Constitutional Law Flashcards

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1
Q

What does the Tenth Amendment provide for?

A

Any powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by the Constitution to the states, are reserved to the states.

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2
Q

Under the police power, states may regulate:

A

any health, safety, welfare, morals, or aesthetic interest.

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3
Q

What are the ways the Constitution limits the police power of the states?

A

The Constitution limits the police power of the states by:

  • reserving certain enumerated powers exclusively for the federal government (exclusive federal power);
  • restricting the government from acting in violation of Constitutional provisions (individual rights); AND
  • providing, under the Supremacy Clause, that if Congress enacts legislation with the intention of preempting state law, the congressional regulation will control (preemption).
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4
Q

A state enjoys immunity from federal taxation if the tax is applied to what?

A

If it is applied to:

  • unique state activities; OR
  • essential governmental functions.
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5
Q

Explain the anti-commandeering doctrine.

A

The federal government cannot use an enumerated power to force a state legislature to pass a law or a state executive official to administer a federal program.

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6
Q

If a state law discriminates on its face between in-state and out-of-state economic actors, the state must show what?

A

The state must show:

  • the regulation serves a compelling state interest; and
  • the regulation is narrowly tailored to serve that interest.
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7
Q

If a state law merely incidentally burdens interstate commerce, what must the state show to have the law upheld?

A

The law will be upheld unless the burden imposed on interstate commerce clearly outweighs the local benefits. The state must show:

  • the regulation furthers a legitimate state interest;
  • the law is rationally related to the legitimate state interest; AND
  • the state’s interest in enforcement outweighs the burden on interstate.
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8
Q

List the two exceptions to the dormant Commerce Clause.

A

The exceptions are:

  • when Congress affirmatively authorizes states to legislate in areas that would violate the dormant Commerce Clause; AND
  • when states act as market participants, they may discriminate between in-state and out-of-state businesses.
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9
Q

In determining the validity of a state tax affecting interstate commerce, courts will generally consider what four factors?

A

Courts will consider whether:

  • there is a substantial nexus between the activity taxed and the taxing state;
  • the tax is fairly apportioned;
  • the tax discriminates against interstate commerce; AND
  • the tax is fairly related to the services provided by the taxing state.
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10
Q

Explain the state action requirement

A

In order to show a constitutional violation the plaintiff must first show that there is governmental action. Only government actors, not private actors, can violate constitutional rights.

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11
Q

State action can be found in the actions of private actors under two theories: public function theory and the significant state involvement theory. Explain both.

A

The public function theory applies where a private entity is carrying on activities traditionally and exclusively performed by the government. The significant state involvement theory applies where the government and private entity are so closely related that the action by the private party can be treated fairly as action by the government.

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12
Q

Do the Due Process and Equal Protection Clauses of the Fourteenth Amendment protect only citizens?

A

No, the Fourteenth Amendment protects all persons, including corporations and people who have not obtained citizenship.

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13
Q

Both the Fifth and the Fourteenth Amendments protect against the deprivation of:

A

“life, liberty, or property without the due process of the law.”

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14
Q

In order to determine what procedural safeguards are necessary, courts look to what three factors?

A

Courts look to:

  • The importance of the private interest that will be affected by the official action;
  • The risk of an erroneous deprivation of this interest through procedures used and the probable value of additional or substitute procedures; AND
  • The government’s interest in streamlined procedures.
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15
Q

Strict scrutiny review applies to laws that burden the exercise of which rights?

A

Strict scrutiny review applies to:

  • the right to vote;
  • the right to travel;
  • the right to privacy;
  • First Amendment rights;
  • family rights; AND
  • other rights referred to as fundamental rights.
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16
Q

Any substantial interference with the right to marry must be necessary to further:

A

A compelling interest.

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17
Q

Any regulation on a previability abortion is unconstitutional if:

A

It imposes an undue burden on the woman’s right to choose an abortion.

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18
Q

Define rational basis review, and note the classifications to which it applies.

A

Under rational basis, the burden of persuasion is on the plaintiff to show the measure being challenged is not rationally related to any legitimate governmental interest.
Rational basis review applies to all classifications not falling under strict or intermediate scrutiny.

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19
Q

What standard of review is used when states discriminate based on alienage?

A

Strict scrutiny.

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20
Q

What are the two justifications for affirmative action that have been upheld?

A

The justifications are:
- to remedy the effects of past or present discrimination in a particular institution; AND
- to achieve a diverse student body in an institution of higher education.
NOTE: Race can be one factor among many, it can’t have a fixed weight.

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21
Q

The Fifth Amendment Takings Clause provides that the government cannot take:

A

Private property for public use without just compensation.

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22
Q

Describe a direct government appropriation taking and a regulatory taking.

A

A direct government appropriation is an actual appropriation of one’s property by the government.
A regulatory taking is a land-use regulation that denies a property owner of all reasonable economically beneficial uses of the land.

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23
Q

List the six rights protected by the privileges and immunities of national citizenship.

A

The six rights are:

  • to travel from state to state;
  • to petition Congress for redress of grievances;
  • to vote for national offices;
  • to enter public lands;
  • to be protected while in custody of U.S. Marshals; AND
  • to assemble peaceably.
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24
Q

Does the Fourteenth Amendment Privileges and Immunities Clause protect corporations?

A

No, corporations are not protected under the Fourteenth Amendment Privileges and Immunities Clause.

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25
Q

What does the Contracts Clause apply to?

A

The Contracts Clause applies only to actions by the state. It applies to state legislation, but it does not apply to state court decisions.

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26
Q

When can a private contract be modified by a state legislature?

A

It can be modified when:

  • the modification is necessary to serve an important and legitimate public interest; AND
  • the regulation is a reasonable and narrowly tailored means of promoting that interest.
27
Q

When does a statute violate the Ex Post Facto Clause?

A

A statute violates the Ex Post Facto Clause if it:

  • makes criminal an act that was not a crime when it was committed;
  • prescribes a greater punishment for a crime after its commission;
  • decreases the amount of evidence required for convictions;
  • extends the statute of limitations for a crime as to which the previously applicable statute of limitations has already expired.
28
Q

A bill of attainder is:

A

a legislative act that inflicts punishment without a judicial trial upon named individuals or an easily ascertainable group for past conduct.

29
Q

When is speech considered obscene?

A

Speech is considered obscene if:

  • the average person, applying contemporary community standards, would find that the work, taken as a whole, appeals to the prurient interest;
  • The work depicts or describes, in a patently offensive way, sexual conduct specifically defined by the applicable state law; AND
  • the work, taken as a whole, lacks serious literary, artistic, political, or scientific value.
30
Q

When legislation or a government program prefers one religion or religious sect to others, it will be reviewed under which level of scrutiny?

A

It will be reviewed under strict scrutiny.

31
Q

When legislation or a government program contains no religious or sect preference, in what cases is the act constitutional?

A

The legislation or government program is constitutional if:

  • the statute has a secular legislative purpose;
  • the primary purpose or effect neither advances nor inhibits religion; AND
  • the statute does not foster an excessive government entanglement with religion.
32
Q

The government may not punish individuals for their religious beliefs by:

A

Denying benefits or imposing burdens based on religious belief.

33
Q

When an individual’s conduct is motivated by his religious beliefs, the state my regulate or prohibit the activity if:

A

The regulation is neutral with respect to religion and is of general applicability.

34
Q

When is a law that regulates conduct and creates an incidental burden on speech constitutional?

A

It is constitutional if:

  • the regulation furthers an important government interest that is unrelated to the suppression of free expression; AND
  • the incidental restriction on speech is no greater than is essential to further that interest.
35
Q

What types of unprotected and low-value speech may be regulated?

A
  • speech that advocates violence or unlawful actions, fighting words, and hostile audience speech;
  • obscene speech; AND
  • defamatory speech
36
Q

What are the constitutional restrictions on the regulation of defamatory speech for a public official/figure on a matter of public concern? On a matter of private concern?

A

The plaintiff must prove that the state law requirements of defamation, plus actual malice, which is defined as knowledge of falsity or reckless disregard of the truth or falsity of the statement. This rule holds whether the allegedly defamatory statement is a matter of public or private concern.

37
Q

What are the constitutional restrictions on the regulation of defamatory speech for a private person on a matter

A

When the plaintiff is a private person and the statement concerns a matter of public concern, the plaintiff need not prove actual malice but must prove negligence about the truth or falsity of the statement.

38
Q

When is commercial speech protected by the First Amendment?

A

Commercial speech is protected if:

  • it is not false or deceptive; AND
  • it does not relate to unlawful activity.
39
Q

Government regulation of First Amendment-protected commercial speech must:

A
  • serve a substantial government interest;
  • directly advance the substantial government interest; AND
  • not be more extensive than is necessary to serve that interest.
40
Q

When may the government place restrains on the time, place, and manner of speech in public areas?

A

It may do so if the regulation:

  • is content-neutral as to both subject matter and viewpoint;
  • is narrowly tailored to serve an important government interest; AND
  • leaves alternative channels of communication open.
41
Q

Regulations of speech-related activities at non-public forums must be:

A
  • viewpoint neutral; AND

- reasonably related to a legitimate interest.

42
Q

Describe the overbreadth doctrine.

A

A regulation of speech must be narrow and specific; it cannot be overly broad so as to have a “chilling effect” upon protected speech.

43
Q

A city fire department required its firefighters to pass a comprehensive written exam in order to be eligible for promotion to the rank of lieutenant. Over the past several years, all the department’s African-American firefighters who sat for the exam failed to pass. Due to large public outcry, the city passed an ordinance instituting a racial quota system to govern promotions within the fire department. This rule required two of every five firefighters promoted to lieutenant to be African American. Thereafter a group of the department’s Caucasian firefighters filed suit in federal court against the city, challenging the constitutionality of the new measure.
How should the court rule?
a. For the firefighters, if they can show the rule is discriminatory in application.
b. For the firefighters, if they can show the rule has a discriminatory purpose.
c. For the city, if it can show there is no less restrictive alternative means available.
d. For the city, if it can show the rule is substantially related to a compelling interest.

A

c. For the city, if it can show there is no less restrictive alternative means available.
Affirmative action measures based on race must pass strict scrutiny. Under the strict scrutiny standard, the burden of persuasion is on the government to prove that the measure being challenged is necessary to further a compelling interest. This means that the government must prove that no less restrictive alternative means is available. Since this choice accurately applies the strict scrutiny standard, it is the correct answer.

44
Q

The Eleventh Amendment prohibits the citizens of one state from:

A

Suing their state on federal claims for money damages, in federal court, without the state’s consent.

45
Q

List the exceptions to the application of the Eleventh Amendment.

A

The exceptions are:

  • suits against state officials for abusing their power in enforcing an unconstitutional state statute;
  • federal suits brought by one state against another state or suits brought by the federal government against a state;
  • most suits for injunctions;
  • a state consents to suit in federal court; AND
  • private suits that can be authorized by Congress to compensate for violations of the Civil War Amendments.
46
Q

A state may consent. to suit in federal court if it:

A

clearly, expressly, and unequivocally waives it Eleventh Amendment immunity.

47
Q

May Congress enlarge or restrict the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction?

A

No, Congress may neither enlarge nor restrict the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction.

48
Q

Describe the Supreme Court’s appellate jurisdiction.

A

Appellate jurisdiction exists where the federal constitution or a federal law are at issue.

49
Q

When will a case be dismissed as moot?

A

If a controversy or matter has been resolved, then the case will be dismissed as moot.

50
Q

An exception to the mootness doctrine is when the injury is:

A

capable of repetition, yet evading review.

51
Q

Define ripeness.

A

Ripeness bars consideration of claims before they have fully developed. The controversy must be ripe for decision.

52
Q

Define the abstention doctrine.

A

A federal court may abstain or refuse to hear a particular case when there are undecided issues of state law presented. The abstention doctrine permits the state court to resolve issues of state law, making a decision on the constitutional issue unnecessary.

53
Q

Define the political question doctrine.

A

A political question is a matter that is assigned to another branch by the Constitution or that is incapable of judicial review. The two most important factors are:

  • something in the Constitution suggests that the ultimate decision-making authority is given to another governmental actor; AND
  • the required decision is political rather than legal in character.
54
Q

Article III requires a person litigating a constitutional question to show standing, which requires the plaintiff to show what?

A

The plaintiff must show: injury in fact; causation; AND redressability.

55
Q

Define injury in fact, causation, and redressability.

A

Injury in fact: The plaintiff suffered a direct and personal injury, actual or imminent.
Causation: The plaintiff’s injury must have been caused by the challenged action.
Redressability: The plaintiff will benefit from the remedy sought in the litigation.

56
Q

The Supreme Court permits a party to raise the constitutional rights of a third party in what cases?

A

It permits this if:

  • a special relationship exists between the claimant and third party because of the connection between the interests of the claimant and the constitutional rights of the third party; AND
  • the third party is unable to bring suit on his own behalf.
57
Q

When may an association have standing to assert the claims of its members, even if the association has not suffered any injury itself?

A

It may do so if:

  • The members would otherwise have standing to sue in their own right;
  • the interest asserted is germane to the association’s purpose; AND
  • neither the claim asserted nor the relief requested would require participation by the individual members in the lawsuit.
58
Q

List the five limitations on jurisdiction of the federal courts.

A

The justiciability mnemonic is RAMPS:

  • Ripeness
  • Advisory opinions
  • Mootness
  • Political questions
  • Standing
59
Q

Define the adequate and independent state grounds doctrine.

A

Although a state court decision may involve a federal question, if the state court judgment can be supported on an adequate and independent state ground, the Supreme Court will not take jurisdiction.

60
Q

Unlike other doctrines of judicial review, which apply to the entire federal judiciary, adequate and independent state grounds apply only to:

A

the Supreme Court of the United States.

61
Q

Explain the procedural component to adequate state grounds.

A

If the plaintiff loses in the state court for failing to comply with some state procedural rule, and the Supreme Court finds the state procedural rule to be adequate (fundamentally fair under due process analysis) then the doctrine of adequate state grounds will also apply to foreclose Supreme Court review.

62
Q

After a number of legislators find themselves fined for various ethics violations, another legislator challenges the constitutionality of the state ethics law in state court on the grounds that it violates the state constitution and is inconsistent with codified federal ethics law. The state supreme court narrowly construes the state ethics law in a manner not inconsistent with federal ethics law and finds it valid. However, it is silent on the other other grounds raised in the suit. The legislator seeks the discretionary appellate remedy of review by certiorari in the US Supreme Court. What is the most likely outcome of the legislator’s petition for US Supreme Court review of the state court decision?

a. The decision will be affirmed on adequate state law grounds.
b. The writ of certiorari will be denied on the ground that federal question jurisdiction does not exist.
c. The decision will be overturned, because the Supremacy Clause requires it.
d. The decision will be overturned, because federalism requires the state to defer to the federal government.

A

b. The writ of certiorari will be denied on the ground that federal question jurisdiction does not exist.

Under Article III, Section 2 of the US Constitution, the Supreme Court has appellate jurisdiction of cases arising under the Constitution, federal law, or treaty, including cases in which the validity of a state statute is challenged as repugnant to the Constitution or federal law. Here, while the legislator challenged the state ethics law as inconsistent with federal ethics law, the state court decision upheld the validity of the state law without finding it inconsistent with its federal counterpart. Therefore, the Supreme Court will deny the write of certiorari for the reason that a federal question is not presented.

63
Q

List some of the enumerated powers of Congress.

A

They include the power to:
- lay and collect taxes;
- borrow money on the credit of the United States;
- regulate commerce with foreign nations and among the several states; AND
- declare war, to raise and support armies, and to provide and maintain a navy.
See Article I, Section 8 for the rest of the enumerated powers of Congress.