READING 6 SIMULATION METHODS Flashcards
Which characteristic of the lognormal distribution makes it particularly suitable for modeling asset prices?
A. Its symmetry around the mean.
B. Its ability to take on negative values.
C. Its boundedness below by zero.
D. Its constant variance over time.
C. Its boundedness below by zero.
Asset prices generally cannot fall below zero. The lognormal distribution, being the exponential of a normally distributed variable, is always positive, making it a more realistic model for price behavior than the normal distribution.
If the continuously compounded return of an asset is assumed to be normally distributed, the future price of the asset is most likely to follow a:
A. Normal distribution.
B. Uniform distribution.
C. Lognormal distribution.
D. Skewed normal distribution.
C. Lognormal distribution.
The future price is an exponential function of the continuously compounded return if r0,T is normally distributed, then e raised to r0,T will be lognormally distributed.
The natural logarithm of a lognormally distributed asset price will follow a:
A. Lognormal distribution.
B. Normal distribution.
C. Uniform distribution.
D. Beta distribution.
B. Normal distribution.
By definition, if a variable X is lognormally distributed, then ln(X) is normally distributed. This is a key relationship between the two distributions.
Which of the following statements regarding the skewness of normal and lognormal distributions is correct?
A. Both normal and lognormal distributions are typically symmetrical.
B. Normal distributions are typically skewed, while lognormal distributions are symmetrical.
C. Normal distributions are typically symmetrical, while lognormal distributions are typically skewed.
D. Both normal and lognormal distributions are typically skewed in the same direction.
C. Normal distributions are typically symmetrical, while lognormal distributions are typically skewed.
The normal distribution is symmetrical around its mean. The lognormal distribution, due to the exponential transformation, exhibits a positive skew.
The additive property is most directly associated with which type of return when considering the distribution of future asset prices?
A. Simple returns
B. Holding period returns
C. Continuously compounded returns
D. Annualized returns
C. Continuously compounded returns
Continuously compounded returns over sub-periods are additive, which allows the application of the Central Limit Theorem to suggest that the total continuously compounded return over a longer horizon tends towards a normal distribution.
An analyst observes that the distribution of daily percentage changes in a stock price appears roughly symmetrical. If the analyst were to model the long-term price of the stock using continuously compounded returns, the assumed distribution of the long-term price would most likely be:
A. Normal.
B. Lognormal.
C. Symmetrical.
D. Leptokurtic.
B. Lognormal.
Even if short-term percentage changes (which are related to simple returns) appear symmetrical, modeling long-term price based on the assumption of normally distributed continuously compounded returns leads to a lognormal price distribution.
Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of a lognormal distribution?
A. Positive skewness.
B. Bounded below by zero.
C. Symmetry around the mean.
D. Often used to model asset prices.
C. Symmetry around the mean.
Lognormal distributions are characterized by positive skewness, are bounded below by zero, and are frequently used in finance to model asset prices. They are not symmetrical.
The Central Limit Theorem is important in the context of lognormal asset pricing models because it suggests that the sum of a large number of independent:
A. Asset prices will be normally distributed.
B. Simple returns will be normally distributed.
C. Continuously compounded returns will be normally distributed.
D. Lognormally distributed variables will be normally distributed.
C. Continuously compounded returns will be normally distributed.
The Central Limit Theorem states that the sum (and thus the average) of a large number of independent and identically distributed random variables will approach a normal distribution, regardless of the underlying distribution of the individual variables. In this context, it applies to the sum of continuously compounded returns over small intervals.
An assumption underlying the use of the lognormal distribution for asset prices based on continuously compounded returns is the:
A. Stationarity of simple returns.
B. Non-stationarity of continuously compounded returns.
C. Stationarity of continuously compounded returns.
D. non-stationarity of asset prices.
C. Stationarity of continuously compounded returns.
While not strictly required for the Central Limit Theorem to apply in some forms, the assumption of stationarity (constant mean and variance over time) of the underlying continuously compounded returns simplifies the modeling process and is often made in introductory contexts.
Compared to a normal distribution with the same mean, a lognormal distribution will typically have:
A. Less probability mass in the right tail.
B. More probability mass in the left tail (excluding negative values).
C. More probability mass in the right tail.
D. Equal probability mass in both tails.
C. More probability mass in the right tail.
Due to its positive skew, the lognormal distribution has a longer and fatter right tail compared to a symmetrical normal distribution with the same mean.
If a random variable Y follows a lognormal distribution, then the distribution of ln(Y raised to 2) will be:
A. Lognormal.
B. Normal.
C. Chi-squared.
D. Exponential.
B. Normal.
If Y is lognormal, then ln(Y) is normal. Therefore, ln(Y raised to 2) = 2 ln(Y) will also be normally distributed (a linear transformation of a normal variable is also normal).
Which of the following is a key implication of assuming that continuously compounded returns are normally distributed?
A. Simple returns will also be normally distributed.
B. Asset prices will exhibit constant volatility.
C. Asset prices will be lognormally distributed.
D. The distribution of asset prices will be symmetrical.
C. Asset prices will be lognormally distributed.
This directly relates the distribution of continuously compounded returns to the distribution of the resulting asset prices through the exponential relationship.
Why is the assumption of lognormally distributed asset prices often preferred over normally distributed asset prices for modeling purposes?
A. Lognormal distributions are easier to work with mathematically.
B. Lognormal distributions allow for negative prices, which is realistic in some markets.
C. Lognormal distributions inherently account for compounding effects.
D. Lognormal distributions prevent prices from falling below zero.
D. Lognormal distributions prevent prices from falling below zero.
The primary advantage is the non-negativity constraint, which aligns with the typical behavior of asset prices.
An analyst is reviewing a model that assumes asset prices are normally distributed. What is the most significant potential flaw in this assumption for general asset pricing?
A. Normal distributions are difficult to estimate parameters for.
B. Normal distributions can produce negative price values.
C. Normal distributions do not account for compounding.
D. Normal distributions always have a mean of zero.
B. Normal distributions can produce negative price values.
The possibility of negative prices under a normal distribution is the most significant flaw when modeling assets that have a natural lower bound of zero.
Which of the following is the primary reason for using Monte Carlo simulation in investment analysis?
A. To find an analytical solution for complex valuation problems.
B. To generate a distribution of possible outcomes under uncertainty.
C. To simplify the assumptions required for financial modeling.
D. To guarantee a specific investment return.
B. To generate a distribution of possible outcomes under uncertainty.
Monte Carlo simulation excels at exploring the range of potential results when dealing with uncertain input variables by running numerous simulations.
The first crucial step in performing a Monte Carlo simulation for asset valuation is to:
A. Determine the number of simulation runs.
B. Specify the probability distributions of the relevant risk factors.
C. Choose the appropriate valuation model.
D. Analyze the output distribution.
B. Specify the probability distributions of the relevant risk factors.
Before running any simulations, you must define the uncertain variables and the statistical distributions that govern their potential future values.
Monte Carlo simulation is particularly well-suited for valuing:
A. Simple bonds with fixed coupon payments.
B. Stocks using the dividend discount model with constant growth.
C. Exotic options with path-dependent payoffs.
D. Risk-free assets with certain returns.
C. Exotic options with path-dependent payoffs.
The complexity and path dependency of exotic options often make analytical valuation difficult, whereas Monte Carlo simulation can handle the multiple scenarios and dependencies.
In a Monte Carlo simulation used to estimate portfolio Value at Risk (VaR), the output of the simulation would be a:
A. Single point estimate of the maximum potential loss.
B. Distribution of potential portfolio values.
C. Set of deterministic scenarios for market movements.
D. Calculation of the portfolio’s expected return.
B. Distribution of potential portfolio values.
VaR estimation using Monte Carlo involves simulating many possible future portfolio values to understand the lower tail of the distribution, which represents potential losses.
A limitation of Monte Carlo simulation is that the accuracy of its results is highly dependent on:
A. The number of simulation runs performed.
B. The computational power available.
C. The appropriateness of the assumed probability distributions.
D. The complexity of the valuation model used.
C. The appropriateness of the assumed probability distributions.
The “Garbage In, Garbage Out” principle applies strongly to Monte Carlo simulation. If the assumed distributions don’t accurately reflect reality, the simulation results will be unreliable.
Which of the following investment applications is LEAST likely to benefit significantly from the use of Monte Carlo simulation?
A. Valuing a portfolio of highly correlated, normally distributed stocks.
B. Stress-testing a portfolio under extreme, but specific, market scenarios.
C. Estimating the probability of a pension fund meeting its future obligations.
D. Analyzing the potential outcomes of a complex trading strategy with multiple rules.
A. Valuing a portfolio of highly correlated, normally distributed stocks.
For portfolios with simple structures and well-behaved distributions, analytical methods might be sufficient and more efficient than Monte Carlo simulation. Monte Carlo shines when dealing with complexities and non-standard distributions.
In a Monte Carlo simulation, after specifying the risk factor distributions, the next step is to:
A. Calculate summary statistics of the output.
B. Randomly generate values for each risk factor.
C. Validate the simulation model.
D. Interpret the resulting distribution of outcomes.
B. Randomly generate values for each risk factor.
Once the distributions are defined, the simulation proceeds by drawing random samples from these distributions for each risk factor in each simulation run.
Monte Carlo simulation can be used to model asset returns that:
A. Are always normally distributed.
B. Exhibit only positive skewness.
C. Follow various probability distributions, including nonnormal ones.
D. Have constant volatility over time.
C. Follow various probability distributions, including nonnormal ones.
A key advantage of Monte Carlo simulation is its flexibility to incorporate different types of distributions that may better capture the characteristics of asset returns (e.g., skewness, kurtosis).
Increasing the number of simulation runs in a Monte Carlo analysis primarily aims to:
A. Improve the accuracy of the assumed probability distributions.
B. Reduce the computational time required for the simulation.
C. Decrease the sampling error in the results.
D. Simplify the underlying valuation model.
C. Decrease the sampling error in the results.
With more simulations, the sample of potential outcomes becomes larger and more representative of the true underlying distribution, thus reducing the impact of random sampling variability.
When using Monte Carlo simulation to assess the solvency of a pension fund, the key risk factors being modeled would likely include:
A. Only the returns on the fund’s assets.
B. Only the demographic factors affecting liabilities.
C. Both the returns on the fund’s assets and the factors affecting liabilities.
D. Neither the returns on assets nor the liabilities.
C. Both the returns on the fund’s assets and the factors affecting liabilities.
A comprehensive solvency analysis requires modeling the uncertainty in both the growth of the fund’s investments and the future obligations it needs to meet.