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Msc > Readiness Study Guide II > Flashcards

Readiness Study Guide II Flashcards

1
Q

By definition, Posturing Codes (P-Code)/Non-Sourced UTCS (NSUTC) are used for what?

A

Determine the availability of UTCs and Determine the maximum number of UTCs of the type that can be deployed simultaneously.

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2
Q

What are the two types of in-place support within the AEF Force Generation Construct?

A

Direct support of combatant commanders mission and Support Critical Home Station Operations

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3
Q

What are the four major elements of the AEF Force Generation Construct?

A

Readily Available Force, Enabler Force, In-Place Support, Institutional Force

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4
Q

According to AFI 10-403, what is the rule on enlisted skill level substitutions?

A

Two skill level up or one skill level down based off of the CAFSCs

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5
Q

What is the total percentage of WMP-1 (AFSC) substitutions authorized on a given UTC?

A

50%

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6
Q

Which UTCs are Individual Mobilization Augmentees (IMA) assigned to for tracking?

A

FFAZZ

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7
Q

Who ensures positive control of sensitive information contained within MRDSS?

A

MRDSS Unit System Administrator

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8
Q

The AFMS Training system is designed to optimize the training of individuals, teams, and units into effective medical capabilities for what purpose?

A

To create a fit and healthy force, Enhance human performance, Prevent Casualties, Restore health to fighting force

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9
Q

The Readiness Skills Verification Program (RSVP) is designed to ensure all medical personnel maintain adequate skills to perform duties during the following:

A

1- war time, 2- humanitarian assistance, 3- installation response contingencies

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10
Q

Personnel not performing level I trama duties will attend the Centers of Sustainment of Trauma and Readiness Skills (C-STARS) course how often?

A

24 Months

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11
Q

Who determines the Readiness Skills Verfication Program (RSVP) list of critical knowledge and performance skills required for depolying airmen?

A

AF/SG consultants + career field managers (CFM) (identify what is on checklists)

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12
Q

Sustainment training for the CBRN Emergency Medical Preparedness Response Course (EPRC) must be completed how often?

A

Every 36 months

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13
Q

Who validates personnel for assignment to the Critical Care Air Transportation Team (CCATT) UTC?

A

Air Force Expeditionary Medical Skills Institute (AFEMSI) under the authority of headquarters AMC/SG

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14
Q

Who is responsible for managing specialty training like Basic Life Support (BLS), Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS), and Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS)?

A

Education and Training Office

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15
Q

Who is required to completed Medical Readiness Category III training?

A

All members of the unit

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16
Q

Who documents MCRP Team training statistics in MRDSS ULTRA?

A

MCRP Team Chiefs

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17
Q

MCRP Team Chief responsabilities, in regard to training, include all the following:

A

1) Identify training requirements, 2) Incorporate training into team lesson plans and training schedule, 3) Conduct team training and/or assign trainers to ensure all member receives training, 4) Ensure make up training is conducted within 60 days of members return from leave, deployments, etc.

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18
Q

How often are MCRP team lesson plans reviewed?

A

Prior to conducting the training annually

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19
Q

A unit overall C-level is based on

A

an assessment of those resources and training required for wartime mission

20
Q

How often is the unit commander required to review and sign the DOC statement?

A

Annually

21
Q

Given a SORTS rating of P-3, S-2, T-2, and R-6, what would be the overall objective category rating?

A

C-3

22
Q

At a minimum, what is the data classification of Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS)?

A

Secret

23
Q

Which condition level describes this statement: Unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake most of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed.

A

C-2

24
Q

Which Wing organization is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for SORTS reporting?

A

Command Post (CP)

25
Q

Defense Readiness Reporting System (DRSS) primary purpose is to report what capability assessment of the medical unit?

A

Mission Essential Tasks

26
Q

An ART update must be done within [blank] days after a tasked resource returns to home station because {blank}

A

AEF center needs to know

27
Q

What report needs to be updated within 5 days after an AEF UTC tasking notification?

A

ART

28
Q

The Wing/Installation Commander is responsible for:

A

1) Designation the IDO in writing, 2) Approving IDP, 3) Approving and disapproving

29
Q

What is the sequence of events for a deployment event?

A

1) Warning order (or PTDO), 2) Execution Order (Dep order), 3) Deployment, 4) Employment, 5) Redeployment

30
Q

Which command and control system is used when the National Response Framework is activated?

A

The Incident Command

31
Q

The National Disaster Medical System augments the Nation’s medical response capability and is used to respond to:

A

1) Natural Disasters, 2) Technological Disasters, 3) Major Transportation Accidents, 4) Terrorism

32
Q

Which Homeland Security Presidential Directive directed the development of a single comprehensive approach to domestic incidents?

A

HSPD-5

33
Q

Which Emergency Support Functions (ESF) does medical have responsibility for?

A

8 and 11

34
Q

Due to the “Total Force” concept, the Air National Guard organizes their Emergency Operations Plan (EOP) annexes to mirror Medical Contingency Response Plan (MCRP) annexes? True or False.

A

False

35
Q

Who is responsible for the Homeland Defense (HD) mission, and therefore leads the HD response, with other departments and agencies in response to external threats and aggression?

A

DoD

36
Q

What is the name of the Air Force structure that is used to respond to all emergency management incidents?

A

Disaster Response Force

37
Q

WHo is responsible for maintain the HSMR 866 allowance standard assets?

A

MCRP Team Chief

38
Q

When is the Air National Guard (ANG) under federal control?

A

Title 10

39
Q

Exercises provide excellent training opportunities and can replace established training programs? True or False

A

False

40
Q

What are the benefist of a tabletop exercise?

A

Fast, cheap, and easy

41
Q

What is the primary benefit to conducting a Field Training Exercise?

A

Realism…simulates a real world event as closely as possible

42
Q

What is the purpose for planning and conducting exercises?

A

To evaluate one or more portions of an organization’s capability and its response or contingency plans.

43
Q

What Air Force Instruction identifies AF Installation Mission Assurance Exercise Requirements?

A

AFI 90-201

44
Q

What medical specific exercises are mandated by AFI 41-106, medical Readiness Program Management?

A

Recall and Medical Emergency Response Exercise

45
Q

Medical units will generate Post Incident Exercise Summaries (PIES) for each exercise they participate in, regardless of which agency conducted the exercise. Who compiles the PIES within 30 days of the incident or event?

A

MRO

46
Q

What is the intent of a post-incident hotwash?

A

Identify problems not noted by WIT.

Msc (4 decks)

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