Reading Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the transporter defect in RTA type 2?

A

Proximal sodium bicarb transporter

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2
Q

What is RTA type 4 associated with and what patient population is it most commonly seen?

A

Volume expansion. Elderly or diabetic with CKD.

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3
Q

What are the 4 clinical conditions under the umbrella of UTI?

A

Cystitis, pyelonephritis, prostatitis and AB.

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4
Q

3 requirements for uncomplicated UTI?

A

Non pregnant, do indwelling instrument, no anatomical abnormality.

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5
Q

Why do men over 50 have such a high incidence of UTI?

A

Enlargement of the prostate

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6
Q

5 risk factors for cystitis?

A

Diaphragm with spermicide, DM, incontinence, history of UTI, lots of sex

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7
Q

What makes the pathogenesis of candida distinct and what does it usually indicate if the patient has a UTI caused by candida?

A

Blood route. genital contamination.

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8
Q

Clinical triad of cystitis?

A

Frequency, dysuria, and urgency

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9
Q

4 clinical signs of pyelonephritis?

A

Low back pain, fever, N, V.

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10
Q

What patient population are we seeing emphysematous pyelonephritis?

A

Diabetic patients.

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11
Q

Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis occurs with two things happening at the same time. What are those 2 things?

A

Chronic urinary obstruction and chronic infection.

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12
Q

What type of prostatitis is far more common?

A

Noninfectious.

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13
Q

2 things with 1 thing lacking is highly predictive of uncomplicated UTI?

A

Dysuria and frequency with vaginal discharge lacking

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14
Q

What can confirm the diagnosis of uncomplicated UTI on urine dipstick?

A

Nitrite or leukocyte esterase

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15
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosis UTI?

A

Bacteria in urine culture.

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16
Q

What is the probably pathogen causing non gon urethritis?

A

M. Genitalium

17
Q

2 clinical manifestations with urethritis and what is the 1 sign that is not present?

A

Dysuria and discharge. No frequency.

18
Q

What kind of bacteria is n gon?

A

Gram negative diplococci

19
Q

4 requirements for SIRS and how many of them do you need?

A
Need 2. 
Fever over 38 or less than 36. 
Tachypnea (over 24)
Tachycardic (over 90)
Leukocytosis, over 12k or luekopenia under 4K.
20
Q

When do you say SIRS is sepsis?

A

Organ dysfunction with a known infection.

21
Q

When do we say it is septic shock?

A

Sepsis with severe hypotension

22
Q

What is the most common type of infection related to sepsis and what are the 4 top pathogens?

A

Respiratory infections.

PA, E. coli, staph aureus, candida.

23
Q

What is the patho behind having multi-organ dysfunction?

A

Widespread vascular injury leading to severe vasodilation and compromising oxygen delivery.

24
Q

How do we define oliguria, oligoanuira, and Anuria?

A

Urine output below 400, urine output below 100, and complete absence of urine output.

25
Q

Oliguria most commonly presents in the setting of what?

A

Volume depletion and or hypoperfusion.

26
Q

Why is oliguria never normal?

A

Because we need at least 400 ml of max concentrated urine to excrete our obligate amount.

27
Q

How do we define polyuria?

A

Greater than 3 liters a day

28
Q

What 3 things accompany polyuria?

A

Frequency, nocturia and hypernatremia

29
Q

How do we define the presence of albumin in the urine?

A

ACR greater than 30

30
Q

How do we define AKI/ARF?

A

Increase in serum creatinine.

31
Q

Big picture, what is the most common cause of ARF?

A

Volume depletion/significant hypoperfusion

32
Q

Most common cause of intrinsic renal failure?

A

ATN

33
Q

FENA and BUN/CR of pre renal and intra renal?

A

Less than 1 and more than 20.

Greater than 1 and less than 15.

34
Q

What is the FENA for post renal azotemia and what is the key diagnostic tool for post renal?

A

Fena greater than 1 eventually. Ultrasound to see the obstruction.