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VTNE > Random/Review Questions > Flashcards

Random/Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The cranial drawer test is used in the diagnosis of injury to what body part?
a. Hip joint
b. Stifle
c. Temporomandibular joint
d. Carpus
e. Hock

A

a. Stifle

Cranial drawer test is used in the diagnosis of cranial cruciate ligament (CrCL) rupture in the stifle joint.

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2
Q

Which animal normally has cloudy urine and why?
a. Ferrets, high mucus concentration
b. Pigs, magnesium ammonium phosphate crystals
c. Horses, calcium carbonate crystals
d. Cats, struvite crystals.
e. Cloudy urine is abnormal in all species.

A

c. Horses, calcium carbonate crystals

Normal horse and rabbit urine have high concentrations of calcium carbonate crystals and mucus in their urine.

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3
Q

Which one of the following problems is often associated with gastric dilation/volvulus in dogs?
a. Epigloic foramen entrapment
b. Spondylosis deformans
c. Persistent right aortic arch
d. Splenic torsion
e. Diaphragmatic hernia

A

d. Splenic torsion

Splenic torsion may occur concomitantly with GDV.

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4
Q

If a dog has a neurologic problem and she is adducting her front legs, what is she doing with them?
a. Towards the right ear
b. Towards the top line
c. Moving legs inward, towards the midline
d. Moving legs outward, away from the midline
e. Away from the left side.

A

c. Moving legs inward, towards the midline

ADDuct means moving a limb TOWARDS the midline.
ABduct means movement of the a limb AWAY form the midline.

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5
Q

What does it mean if a cow is multiparous?
a. Has been pregnant, then aborted
b. Pregnant with twins
c. Is a twin and other animal is male
d. Has given birth more than once
e. Bred multiple times but not become pregnant

A

d. Has given birth more than once

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6
Q

Which commonly used anesthetic circuit is made up of a tube within a tube?
a. Semi-closed circle system
b. Closed circle system
c. Universal Y circuit
d. Bain system
e. Open system

A

d. Bain system

Bain system is a tube within a tube.
New O2 and gas is inhaled through the inner tube and exhaled gas exits through the outer tube.

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7
Q

A vet prescribed a cockatoo 10mg of amoxicillin, s.i.d. PO for 10 days. How often does the bird get the medicine each day? By what route?
a. 3 X daily, intravenous
b. Once daily, by mouth
c. 4 X daily, in the eye
d. As needed, intramuscular
e. 2 X daily, under the skin

A

b. Once daily, by mouth

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8
Q

Which term best describes inflammation of the testicle?
a. Phlebitis
b. Chemosis
c. Orchitis
d. Phimosis
e. Cryptorchid

A

c. Orchitis

Phlebitis - inflammation of the veins
Cryptorchid - undescended testicle
Phimosis - where the penis cannot be extruded because of a constricted preputial orifice.
Chemosis - is swelling of the conjunctiva of the eye, due to allergic reactions or trauma.

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9
Q

What is the effect of a high-ratio grid on an x-ray exposure?
a. Darker x-rays
b. Fewer x-rays reach the film
c. Loss of film resolution
d. Less mAs needed
e. More x-rays pass through to the animal

A

b. Fewer x-rays reach the film

The grid is like a focusing lens of a camera. A high-ratio grind prevents fewer x-rays to pass through the animal but you get a higher resolution radiograph.

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10
Q

What kind of tissue causes the most x-ray scatter?
a. Thin body parts
b. Joints 8 cm thick or less
c. Thick body parts
d. Delicate bone like nasal area

A

c. Thick body parts

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11
Q

Which blood parasite is typically characterized by the presence of ring forms?
a. Plasmodium
b. Leishmania
c. Babesia
d. Trypanosoma

A

a. Plasmodium

Babesia - paired piriform (tear shaped) merozoites in erythrocytes.
Leishmania - amastigote form (oval shaped)
Trypanosoma - trypanosome form (spindle shaped)

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12
Q

What is the danger of placing your gloved hands below the waist level while in the operating room after using the closed gloving technique?
a. Gloves might tear
b. Potential contamination of the sterile area
c. Causing discomfort to the patient
d. Accelerate fatigue of the hands

A

b. Potential contamination of the sterile area

Sterile gloves should be kept in the sterile area. Below the shoulders to the waist or table level in front of the body.

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13
Q

What is the main purpose of a Hohmann retractor in orthopedic surgery?
a. To move tissue away from the bone for better visibility
b. To close incisions after surgery
c. To cut through bone during surgery
d. To hold together broken bone pieces

A

a. To move tissue away from the bone for better visibility

Hohmann retractor is a handheld surgical instrument primarily used in orthopedic surgeries to move tissue away from bone for better visibility.

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14
Q

What is the common route of fluid administration in large animal patients?
a. Intramedullary
b. Intramuscular
c. Intravenous
d. Subcutaneous

A

c. Intravenous

IV fluids is most commonly used for fastest relief, shock, and other emergencies.

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15
Q

What particular challenges make anesthesia in equine patients difficult in comparison to other common veterinary patients?
a. High risk of allergic reactions and quick metabolism of anesthesia
b. Aggressive behavior and sensitivity to medication
c. Strong resistance to anesthesia and quick recovery
d. Large patient size and high potential for hypoxemia, hypotension, and hypoventilation.

A

d. Large patient size and high potential for hypoxemia, hypotension, and hypoventilation.

Equine patients are at high risk for hypoxemia, hypotension, and hypoventilation during the maintenance phase of anesthesia.

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16
Q

What is the primary disadvantage associated with using a nonrebreathing circuit for the administration of anesthesia?
a. Delayed onset of anesthesia
b. Increased resistance to breathing
c. Difficulty in cleaning
d. Increased use of oxygen and anesthetic.

A

d. Increased use of oxygen and anesthetic.

Nonrebreathing systems require high fresh gas flow rates, which result in an increase use of oxygen and anesthetic.

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17
Q

What is the primary role of Electrocoagulation in hemostasis?
a. To dilute blood
b. To remove clot
c. To increase bleeding
d. To cause clotting by inducing tissue protein denaturation.

A

d. To cause clotting by inducing tissue protein denaturation.

Electrocoagulation is a procedure that uses heat from an electric current to destroy abnormal tissue, such as a tumor or other lesion. It may also be used to control bleeding during surgery or after an injury. The electric current passes through an electrode that is placed on or near the tissue

18
Q

Which is NOT a common symptom of laryngeal paralysis?
a. Postural adaptations of dyspnea
b. Distress with inspiration
c. Repetitive sneezing
d. Noisy breathing

A

c. Repetitive sneezing

19
Q

Under anesthesia, why is vomiting a risk for most animals?
a. It can cause immediate cardiac arrest
b. It can lead to aspiration pneumonia
c. It can lead to ulcers in the stomach
d. It can cause renal failure

A

b. It can lead to aspiration pneumonia

20
Q

Which of the following is not a typical component of a comprehensive veterinary pain management plan?
a. Pharmacologic pain control
b. Physical rehabilitation
c. Client education
d. Excessive restriction of physical activity

A

d. Excessive restriction of physical activity

Movement can help reduce stiffness, build strength, and improve overall welfare.

21
Q

What is the correct way to pick up a rabbit to avoid causing harm or inducing stress?
a. Picking them up by their tail
b. Lifting them by their hind legs only
c. Supporting their hindquarters while holding the scruff of their neck.
d. Holding only their ears.

A

c. Supporting their hindquarters while holding the scruff of their neck.

Supporting their hindquarters is important to avoid spine injury. Lift by scruff of their neck is also important to maintain control.

22
Q

What is the main purpose of quality control in relation to laboratory machine calibration in a vet clinic?
a. To ensure accuracy and consistency of test results
b. To comply with laboratory decoration standards
c. To attract more clients to the clinic
d. To reduce the cost of veterinary care

A

a. To ensure accuracy and consistency of test results

23
Q

What is the first phase of the nociception process?
a. Modulation
b. Perception
c. Transmission
d. Transduction

A

d. Transduction

Nociception process = the body’s response to painful stimuli, occurs in four stages: Transduction, Transmission, Modulation, and Perception.
1) Transduction - tissue injury triggers the release of chemicals that stimulate the nociceptors (special nerve endings).

24
Q

What is the most common treatment for acute laminitis in horses?
a. NSAIDs
b. Splint application
c. Strict bed rest
d. Corticosteroids

A

a. NSAIDs

NSAIDs help control pain and reduce inflammation in the laminae (the tissues that connect the hoof wall to the bone).

25
Q

Which of the following best describes possible signs of renal failure in pets?
a. Decrease appetite, diarrhea, hyperactivity and increased water intake
b. Increased appetite, vomiting, lethargy, and increased water intake.
c. Increased appetite, diarrhea, hyperactivity, and decreased water intake.
d. Decreased appetite, vomiting, lethargy, and possible increase water intake.

A

d. Decreased appetite, vomiting, lethargy, and possible increase water intake.

26
Q

What type of organism is not capable of causing disease in its host?
a. Infectious organism
b. Pathogenic organism
c. Commensal organism
d. Parasitic organism

A

c. Commensal organism

Commensal organism - lives in a host but does not cause disease.

27
Q

In which of the following circumstances would you use a 2.7mm diameter rigid endoscope during a reptile endoscopy?
a. In mid-body screening of moderate-sized reptiles
b. Performing rhinoscopy on a small reptile.
c. For a small bird’s esophagus
d. In a laparoscopy for a medium-sized dog

A

a. In mid-body screening of moderate-sized reptiles

A mid-body screening is also known as exploration.

28
Q

What is the main reason why dissociatives should be used cautiously in vet med, especially in dogs and horses?
a. They can lead to skin allergic reactions
b. They lead to immediate loss of consciousness
c. They can result in irreversible comatose state
d. They can cause adverse effects if used excessively

A

d. They can cause adverse effects if used excessively

Dissociatives have a tendency to cause a range of adverse effects. These effects can be mitigated or prevented with use of tranquilizers or sedatives.

29
Q

Which among the following is the most accurate imaging method to investigate kidney structural abnormalities in a dog that is showing signs of kidney problems.
a. CT scan of the urinary tract system
b. X-ray imaging of the urinary tract system
c. MRI of the urinary tract system
d. Ultrasound of the urinary tract system

A

d. Ultrasound of the urinary tract system

CT and MRI aren’t favorable due to cost, time and the use of anesthetics.

30
Q

In the context of veterinary medicine, which is a notable disadvantages of utilizing high-concentration alcohols as disinfectants?
a. Highly flammable
b. Causes allergic reactions in animals
c. Non-effective against bacteria
d. Ineffective as an antiseptic

A

a. Highly flammable.

Although an effective antiseptic, using alcohols in a surgical environment with power equipment increases the risks of fires.

31
Q

What is the main difference between epulis and gingival hyperplasia in terms of growth?
a. Epulis is typically localized while gingival hyperplasia is often generalized.
b. Gingival hyperplasia is malignant while epulis is benign
c. Epulis is always malignant while gingival hyperplasia is benign
d. There is no difference in their growth

A

a. Epulis is typically localized while gingival hyperplasia is often generalized.

Epulis refers to a benign local growth whereas gingival hyperplasia refers to generalized overgrowth of the gum tissue.

32
Q

What is the key purpose of casting methods in cattle?
a. To teach the cow new commands
b. To safely bring the cow to a recumbent position
c. To detect diseases in the cow
d. To move the cow

A

b. To safely bring the cow to a recumbent position

33
Q

What medication class does bupivacaine belong to?
a. Opioid analgesic
b. Local anesthetic
c. Calcium channel blocker
d. Anesthetic induction agent

A

b. Local anesthetic

Bupivacaine blocks nerve impulses thus inhibiting the transmission of pain signals to the brain.

34
Q

During the proliferative phase of wound healing, which of the following activities is primarily performed by the fibroblasts?
a. Remodeling of collagen fibers
b. Deposition of collagen
c. Formation of a blood clot within the wound
d. Release of growth factor

A

b. Deposition of collagen

FibroBLAST (blast = destruction) :)

35
Q

What is typically the primary treatment for a dog diagnosed with Addison’s disease?
a. Hormone replacement therapy
b. Insulin injections
c. Chemotherapy
d. Thyroid supplemenation

A

a. Hormone replacement therapy

Addison’s disease is a decrease in corticosteroid hormones by the adrenal glands.

36
Q

Which of the following combinations of induction agents is most commonly used in casts for short, painful procedures?
a. Diazepam and Propofol
b. Ketamine and Midazolam
c. Propofol and Ketamine
d. Ketamine and Diazepam

A

d. Ketamine and Diazepam

Ketamine is the anesthetic and analgesic
Diazepam a muscle relaxant.

37
Q

What is the primary use of Diazepam in anesthetic induction techniques?
a. Analgesic medication
b. Premed for sedative and amnestic effects
c. Replacement for inhalant anesthetics
d. Induce vomiting

A

b. Premed for sedative and amnestic effects

38
Q

What are some ways to assess muscle tone during general anesthesia?
a. Measuring patient’s pulse
b. Jaw tone and size of anal opening
c. Patient’s reparatory rate
d. Patient’s temperature

A

b. Jaw tone and size of anal opening

39
Q

Which of the following scissors is generally used for delicate tissues dissections in a canine patient?
a. Lister scissors
b. Mayo scissors
c. Metzenbaum scissors
d. Littauer scissors

A

c. Metzenbaum scissors

Lister - bandage removal
Mayo - dense tissue
Littauer - suture removal

40
Q

Which modes of ultrasonography are primarily used in the diagnosis of feline cardiac disease?
a. S-mode and R-mode
b. 2D and M-mode
c. A-mode and 3D
d. Doppler and C-mode
e. B-mode and flow

A

b. 2D and M-mode

M-mode = “Motion Mode” is used with diagnoses like hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) where you have movement and want to measure distances.
B-mode also 2D = the standard way to obtain traditional cardiac views.
Doppler sounds - also another route where it measures movement and velocity.

41
Q

What drug can reverse the effects of xylazine (an alpha2-adrenergic agonist)?
a. Flumazenil
b. Yohimbine
c. Naloxone
d. Pralidoxime
e. Atropine

A

b. Yohimbine

Yohimbine is a reversal for Xylazine.
Cattle are sensitive to xylazine, the cow dose is about 1/10th in horses.
Pralidoxime (diazepam) and Atropine - treat organophosphate toxicity and sedative/seizures
Flumazenil - reversal for benzodiazepines
Naloxone - reversal for opioids

42
Q

A 4 year old male Rottweiler is presented for routine health evaluation. A heartworm ELISA antigen test is positive.
Where, anatomically, do adult heartworms live?
a. Pulmonary veins
b. Left ventricle
c. Auricles
d. Pulmonary arteries
e. Entire heart

A

d. Pulmonary arteries

VTNE (5 decks)

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