Rate Specific Flashcards

1
Q

GPETE AND SPETE shall be stored _____ from FSTER and noon-SCAT coded test equipment.

A

separately

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2
Q

What consists of a Special Courts-Martial?

A

Consists of a military judge and at least 3 members

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3
Q

Grounding studs should be connected to ground with what?

A

3 hex nuts or a collar stud with 2 hex nuts.

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4
Q

Lightning protection shall be provided for buildings and structures as required in accordance with what?

A

National Fire Protection Association No. 78

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5
Q

What is the ratio called of a radar transmit time versus listening time?

A

Duty Cycle

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6
Q

What is LEAPS?

A

Listen
Empathize
Ask
Paraphrase
Summarize

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7
Q

Using an ohmmeter on a transmitter can cause _____?

A

Extreme caution should be used when making resistance checks in transistor circuits as the transistor may be damaged by ohmmeter battery voltage.

Reference NP 06

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8
Q

How far should red cables and processors be from exterior walls?

A

1 meter

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9
Q

What is the frequency range for High Frequency (HF)?

A

2 - 30 MHz

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10
Q

How often should lock-out/tag-out binders be audited? Who audits them?

A

Every 2 weeks; Department Head

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11
Q

What is a ground straps thickness?

A

0.76mm

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12
Q

What should you do when you get to a new platform and test equipment needs updating?

A

Write up a 4790/ck and send it to SFLC-ESD-ELEX

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13
Q

Single point is recommended for what kind of electrical systems?

A

Low frequency (up to 300 kHz)

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14
Q

Who emters information into ACMS?

A

Engineering Services Division (ESD)

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15
Q

Lightning protection subsystem bonding shall consist of what types?

A

Class B or Class C bonds as appropriate (welding, brazing, or clamping)

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16
Q

What funding code is used for the removal of interference during availabilities?

A

AFC-30

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17
Q

What are some responsibilities of the ESD supervisor for availabilities?

A

Provide assistance with dockside projects, review MPCs, TCTOs for cutters without ETs.

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18
Q

What is the funding code used for topside maintenance?

A

AFC-30 funds

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19
Q

What is the cable tag symbol for radio transmitter control equipment?

A

RT

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20
Q

What should be the resistance between work bench and the metal hull?

A

0.1 ohms or less

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21
Q

How long must noise exposure data be maintained?

A

30 years after employment***

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22
Q

What is the max length of the fall arrest system?

A

6ft

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23
Q

What type of test equipment has “For troubleshooting purposes only” tag?

A

FSTER

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24
Q

What items are recommended, but not required for Electronics Causualty Response Team?

A

Fuse Puller
Screwdriver
Pliers

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25
Q

At what voltage are “High Voltage” signs required for exposed conductors?

A

30 volts

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26
Q

When stripping a coaxial cable if the outer jacket is reduced by _____ or greater, it is a defect.

A

20%

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27
Q

What is the discharge time for a 15lb CO2 extinguisher?

A

40 seconds

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28
Q

What is the only SPETE governed by CGETEP?

A

IFF Test Set

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29
Q

Gaskets shall be a minimum of _____ wide.

A

1/8 inch (3mm)

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30
Q

What dB(A) requires double hearing protection?

A

96 dB(A)

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31
Q

What should the resistance be between any two points within a chassis or equipment cabinet?

A

0.001ohm

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32
Q

Lightning protection shall be provided for buildings and structures as required in accordance with what?

A

National Fire Protectioin Association No. 78

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33
Q

What are the three categories for bonds?

A

Class A - Welding metallic surfaces
Class B - Bolting or clamping or metallic surfaces
Class C - Bridging using a metallic (conductive) strap

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34
Q

Flash protection boundary distance has been calculated to be 4 feet for _____ circuits.

A

450 volt

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35
Q

What frequency do you test the CDYM-TD-L1550A Direction Finder at?

A

156.300MHz

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36
Q

When using the FOG setting on a fire hose nozzle, how far away should you be to fight a class C fire?

A

4ft

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37
Q

How far away should RF transmitters be away from red cables?

A

1 meter***

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38
Q

What dB(P) requires double hearing protection?

A

165 dB(P)

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39
Q

What dB(a) requires single hearing protection?

A

85 dB(a)

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40
Q

Who initials the return travel card?

A

EPO

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41
Q

The patrol boat product line and the small boat product line have delegated cannibalization authority to who?

A

Sector EOs

42
Q

What does TCTO stand for? What are they for?

A

Time Compliance Technical Order; they are required for configuration change proposals

43
Q

What is the cog code for DLR/MTI?

44
Q

What effect does 100mA have on the human body?

A

Shock may be fatal if it lasts for 1 second or longer.

45
Q

What amperage causes muscles to seize/maybe be unable to let go?

46
Q

What term is used when signal from adjacent channel crosses over onto another channel?

A

Cross Modulation

47
Q

What does SPETE stand for?

A

Special Purpose Electronic Test Equipment

48
Q

How much voltage does a megger put out?

49
Q

If a CDYM-TD-L1550A Direction Finder has an output level above _____, then it should be replaced.

50
Q

If a unit fails to complete the TCTO maintenance within the deadline, the item will show in the unit’s _____.

A

Overdue maintenance list (web report)

51
Q

Which EAL code or symbol is equipment disabling?

52
Q

What is the most conveinent test equipment for an antenna system?

A

Megger*****

53
Q

Where do you record megger results?

A

NAVSEA 9210/19

54
Q

What is the last group of numbers on a cable tag?

A

System Cable Number

55
Q

What is the cable tag marking for a surface search radar?

56
Q

What is a casualty category 3?

A

A major degradation in the current primary mission

57
Q

What is the periodicity for eye-wash maintenance and inspection?

58
Q

What is an MIP?

A

Maintenance Index Page

59
Q

What is a DLR identification tag and label?

A

DD1577-2 and DD1577-3

60
Q

For modernizied units, the TCTO installing entity shall complete the coversheet and submit it to whom?

A

Field Terminal Operator (FTO)

61
Q

What is a Class C bond?

A

Metallic surfaces (bright metal) bonded by bridging them with a metallic (conductive) bond strap

62
Q

How shall the entrance plate to a facility be bonded to an eaarth electrode subsystem?

A

By two minimum length 1/0 copper cables

63
Q

What are the steps to troubeshooting bad power out on an XTL-5000?

A

Perform transceiver program; if still bad place transceiver.

64
Q

What is a tower climbing qualification letter required to have?

A

Maximum height, energized or non-energized

65
Q

What DC resistance should be present per 1000 ft on towers?

A

No greater than 0.088 Ohms

66
Q

Additional shielding for topside items greater than _____ in length.

A

10 feet*****

67
Q

What is the test equipment calibration maintenance funded with?

68
Q

What is the preferred signal reference subsystem for higher frequency networks?

A

Equipment Ground Planes

69
Q

What does the ESU use to build a budget to provide to C5ISC FSD for approval?

A

The five-year maintenance plan

70
Q

At a minimum, who is required to be on the Unit Training Board?

A

XO/XPO
TO/TPO
All Department Hedas
ESO
DCA
Corpsman

71
Q

What is the torque of bolt straps?

A

25ft-pounds*****

72
Q

What are the mandatory blocks for an FLS initial request?

A

Requestor’s name
Email
Purpose
Cancel IR group after

73
Q

How long are antenna and transmission lines at shore units tested?

A

Quarterly or as the local environment dictates

74
Q

What is used to trigger an Electronic Techical Assessment (ETA)?

A

The five-year maintenance plan

75
Q

How long will 1149s be kept?

76
Q

How many data sets can the CASREP body have?

A

20 data sets

77
Q

What is the Coast Guard standard range for very high frequency?

A

118-175 MHz

78
Q

What is the maximum character count for CASREP position?

A

30-character max

79
Q

What do modernized assets use for casualty reporting for NTNO?

80
Q

What authority do Primary QA inspectors have?

A

Sign and approve TCTOs for compliance as required
Perform QA inspections listed on all electronic MPCs

81
Q

What is the maximum character count for the Allowable Parts List (APL) in a CASREP?

A

12-character max

82
Q

What are the cognizant codes?

A

7 for Navy
5 for Coast Guard

83
Q

When assigning a task in an action plan, what is the appropriate amount of hours of work to assign?

84
Q

Electrically insulated boots are required for what voltage levels?

85
Q

How long does it take the MFD 12” Navigational Display Radar to warm up?

A

90 seconds

86
Q

What are the six troubleshooting steps?

A
  1. Symptom Recognition
  2. Symptom Elaboration
  3. Listing of probable faulty functions
  4. Localizing the faulty function
  5. Localizing trouble to the circuit
  6. Failure Analysis
87
Q

Who does a QA delegation memo go to?

A

Maintenance Release Authority*****

88
Q

What slug do you need for conducting a VSWR test on a Morad-VHF-159?

A

0-25 Watts minimum and 156-163 MHz

89
Q

What does the ALMIS symbol “SQ” mean?

A

Delayed maintenance (Squawk)

90
Q

What is a Type II bonding strap?

A

Flat corrosion resistant stell 1x5 width to length ratio with mounting holes in each end. Used toped for bonding EMI source items such as tuners and couplers.

91
Q

Where do you record megger results from transmitting and receiving antenna systems and submarine cables?

A

NAVSEA 9210/19 Resistance Test Record card

92
Q

When practical, how much separation should be maintained between open conductors of power and communication systems and lightning down conductors?

A

At least 6 feet

93
Q

Who funds Shipboard Electronics Systems Evaluation Facility (SESEF)?

94
Q

Who approves the unit training plan?

A

CO approves; certified TMT (cannot be delegated) *****

95
Q

How much shielding effectiveness should wire-way trunks contain?

A

Wire-way trunks shall be constructed to provide 60dB shielding effectiveness

96
Q

With a circuit breaker open and the neutral disconnected, what should the reading be between the AC line and the equipment case?

A

A minimum of 1 megaohm DC resistance

97
Q

What is the COG code for DLR owned by DOD?

98
Q

How often shall rubber gloves be electrically tested?

A

Every 6 months

99
Q

What shall fault protection subsystem installations conform to?

A

National Electrical Code Article 250

100
Q

How long do you retain completed MPCs?