Real Property Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the four essential terms that must be included in a writing for the transfer of an interest in real property under the Statute of Frauds?

A

The terms that must be included are:

  • description of the property
  • description of the parties
  • price AND
  • any conditions of price or payment if agreed on.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the seller entitled to if the buyer breaches a contract for the sale of real property?

A

The seller is entitled to expectation damages, measured by the difference between the contract price and the market price at the time of the breach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In a real estate sales contract, what recourse does a seller have if the buyer breaches?

A

The seller may seek rescission of the contract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What can the buyer recover if the seller breaches a contract for the sale of real property?

A

The buyer can recover expectation damages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Marketable title is title that is reasonably free from doubt in both fact and law. Title is not reasonably free from doubt if it contains what four defects?

A

Title is not reasonably free from doubt if it has any of the following:

  • defects in the chain of title
  • encumbrances
  • significant encroachments OR
  • zoning violations
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A homeowner entered into a written contract with a buyer to sell his property for $300,000. At the time of contracting, the homeowner had a mortgage with the bank on the property. Three months later, just before the closing, the buyer called the homeowner to tell him he could not buy the property. At the time of the buyer’s breach, the market price on the property was $280,000. The homeowner eventually closed on the property with another buyer six months later for $270,000. Under the traditional rule, what can the homeowner recover in his suit against the buyer for breach of the contract?
A. The homeowner can recover a maximum of $20,000, representing the difference between the original purchase price and the value of the property at the time of the breach.
B. The homeowner can recover $20,000, representing the difference between the original purchase price and the value of the property at the time of the breach, plus interest payments made between the contracted closing and the eventual close of the property.
C. The homeowner can recover $30,000, representing the difference between the original purchase price and the actual purchase price, plus interest payments made between the contracted closing and the eventual close of the property.
D. The homeowner cannot recover because he had yet to deliver a deed on the property.

A

B. The homeowner can recover $20,000, representing the difference between the original purchase price and the value of the property at the time of the breach, plus interest payments made between the contracted closing and the eventual close of the property.

Under the traditional rule, when a buyer breaches a contract for the sale of real property, the seller is entitled to expectation damages, measured by the difference between the contract price and the market price at the time of breach. Note that some courts now measure expectation damages based on the difference between the contract price and the resale price in order to compensate the seller in a falling market; however this is not the traditional rule, so this rule is inapplicable in this case. Moreover, the seller can also recover foreseeable consequential damages, such as mortgage interest payments that the seller must make due to the buyer’s breach. Here, the market value for the property was $20,000 less than the contract price when the buyer breached the contract. Under the traditional rule, the homeowner can recover this $20,000 plus additional interest payments that he had to make due to the buyer’s breach. As such, this is the correct answer choice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three terms that a mortgage deed must include?

A

A mortgage deed must include:

  1. identity of parties
  2. description of property AND
  3. intent to create a security interest.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define purchase-money mortgage.

A

A purchase-money mortgage is mortgage to a vendor of the real estate or to a third-party lender to the extent that the proceeds of the loan are used to acquire title to the real estate or to construct improvements on the real estate if the mortgage is given as part of the same transaction in which title is acquired.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define deed of trust.

A

In a deed of trust, the debtor/note maker is the settlor, who gives a deed of trust to a trustee who is closely connected to the lender. In the event of a default, the trustee is directed to proceed with a foreclosure sale. Deeds of trust are generally treated like mortgages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The following three mortgage theories are in effect in various jurisdictions of the United States: title theory, lien theory, and intermediate theory. Define each.

A

The title theory is the classic common law model for determining the nature of the interests held by the mortgagor and the mortgagee. Under the traditional title theory, the mortgagee receives legal title to the mortgaged real property and has a right to take possession of and to collect rents and profits from the property.
In a lien theory jurisdiction, the mortgagee receives a lien, and the mortgagor retains legal and equitable title and possession to the mortgaged real property, unless and until foreclosure occurs.
In an intermediate theory jurisdiction, the mortgagor retains legal title until default occurs. After default, legal title and possession pass to the mortgagee, who may then begin to collect rents and profits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If a senior mortgage is modified, when does a junior mortgage prevail over the modification?

A

If a senior mortgage is modified, then a junior mortgage prevails if the modification materially prejudices the holder of the junior mortgage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the result if the transferee of mortgaged real property assumes the mortgage and mortgage payments are not made?

A

The mortgagee may foreclose and force the property to be sold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens to junior interests (i.e., second or later mortgages) in the property with a foreclosure sale?

A

Junior interests are destroyed with a foreclosure sale.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Define foreclosure and redemption, and note whether each is a buyer’s or a seller’s remedy.

A

Foreclosure is a remedy for the seller, or mortgagee. It allows the seller to get her security interest back after nonpayment.
Redemption is a remedy for the buyer, or mortgagor. It allows the buyer to get his property back after payment has come due.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define fee simple absolute, and state the language used to create a fee simple absolute.

A

A fee simple absolute is the largest possible estate in land, denoting the aggregate of all possible rights that a person may have in that parcel of land.
Example of creation language: “To B and his heirs.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When does a determinable estate terminate?

A

A determinable estate automatically terminates on the happening of a named future event (“To A and her heirs for so long as the premises are used for educational purposes”).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the future interest created by a determinable estate?

A

A possibility of reverter, which may be implied, is the future interest created by a determinable estate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can an estate subject to a condition subsequent be cut short?

A

An estate subject to a condition subsequent may be cut short if the estate is retaken by the grantor or a third party on the happening of a named future event.
Example: O conveys “to A and his heirs, but if the premises are not used for educational purposes, then O has the right to reenter the premises and terminate A’s estate.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a fee simple subject to an executory interest?

A

A fee simple subject to an executory interest is an estate that is automatically divested in favor of a third person on the happening of a named event.
Example: O conveys “to A for so long as the premises are used for charitable purposes, but if the premises cease to be used for charitable purposes, then to B.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How long does a life estate last?

A

A life estate lasts for the duration of teh grantee’s life.

Example: O conveys “to A for life.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Despite the prohibition on voluntary waste, when may natural resources be consumed?

A

They may be consumed:

  • for the repair and maintenance of the property;
  • with permission of grantor; OR
  • under the open mines doctrine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When is a life tenant allowed to commit ameliorative waste?

A

A life tenant may commit ameliorative waste when:

  • the market value of the remainderman’s interest is not impaired AND either:
    a. it is permitted by the remainderman; OR
    b. a substantial and permanent change in the neighborhood has deprived the property of a reasonable current value.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define reversion.

A

Reversion is a future interest retained by the grantor when the grantor transfers less than a fee interest to a third person. A reversion is NOT subject to the Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Define possibility of reverter.

A

A possibility of reverter is future interest in the grantor that follows a determinable estate. A possibility of reverter is NOT subject to the Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Define right of entry.

A

A right of entry is a future interest in the grantor that follows a fee simple or life estate subject to a condition subsequent. A right of entry is NOT subject to the Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define remainder.

A

A remainder is a future interest created in a third person, which is intended to take after the natural termination of the preceding estate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Define vested remainder.

A

A person who takes a vested remainder must be ascertained or ascertainable at the time that the remainder is created. A vested remainder is transferable, descendible, and devisable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe a remainder that is vested subject to open, sometimes called vested subject to partial divestment.

A

It is made to a class (e.g. his children) and has at least one member who is ascertainable and who has satisfied any conditions precedent to vesting, but it may have other members joint he class later.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is a remainder contingent?

A

It is contingent if the takers are unascertained or the interest is subject to a condition precedent and therefore does not fall in automatically on the natural termination of the previous estate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When will a contingent remainder become an executory interest?

A

The contingent remainder becomes an executory interest if it has not vested at the natural termination of the prior vested estate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define executory interest, and name the two types.

A

An executory interest is a future interest in a third person that cuts short the previous estate before it would have naturally terminated.
The two types of executory interests are:
- shifting executory interest, which cuts short a prior estate; interest passes from grantee to grantee AND
- springing executory interest, which does not become presently possessory until some time after the natural termination of the previous estate; interest passes from grantor to grantee.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Define tenancy in common.

A

It is a form of concurrent ownership where each co-tenant owns an undivided interest in the whole of the property with no right of survivorship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the two ways a tenant in common can transfer her interest inter vivos?

A

It can be transferred:

  • voluntarily, through a conveyance, lease, mortgage, or other transfer of a present possessory or future property interest; OR
  • involuntarily, through a foreclosure on a mortgage of the tenant’s interest or an execution of a judgment creditor’s lien on the tenant’s interest in the property.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Define joint tenancy.

A

It is a form of concurrent ownership where each co-tenant owns an undivided interest in the whole of the property and has a right of survivorship.

35
Q

What four unities does a joint tenancy require?

A

It requires TTIP:

  • Time
  • Title
  • Interest AND
  • Possession.
36
Q

When is a joint tenancy severed?

A

A joint tenancy severed if oe joint tenant conveys his interest voluntarily or involuntarily.

37
Q

What does the execution of a mortgage by one joint tenant cause in a title theory state?

A

It causes the legal interest of that co-tenant to be transferred to the mortgage.

38
Q

What does a mortgagee receive in a lien theory state?

A

The mortgagee receives a lien on the property. Therefore, no severance occurs when the mortgage is made because the unities remain intact.

39
Q

Define tenancy by the entirety.

A

It is a form of concurrent ownership reserved for married couples that gives each spouse an undivided interest in the whole of the property and a right of survivorship.

40
Q

What portion of the property is each co-tenant entitled to possess?

A

Each co-tenant is entitled to possess the whole property.

41
Q

When does an out-of-possession co-tenant have the right to demand rent from a co-tenant who is in actual possession of the premises?

A

The out-of-possession co-tenant can demand when the co-tenant in possession has exploited the property in a manner resulting in permanent depreciation.

42
Q

When does a co-tenant have no right to seek a contribution or set-off for improvements made to the premises?

A

A co-tenant may not seek contribution or set-off when the improvements generate increased rents or profits. In that case, costs of improvements are recoverable only in a partition suit.

43
Q

Define each co-tenant’s right to seek partition.

A

Each co-tenant has the right to seek partition of the property.

44
Q

List the unities that are required, and note whether a right of survivorship attaches, for these three concurrent estates: joint tenants, tenancy by the entirety, tenancy in common.

A

Joint Tenants: Unities are time, title, interest and possession (TTIP); right of survivorship attaches.
Tenancy by the Entirety: Unities are time, title, interest possession, person (TTIPP); right of survivorship attaches.
Tenancy in Common: Unity is possession only; there is no right of survivorship.

45
Q

In what two ways may a lease be created expressly?

A

It may be created orally or in writing. A writing is generally required by the Statute of Frauds for a term of more than one year.

46
Q

Define periodic tenancy.

A

A periodic tenancy has a set beginning date and continues from period to period (e.g. from month to month) without a set termination date until proper notice is given.

47
Q

Define at-will lease.

A

An at-will lease has no fixed duration and lasts only as long as the landlord and tenant desire.

48
Q

Define tenancy at sufferance/holdover tenancy.

A

It is when a tenant remains in possession of the leased premises after the end of the lease term (“holds over.”)

49
Q

Define sublease.

A

A sublease is when the tenant transfers to a third person (subtenant or sublessee) less than all of her right, title and interest in the leased premises. A subtenant does not come into privity of estate with the landlord.

50
Q

What does the common law Rule against Perpetuities provide?

A

It provides that “no interest is good unless it must vest, if at all, not later than 21 years after some life in being at the creation of the interest.”

51
Q

Which four interests are not subject to the Rule against Perpetuities?

A

These interests are:

  • present possessory estates;
  • charitable trusts;
  • resulting trusts; and
  • interests that are fully vested at the time of creation, including:
    a. reversionary interests; AND
    b. completely vested remainders.
52
Q

Which four interest are subject to the Rule against Perpetuities?

A

The interests are:

  • options to purchase land not incident to a lease;
  • powers of appointment;
  • interest that are not fully vested at the time of creation, including:
    a. remainders that are subject to open;
    b. contingent remainders; AND
    c. executory interests.
53
Q

What is a child conceived but not born at the time of the commencement of the Rule against Perpetuities considered?

A

This child is considered a life in being.

54
Q

What is the time for determining lives in being when the conveyance is by will?

A

The time is at the death of the testator.

55
Q

What is the time for determining lives in being in a conveyance by inter vivos deed?

A

It is at the time of the conveyance.

56
Q

Under the common law Rule against Perpetuities, until what age is any person irrebuttably presumed capable of having children?

A

This is presumed until death.

57
Q

Define restraint on alienation.

A

It is a condition placed on the ownership of real property that restricts the free conveyance of that property.

58
Q

For what future interest are forfeiture restraints valid?

A

They are valid for life estates and future interests, but they are not enforceable for fee simple estates.

59
Q

A doctor and a lawyer own an office building as joint tenants with right of survivorship. Ten years ago, the doctor mortgaged his interest in the office building to the bank. Five years ago, the lawyer conveyed his interest “to my niece.” One year ago, the doctor passed away, leaving his entire estate to his son. The jurisdiction follows the lien theory of mortgages.
A. The lawyer in fee simple absolute.
B. The son and the niece as joint tenants with right of survivorship.
C. The son and the niece as co-tenants.
D. The son and the lawyer as co-tenants.

A

C. The son and the niece as co-tenants.

A joint tenancy requires the unities of time, title, interest and possession. When one joint tenant dies, the surviving tenant acquires the interest of the deceased joint tenant. In a lien theory state, a joint tenancy is not severed when one joint tenant mortgages his interest in the property. Therefore, the doctor’s mortgage to the bank did not sever the joint tenancy. However, a joint tenancy is severed when one joint tenant conveys his interest because the unities of time and title are destroyed. When the lawyer conveyed his interest to his niece, the joint tenancy between the doctor and the lawyer was severed, and the doctor and the niece owned the property as co-tenants. When the doctor died, leaving his entire estate to his son, the son became a co-tenant (or tenant in common) with the niece.

60
Q

When may a landowner be strictly liable for subsiding of neighboring land?

A

He may be strictly liable if his excavation causes adjacent land to subside (sink).

61
Q

Define a covenant and the covenantor’s role in a covenant that runs with the land.

A

A covenant that runs with the land is a promise that attaches to land. In that covenant, the covenantor promises to do or refrain from doing something on her land.

62
Q

List the five elements that must be satisfied for a covenant to run with the land.

A

The elements are:

  1. writing;
  2. intent;
  3. privity;
  4. touch and concern; AND
  5. notice.
63
Q

When may a court enforce a covenant as an equitable servitude?

A

It may be enforced if the plaintiff can establish at law all of the elements for a covenant that runs with the land, but the plaintiff seeks equitable relief; or the plaintiff cannot establish at law all of the elements for a covenant that runs with the land, but the plaintiff can demonstrate the relaxed requirements for an equitable servitude.

64
Q

Define implied reciprocal servitude.

A

If the owner of two or more lots, so situated as to bear the relation, sells one with restrictions of benefits to the land retained, the servitude becomes mutual. The owner of the lot or lots retained may not do anything forbidden to the owner of the lot sold, creating an implied reciprocal servitude.

65
Q

List the factors that may show a common scheme.

A

Factors include:

  • a large percentage of lots expressly burdened;
  • oral representations to buyers;
  • statements in written advertisements, sales brochures, or maps given to buyers; or
  • recored plat maps or declarations.
66
Q

Define a profit a prendre.

A

It is the right to take something from the land of another.

Example: A has the right to take gravel from B’s land.

67
Q

List the four ways in which an easement may be created.

A

It may be created:

  • expressly through a writing;
  • by implication;
  • by prescription; OR
  • by estoppel.
68
Q

Define easement.

A

It is a nonpossessory interest in the land of another. The Statute of Frauds generally requires a writing to create an easement.

69
Q

What does an easement implied by necessity require?

A

It requires severance of title to land held in common ownership and strict necessity for the easement at the time of severance.

70
Q

Describe an affirmative easement created by prescription.

A

This requires proof of the use of property that is:

  • open and notorious;
  • actual;
  • exclusive;
  • hostile; AND
  • continuous (the traditional period for prescription is 20 years).
71
Q

List three ways in which an easement is terminated.

A

An easement is terminated:

  • when the dominant and servient estates come into common ownership;
  • by abandonment; OR
  • when a governmental body acquires the servient estate through an exercise of the eminent domain power.
72
Q

Define fixture.

A

A fixture is a chattel that has become so connected to real property that a disinterested observer would consider the chattel to be part of the realty.

73
Q

What is an owner of a fixture and the land to which it is attached that are subject to common ownership free to do?

A

She may sever the chattel physically and permanently from the premises. In that case, the fixture regains its status as personal property.

74
Q

Define trade fixture.

A

A trade fixture is a chattel that is annexed to the land by a tenant (life tenant, tenant for a term, periodic tenant, or tenant at will) to advance her business or trade during her tenancy. During a tenancy, a tenant is free to remove a trade fixture.

75
Q

Under the modern trend, in what time period are tenants permitted to remove trade fixtures?

A

This is permitted within a reasonable time after the expiration of the lease.

76
Q

Explain how a zoning ordinance is enacted.

A

The state possesses the power to regulate for the health, safety and welfare of its citizens. Through an enabling act, the state may delegate to a municipality the authority to protect the welfare of its citizens by enacting a zoning ordinance.

77
Q

A farmer owned a large parcel of land. A businessman owned the tract of land to the east of the farmer’s land. The farmer had an easement on the businessman’s land that allowed the farmer to use the barn on the businessman’s land. The farmer then purchased all of the businessman’s land. After purchasing the businessman’s land, the farmer stopped using the barn. A few years later, the farmer sold the eastern tract of land to a buyer. Does the easement still exist?
A. No, because the farmer abandoned the easement.
B. No because the estates came into common ownership.
C. Yes, because the easement was implied by prior use.
D. Yes, because the easement was implied by necessity.

A

B. No because the estates came into common ownership.

An easement terminates when the dominant estate and the servient estate come into common ownership. Here, the farmer had an easement on the businessman’s land, but then the farmer purchased the businessman’s land. The easement ceased to exist when the farmer purchased the businessman’s land, and the estates came into common ownership.

78
Q

What proof of possession is required in cases of adverse possession?

A

The required proof is that possession is:

  • open, visible, and notorious;
  • actual;
  • exclusive;
  • hostile and under a claim of title or right; AND
  • continuous for the statutory period.
79
Q

What dos the grantor guarantee in the covenant of warranty?

A

The grantor guarantees that he will assist in defending title against lawful claims and will compensate the grantee for losses sustained by an assertion of superior title.

80
Q

What occurs if the seller dies after the execution of the contract for sale but before closing?

A

Legal title passes to her heirs or devisees; however, they must honor the sales agreement, and the purchase money passes as personalty.

81
Q

Define the following recording statutes: pure race, pure notice, and race notice.

A

Pure race: The first to record wins.
Pure notice: The last bona fide purchaser wins.
Race notice: The first bonafide purchaser to record wins.

82
Q

Define race statute.

A

The person who records first prevails.

83
Q

Define notice statute.

A

An unrecorded conveyance or other instrument is invalid as against a subsequent bonafide purchase for value and without notice.