Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Musculo-Skeletal > Rapid Fire Facts > Flashcards

Rapid Fire Facts Flashcards

1
Q

What nerve is damaged with each of the following upper extremity symptoms:
Wrist drop

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What nerve is damaged with each of the following upper extremity symptoms:
Scapular winging

A

Long thoracic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What nerve is damaged with each of the following upper extremity symptoms:
Unable to wipe your bottom

A

Thoracodorsal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What nerve is damaged with each of the following upper extremity symptoms:
Loss of forearm pronation

A

Median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What nerve is damaged with each of the following upper extremity symptoms:
Weak external rotation of the arm

A

Suprascapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What nerve is damaged with each of the following upper extremity symptoms:
Loss of elbow flexion and forearm supination

A

Musculocutaneous nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What nerve is damaged with each of the following upper extremity symptoms:
Loss of wrist extension

A

Radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A 20 YO dancer reports decreased plantar flexion and decreased sensation to the back of her thigh, calf, and the lateral half of her foot. What nerve is involved?

A

Tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe what’s happening:
Chondrocytes lay down a cartilage frame of bone, where osteoclasts and osteoblasts later lay down bone matrix. Occurs mostly in the axial skeleton and the limbs. Also, if there is a defect to this system, what pathology results?

A

Endochondral ossification - Achondroplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe what’s happening: osteoblasts and osteoclasts lay down a bone frame, without the cartilage matrix, as in the skull and facial bones.

A

Membranous ossification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
The following describe a bone neoplasm: 
-Benign
Less than age 25
Chunk of bone appearance 
What pathology is at hand?
A

Osteochondroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The following describe a bone neoplasm:

  • Malignant
  • Age 10-20 years old
  • Codman’s Triangle
  • Sunburst appearance on X-ray

What pathology is at hand?

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The following describe a bone neoplasm:

  • Malignant
  • Less than 15 years of age
  • Onion skin on XRay

What pathology is at hand?

A

Ewing Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The following describe a bone neoplasm:

  • Benign
  • Age 20-40 years old
  • Soap bubble appearance on X-ray

What pathology is at hand?

A

Osteoclastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Different cancers can make blastic or lytic lesions… what makes blastic and what makes lytic lesion?

  • Lung
  • Prostate
  • Breast
A

Lung—> lytic lesions (can cause hypercalcemia in lytic lesions)
Prostate —> blastic lesions
Breast —> lytic or blastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 4 muscles of the rotator cuff???

A

SItS:

  • Supraspinatus
  • Infraspinatus
  • teres minor
  • Subscapularis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What muscle initiates abduction of the arm?

A

Supraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What two muscles rotate the arm laterally or externally?

A

Infraspinatus and teres minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What muscle moves the arm to perform internal rotation?

A

Subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What class of antibiotics increase the risk of tendonopathy and tendon rupture in adults?

A

Fluoroquinolones - rare, but increased risk of Achilles’ tendon rupture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What do you think of when you have a (+) anterior drawer sign?

A

ACL injury

22
Q

In osteoarthritis, what is the name for inflammation in the proximal interphalangeal joints are called what? X-ray findings show decreased joint space narrowing.

A

Bouchard’s nodes

23
Q

In osteoarthritis, what is the name for inflammation in the Distal interphalangeal joints are called what? X-ray findings show decreased joint space narrowing.

A

Heberden’s Nodes

24
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is what kind of hypersensitivity?

A

Type III - auto antibodies that bind to soluble antigens in the blood that form immune complexes that gets deposited in tissues.

25
Q

Swollen, hard, painful finger joints is:

A

Osteoarthritis

26
Q

Swollen, boggy, painful finger joints is:

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

27
Q

Cartilage erosion with polished bone beneath is:

A

Osteoarthritis —>”ebernation” of the bone

28
Q

What is the triad of Sjögren’s syndrome? What are the antibodies associated?

A 
Dry eyes (xerophthalmia)
Dry mouth (xerostomia)
Arthritis 
Anti-SSA (Anti-Ro), and Anti-SSB (Anti-La)
(+)rheumatoid factor

*Sicca symptoms doesn’t necessarily mean Sjögren syndrome:
Dry eyes, dry mouth, nasal dryness, vaginal dryness, chronic reflux, chronic bronchitis, reflux esophagitis

29
Q

This disease is associated with an X-linked frameshift mutation causing a DELETION of the dystrophin gene, causing acceleration of muscle breakdown and elevated CK. Typically presents very early in life (>5) with weakness in pelvic girdle muscles, that progress superiorly. There is pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles due to replacement of muscle with fibrofatty tissue. Shows “Gowers” maneuver. What pathology is at hand?

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

30
Q

This pathology causes a MUTATION in the dystrophin gene, so less severe, and with later onset, seen in adolescence or early adulthood. What disease is at hand?

A

Becker muscular dystrophy

31
Q

This pathology involves pain and stiffness in the shoulders and hips, malaise, weight loss, fever, and no muscle weakness. “Joint pain, joint weakness.” Average age is 70yo, females (3:1), and associated with temporal arthritis. What do blood tests show? What pathology is at hand?

A

Polymyalgia Rheumatica
Blood: elevated ESR, Normal CK

Tx: steroids

Not a muscle problem!!!

32
Q

What should you check for in a patient that has a Lupus diagnosis?

A

Renal function tests, as it can serve a a progression marker for the disease (increased mortality) showing renal failure with:

  • Urine protein
  • Serum creatinine
33
Q

Diagnosis associated:

Anti-histone antibodies

A

Drug induced lupus

34
Q

Diagnosis associated:

Anti-centromere antibodies

A

CREST Syndrome

35
Q

Diagnosis associated:

Anti-topoisomerase

A

Diffuse systemic scleroderma

36
Q

Diagnosis associated:

Anti-Jo-1 antibodies

A

Polymyositis

37
Q

Diagnosis associated:

Anti-Ro

A

Sjögren Syndrome

Dry eyes, dry mouth, arthritis

38
Q

Diagnosis associated:

Raynaud phenomenon + facial rash in a young woman

A

Lupus

39
Q

Diagnosis associated: most common cause of death on SLE

A

Lupus induced nephropathy

(AKA Selena Gomez)!!

40
Q

Skin junctions: this zone joins 2 cells together to form an impermeable barrier to fluids. This prevents diffusion to pericellular spaces. What type of junction is this, and what proteins are associated with this area?

A

Zona occludens (tight junctions)
Proteins:
-Claudens and the Occludens

41
Q

Skin junctions: this zone surrounds the perimeter. This is a cell junction whose cytoplasmic face is leeched to the actin cytoskeleton. Cadherins are calcium dependent adhesion molecules that are in this zone. What is this zone, and the associated molecules?

A 
Zona adherens (intermediate junction)
Molecules: adherens, cadherins, and e-cadherins with actin filaments as well.
42
Q

Skin junctions: this zone small discrete site of attachment. Cadherins attaches to intermediate filaments and keratin is also involved. What antibodies are involved?

A

Macula adherens (desmosome)

Antibodies to this junction would be: anti-desmosome, or anti-desmoglyan —> would be seen in pemphygus vulgaris.

43
Q

Skin junctions: this zone allows adjacent cells to communicate through electric and metabolic functions. What zone is this, and what type of cell had many of these junctions?

A

Gap junction

Cardiac cells!

44
Q

What type of junctions connect the epithelial cells to the basement membrane? Involvement of antibodies to this zone cause what?

A

Hemidesmosome (anchors down) and Integrins

Antibodies to hemidesmosomes leads to bullus pemphygoid

45
Q

Skin junctions: this zone joins 2 cells together to form an impermeable barrier to fluids. This prevents diffusion to pericellular spaces. What type of junction is this, and what proteins are associated with this area?

A

Zona occludens (tight junctions)
Proteins:
-Claudens and the Occludens

46
Q

Skin junctions: this zone surrounds the perimeter. This is a cell junction whose cytoplasmic face is leeched to the actin cytoskeleton. Cadherins are calcium dependent adhesion molecules that are in this zone. What is this zone, and the associated molecules?

A 
Zona adherens (intermediate junction)
Molecules: adherens, cadherins, and e-cadherins with actin filaments as well.
47
Q

Skin junctions: this zone small discrete site of attachment. Cadherins attaches to intermediate filaments and keratin is also involved. What antibodies are involved?

A

Macula adherens (desmosome)

Antibodies to this junction would be: anti-desmosome, or anti-desmoglyan —> would be seen in pemphygus vulgaris.

48
Q

Skin junctions: this zone allows adjacent cells to communicate through electric and metabolic functions. What zone is this, and what type of cell had many of these junctions?

A

Gap junction

Cardiac cells!

49
Q

What type of junctions connect the epithelial cells to the basement membrane? Involvement of antibodies to this zone cause what?

A

Hemidesmosome (anchors down) and Integrins

Antibodies to hemidesmosomes leads to bullus pemphygoid

50
Q

What is the WAGR complex?

A

Wilms’ Tumor
Aniridia
Genitourinary malformations
Retardation - mental and motor

51
Q

What type of collagen is used in slippery tissues and bloody tissues?

A

Slippery- type II collagen
-Cartilage, Vitreous body, nucleus pulposus

Bloody - type III collagen
-Blood vessels, Granulation tissue, skin, Uterus, and fetal tissue

Musculo-Skeletal (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions