Reading 10 Flashcards
Asset-liability management
Strategies that consider assets in relation to liabilities
Liability driven investing
taking liabilities as a given and manages assets to meet those future liability values
asset driven investing
takes the assets as a given and managers or adjusts the liabilities in relation to those assets eg a leasing company with specific types of floating or fixed rate financial assets may structure its liabilities to match the characteristics of those assets
Describe the different types of liabilities (type 1,2,3,4)
Type I: known future amounts and payout dates
Type 2: known future amounts but uncertain payout dates
Type 3: uncertain future amounts but known payout dates
Type 4: uncertain future amounts and uncertain payout dates: eg property and casualty
Immunization
fixed income management process in which the portfolio is managed to minimize the variability of the rate of return earned over a specified time period ie future value of portfolio can be predicted, and if enough funds are invested initially, known future liability can be funded
The goal of immunized portfolio is to earn the initial portfolio IRR, not the average YTM of the bonds. Earning the IRR means the portfolio will grow to a sufficient FV to fund the liability
Macaulay Duration
weighted average time until the cash flows of an instrument are received.
Macaulay of 0 coupon bond = maturity
Macaulay of non-zero coupon bond: less than maturity
It is also a balance point where reinvestment and price risk offset each other
Price Risk
uncertainty of proceeds if a bond must be sold before maturity
Reinvestment risk
uncertain FV of any cash flows received and reinvested before the end of the holding period
Formula for modified duration
Macaulay duration/ (1+ YTM)
How is convexity related to Macaulay duration?
[( MacD ^2 + MacD + dispersion/ ( 1 + IRR)^2
How does parallel shift in yield curve upwards impact our PVA and PVL if PVA is slightly higher than PVL?
For a large parallel increase in the curve, the immediate decrease in portfolio value will be less than the decrease in the PVL due to the positive convexity effect. With the parallel increase, the new portfolio IRR will increase by basically the same amount as the increase in discount rate for the PVL. In other words, the future rates of increase in A and L will be the same, but starting from a new PVA that is relatively higher than the PVL, the FVA will exceed the FVL.
How does parallel shift in yield curve downwards impact our PVA and PVL if PVA is slightly higher than PVL?
Large parallel decrease in the curve, the immediate increase in portfolio value will exceed the increase in PVL due to positive convexity effect. With the parallel decrease, the new portfolio IRR will decrease by basically the same amount as the decrease in discount rate for the PVL. In other words, the future rate of increase in A and L are still the same, but starting from a new PVA that is relatively higher than the new PVL, the FVA will exceed the FVL.
You have L, M and H and see a steepening twist - what happens to portfolio value?
Decreases because the decline in value of longer duration bond will exceed the increase in value due to shorter duration bond.
PVL (M) will be unchanged with no change in yield M. PVA will now be below PVL.
That by itself does not indicate the strategy will fail. If portfolio IRR increases sufficiently, the required FV might still be reached,
You have L, M and H and see a flattening twist. What happens to portfolio value?
Increases because the increase in value of the longer duration bond will exceed the decrease in value of the shorter duration bond.
PVL will be unchanged with no change in yield M.
PVA is now above PVL.
That by itself does not indicate the strategy will succeed. If portfolio IRR decreases sufficiently, the required FV of assets to meet the payout may not be reached.
What happens to portfolio value in a positive butterfly twist?
Decreases
both yield L and H increase, decreasing asset value
PVL increases as yield M decreases -> PVA now below PVL
While it is detrimental, it is possible the strategy could still succeed if portfolio IRR increases enough versus the decrease in liability discount rate.
What happens to portfolio during negative butterfly twist?
L and H decrease while M increases.
Portfolio market value increases as both yield L and H decrease. PVL will decrease as yield M increases. PVA is nwo clearly above PVL.
This is favorable, but does not guarantee the strategy will succeed if the portfolio IRR decreases too much in relation to the increase in liability discount rate.
What are the rules for immunizing a single liability?
- PVA greater than or equal to PVL
- Portfolio MacD matches due date of liability
- Minimize portfolio convexity (to minimize dispersion of asset cash flows around the liability and reduce risk to curve reshaping)
- regularly rebalance the portfolio to maintain the duration match as time and yields change, but also consider the tradeoff between higher transaction costs from more frequent rebalancing versus the risk of allowing durations to drift apart.
Money Duration
Money change in value of assets or liability for change in interest rates
Money duration (BPV)= modified curation * value of asset or liability * 0.0001
also called price value of a basis point
Accounting Defeasance
assets are legally set aside and dedicated to meet the liabilities - allowing both those assets and liabilities to be removed from the balance sheet of the organization responsible for paying the liability.
Cash in advance constraint
requires bonds used to fund a specific liability to mature before the required payout date of the liability. This would expose the portfolio reinvestment risk in an upward sloping yield curve.
The upward sloping yield curve is anticipated to create reinvestment risk because as cash comes in to be reinvested for a short time period until payout, the reinvestment must be at the lower rates at the short end of the curve.
Laddered Portfolio
Roughly equal par amounts purchased across different maturities.