managed?

A

Waterproof dressing, mupirocin ointment, cephalexin if recurrent or severe.

31
Q

Describe the treatment for Lung Abscess.

A

Penicillin, possibly add metronidazole.

32
Q

How is Lateral Epicondylitis managed if crepitus is present?

A

X-ray needed.

33
Q

Describe the management for orbital cellulitis.

A

IV flucloxacillin and ceftriaxone.

34
Q

What is the treatment for MRSA infections?

A

Severe - vancomycin; Moderate - clindamycin.

35
Q

How should lice infestations be managed?

A

Use comb when lice seen, permethrin application, reapply as necessary.

36
Q

Define Hereditary Spherocytosis treatment options.

A

Folic Acid and B12 (if < 6 years old), Blood transfusion, Splenectomy (if > 6 years old).

37
Q

What are the colonoscopy guidelines post-adenoma for Advanced Adenoma at 1 Year?

A

Next colonoscopy in 3 years.

38
Q

Describe the features of Transient Global Amnesia.

A

Retains personal details but not current date; resolves within 24 hours.

39
Q

How does chronic hyperkalemia relate to digoxin use in renal impairment?

A

It is common with digoxin use in renal impairment.

40
Q

What is the preferred antibiotic prophylaxis for Cat and Human Bites Management?

A

Amoxicillin with clavulanate.

41
Q

Do you need early surgical assessment for hand bites in Cat and Human Bites Management?

A

Yes.

42
Q

Describe the duration of treatment for established infections in Cat and Human Bites Management.

A

7-10 days.

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