Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VTNE > Anatomy and Vet Diagnostics > Flashcards

Anatomy and Vet Diagnostics Flashcards

Animal A&P, Urinalysis, Hematology, Parasitology, Chemistry, Cytology, Microbiology, Radiography & Imaging Tech

1
Q

Which of the following would be found in abundance in a skeletal muscle cell?
a. Golgi Complex
b. Mitochondria
c. Lysosomes
d. SER

A

b. Mitochondria
(Cells that use a large amount of energy have large numbers of mitochondria.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following uses active transport?
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Sodium-potassium pump
d. Facilitated diffusion

A

c. Sodium-potassium pump
Diffusion, Facilitated diffusion, Osmosis & Filtration are “Passive processes”
Endocytosis, Exocytosis & Active transport (Sodium-potassium pump) are “Active processes”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following contains hyaline cartilage?
a. Articular cartilage in a long bone
b. The pinna of the ear
c. Ligaments
d. Pubic symphysis

A

a. Articular cartilage in a long bone.
Articular cartilage is hyaline cartilage that covers the ends of the bones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The stomach is ____ to the heart.
a. distal
b. rostral
c. cranial
d. caudal

A

d. caudal
Cranial = toward the head
Caudal = toward the tail
Rostral = toward the nose
Distal = point farthest from the backbone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following houses osteocytes in compact bone?
a. Lacunae
b. Haversain canal
c. Lamellae
d. Canaliculi

A

a. Lacunae
Haversain canal = houses blood vessels
Lamellae = concentric rings of bone
Canaliculi - small canals that radiate out, connecting lacunae and central haversain canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

These striated cells are joined by intercalated disks and have a single, centrally located nucleus.
a. Flat bone
b. Smooth muscle
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Neurons

A

c. Cardiac muscle
Flat bone = thin flat bones that have a protective function.
Smooth muscle = spindle-shaped, smooth cells with a centrally located nucleus
Neurons = cells that conduct impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Schwann cells
a. form myelin in the CNS
b. are part of the immune system
c. are supportive and protective only
d. are also known as the nodes of Ranvier

A

c. are supportive and protective only
Oligodendrocytes = form myelin in the CNS
Schwann cells = form myelin in the PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which vessel contains oxygenated blood?
a. Vena cava
b. Jugular vein
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Pulmonary vein

A

d. Pulmonary vein
Veins = transports blood to the heart
pulmonary vein from lungs to heart (only vein that transports oxygen)
Artery = transports blood away from heart
pulmonary artery from heart to lungs (only artery that is non-oxygenated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

During contraction, the electrical impulse is the heart travels through several structures. Which of the following is the correct order of transmission?
a. Purkinje fibers, bundle of His, SA node, AV node
b. AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
c. SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His
d. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

A

d. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

RBCs placed in a ____ solution will gain water through osmosis and hemolyze.
a. hypotonic
b. hypertonic
c. isotonic

A

a. hypotonic
Hypotonic = (RBC gain) extracellular fluid is less concentrated than the intracellular fluid
Hypertonic = (RBC lose) extracellular fluid is more concentrated than the intracellular fluid
Isotonic = concentrations of the extracellular and intracellular fluids are equal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Food travels through the stomach of the ruminant in what order?
a. Reticulum, rumen, omasum, abomasum
b. Rumen, reticulum, abomasum, omasum
c. Rumen, omasum, reticulum, abomasum
d. Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum

A

d. Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum
Rumen = largest compartment, “fermentation vat”
Reticulum = Passageway for food “honeycomb” or “hardware compartment”
Omasum = Grinds up food and absorbs water and bicarbonate
Abomasum = “True stomach” mixes food with enzymes, initiates chemical digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In the digestive system, which cells produce the necessary hydrochloric acid?
a. Parietal cells
b. Chief cells
c. Schwann cells
d. Melanocytes

A

a. Parietal cells
Parietal cells = one of four cells types located in the Fundic region of the stomach.
Mucous neck cells - secrete mucus
Chief cells - produce the enzyme pepsinogen
Endocrine cells - produce the hormone gastrin
Schwann cells = form myelin in the PNS
Melanocytes = located in the epidermis layer of skin, known as “Pigment cells”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

During inhalation, the diaphragm moves
a. ventrally
b. dorsally
c. caudally
d. cranially

A

c. Caudally.
ventral = away from the backbone
dorsal = toward the backbone
caudal = toward the tail
cranial = toward the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The outer cortex of the kidney contains all of the following except
a. Bowman capsule.
b. loop of Henle.
c. proximal convoluted tubules.
d. distal convoluted tubules.

A

b. loop of Henle
Renal cortex = Bowman capsule, proximal & distal convoluted tubules.
Renal medulla = loop of Henle and collecting tubules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following hormones is responsible for stimulating milk production?
a. Epinephrine
b. Calcitonin
c. Thyroxin
d. Prolactin

A

d. Prolactin
Epinephrine = a catecholamine that acts on the sympathetic nervous system to cause vasoconstriction.
Thyroxine = thyroid hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

An increase in carbon dioxide causes
a. an increase in respiratory rate
b. a decrease in respiratory rate
c. dyspnea
d. a Hering-Breuer reflex

A

a. an increase in respiratory rate
dyspnea = difficult breathing
Hering-Breuer reflex = regulatory feedback reflex for the generation and patterning of respiratory activity during too much inhalation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The auditory ossicles are located in the
a. cochlea
b. outer ear
c. middle ear
d. inner ear

A

c. middle ear
Outer ear = the pinna to the tympanic membrane
Middle ear = air filled houses 3 ossicles: malleus (hammer), incus (anvil) and stapes (stirrup)
Inner ear = fluid filled houses cochlea, vestibule and semicircular canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

ADH (vasopressin) causes water reabsorption and is released by which gland?
a. Pituitary
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Adrenal cortex
d. Spleen

A

a. Pituitary Gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following has a prostate but no bulbourethral gland?
a. Cat
b. Dog
c. Cow
d. Horse

A

b. Dog
Dogs = prostate only
Cat = prostate and bulbourethral glands
Horse = seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral glands and ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following layers of skin contains “waterproofing” cells?
a. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum germinativum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Corium

A

c. Stratum granulosum
Stratum corneum = superficial, nonvascular, cornified layer of keratocytes constantly
being shed and replaced
Stratum germinativum = deepest layer and actively growing that contains melanocytes.
Corium (Dermis) = contains arteries, veins, capillaries, lymphatics and nerve fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which task would be considered an example of post-analytical quality control or quality assurance measures?
a. Fasting the patient
b. Performing a cleaning cycle on the analyzer
c. Running controls
d. Calibrating the instrument

A

b. Performing a cleaning cycle on the analyzer

Fasting the patient, Running Controls and Calibrating the instrument are all to be done before (pre-analytical) testing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Urine samples should be analyzed within _____ for maximum valid information.
a. 2 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 12 hours

A

b. 30 minutes

Urinalysis should be performed within 20-30 minutes after collection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which finding is common in feline urine samples?
a. Bilirubinuria
b. Proteinuria
c. Lipiduria
d. Glucosuria

A

c. Lipiduria

Bilirubinuria, proteinuria, and glucosuria may or may not be present in feline urine, depending on the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

It is recommend that urine sample size be standardized. An adequate sample of fresh urine is considered to be ____
a. 1ml
b. 5ml
c. 10ml
d. 20ml

A

b. 5ml

1 mL is not sufficient and both 10 and 20 mL exceed the ideal sample size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which urine cast, observed in low numbers, is a typical finding?
a. Hyaline
b. WBC casts
c. RBC casts
d. Waxy

A

a. Hyaline

WBC, RBC and Waxy casts are not typically found in urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which is the preferred anticoagulant for conducting hematology in a parrot?
a. Heparin
b. EDTA
c. B-hydroxybutyric acid
d. Ascorbic acid

A

a. Heparin

Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant when conducting hematological examinations in both birds and reptiles. EDTA is the best anticoagulant for hematological testing in most mammals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which cells are critical in maintaining hemostasis?
a. Erythrocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Macrophages
d. Platelets

A

d. Platelets

Hemostasis = stopping of blood flow

28
Q

Blood samples collected immediately postprandial may be __
a. icteric
b. high in TPP
c. lipemic
d. low in RBCs

A

c. lipemic

postprandial = after eating

29
Q

Which urine collection method is optimal for bacterial culture?
a. Manual expression
b. Cystocentesis
c. Midstream
d. Litter pan pour-off

A

b. Cystocentesis

30
Q

Diluted urine samples that have a SG less than plasma are described as ___
a. baruric
b. hypersthenuric
c. hyposthenuric
d. isosthenuric

A

c. hyposthenuric

iso- (the same as), hypo- (less than), and
hyper- (greater than).
Baruric is another term
for hypersthenuric and the SG is greater than about
1.012

31
Q

Which cellular morphology change is often associated with Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA)?
a. Rouleaux formation
b. Microclots
c. Hypochromasia
d. Agglutination

A

d. Agglutination

Rouleaux formation increase in any species may
indicate an inflammatory or neoplastic condition.
Hypochromasia is more common with an irondeficiency anemia. Microclots are caused by difficulty in sample collection or clotting pathologies.

32
Q

A stress leukogram can develop over several hours and persists for several days. How does the CBC reflect a stress leukogram?
a. Mature Neutropenia, Monocytosis, Lymphocytosis
b. Lymphocytosis, Mature Neutrophilia
c. Mature Neutrophilia, Monocytosis, Lymphopenia, Eosinopenia
d. Lymphopenia, Mature Neutrophilia, Eosinopenia

A

c. Mature Neutrophilia, Monocytosis, Lymphopenia, Eosinopenia

Stress Leukogram = Decrease Lymph, EOS & Increase NEU, Mono
Physiological Leukogram = Increase Lymph, NEU

33
Q

A glucocorticoid-induced leukogram is also known as:
a. Relative polycythemia
b. Stress leukogram
c. Physiological thrombocytosis
d. Physiological leukogram

A

b. Stress leukogram

Relative polycythemia, Physiological thrombocytosis and leukogram = Result from a splenic contraction from epinephrine release due to excitement, fear, pain and/or manual compression during restraint.

34
Q

What does Anisocytosis mean?

A

Variation in erythrocyte size. Normal in healthy cattle and cats.

Normocyte, Macrocyte, Microcyte

35
Q

Hypochromasia is a lacking of ___ and an increase of ___

A

Lacking of Typical Color and an increase of Central Pallor

36
Q

What are found when there is oxidative injury resulting in denaturing of the hemoglobin?
a. Howell Jolly bodies
b. Heinz bodies
c. Basophilic stippling
d. nRBC

A

b. Heinz bodies

Howell Jolly bodies - remnants of nuclear chromatin
Basophilic stippling - found with lead poisoning or regenerative responses
nRBC - Immature RBC, usually rubricytes and metarubricytes

37
Q

MCHC is calculated by multiplying
a. dividend of PCV/RBCs by 1000
b. Hb by 10 and dividing by product of total RBC count
c. Hb concentration by 100 and dividing by PCV
d. PCV by 10 and dividing product by total RBC count.

A

c. Hb concentration by 100 and dividing by PCV

MCH = (Hb concentration X 10) / RBC count
MCV = (PCV X 10) / RBC count

38
Q

Which RBC index corresponds to the size of the cells?
a. MCHC
b. MCV
c. PCT
d. PDW

A

b. MCV

Mean Cell Volume

39
Q

Which test is considered most accurate in evaluating percentage of RBCs in the circulating blood volume?
a. Total erythrocyte count
b. Packed Cell Volume
c. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin
d. Relative reticulocyte count

A

b. Packed Cell Volume

40
Q

Which is true of reticulocytes?
a. They are mature erythrocytes that still contain ribosomes
b. Wright stain causes a polychromatophilic staining, or diffuse, blue-grey color.
c. In cats, both punctate and aggregate forms should be counted in a reticulocyte count.
d. Organelles are not visible with new methylene blue stain.

A

b. Wright stain causes a polychromatophilic staining, or diffuse, blue-grey color.

In cats, only aggregate forms are counted.

41
Q

Basophilic stippling is the presence of small, blue-staining granules within
a. erythrocytes
b. leukocytes
c. platelets
d. basophils

A

a. erythrocytes
Basophilic stippling may be found in lead poisoning or regenerative response

42
Q

Which test is used to estimate urine solute osmolar concentration?
a. Urine pH
b. Cystocentesis
c. Specific Gravity
d. Osmometry

A

d. Osmometry

43
Q

NRBCs are typically found in peripheral blood in which species of animals?
a. Ruminant and equine
b. Avian and reptile
c. Equine and reptile
d. Avian and equine

A

b. Avian and reptile

44
Q

What component is more commonly used for coagulation testing?
a. Citrate
b. Sodium heparin
c. EDTA
d. Sodium fluoride

A

a. Citrate

45
Q

Which test is used to determine abnormalities in the common and extrinsic coagulation pathways?
a. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
b. Buccal mucosal bleeding time
c. Prothrombin time (PT)
d. Thrombocyte count

A

c. Prothrombin time (PT)

aPTT = Intrinsic

46
Q

Which of the following is known as the hair follicle mite?
a. Cnemidocoptes spp.
b. Sarcoptes spp.
c. Demodex spp.
d. Notoedres spp.

A

c. Demodex spp.

47
Q

Equine pinworm is caused by
a. Syphacia obvelata
b. Parascaris equorum
c. Hymenolepis nana
d. Oxyuris equi

A

d. Oxyuris equi

Syphacia obvelata = mouse pinworm
Parascaris equorum = equine roundworm
Hymenolepis nana = rat tapeworm (dwarf tapeworm)

48
Q

In puppies, transplacental transmission is the primary route of infection for
a. Toxascaris
b. Toxocara canis
c. Isospora canis
d. Toxoplasma gondii

A

b. Toxocara canis = dog roundworm

Toxacaris = dog/cat roundworm, Ingestion of eggs
Isospora canis = now called Cystoisospora spp. Coccidia. Ingestion of oocyst
Toxoplasma gondii = a feline roundworm spp., ingestion of cysts in meat

49
Q

All of the following are zoonotic except
a. Echinococcus spp.
b. Chorioptes spp.
c. Giardia spp.
d. Toxocara canis

A

b. Chorioptes spp. - skin mites that cause mange in domestic animals

Echinococcus spp. = tapeworm
Toxocara canis = dog roundworm

50
Q

The condition term “Pediculosis” refers to
a. infestation with ticks
b. infestation with flies
c. infestation with lice
d. infestation with mites

A

c. infestation with lice

51
Q

Fasciola hepactica is a
a. cestode
b. trematode
c. nematode
d. protozoan

A

b. trematode

52
Q

Sucking lice have which characteristic?
a. Body laterally compressed, broad head
b. Scutum ornate
c. Narrower head than the thorax
d. Basis capitulum

A

c. Narrower head than the thorax

Biting lice = head wider than thorax

53
Q

The prepatent period of Dirofilaria immitis is
a. 9 to 12 months
b. 6 to 8 months
c. 12 to 16 weeks
d. 295 days

A

b. 6 - 8 months

54
Q

Psoroptes spp. inhabit the following hosts:
a. large animals
b. cats
c. rabbits
d. both a. and c.

A

d. both a. and c. (large animals and rabbits)

55
Q

Trichuris vulpis produces the following egg type
a. ascarid
b. larvated
c. bipolar
d. morulated

A

c. bipolar

ascarid = example Roundworm (Toxocara spp.)
larvated = example Stomach worm (Physaloptera spp.)
morulated = example Hookworms (Ancylostoma spp.)

56
Q

Which one of the following external parasites can live in the stomach?
a. Ticks
b. Bots
c. Lice
d. Fleas

A

d. Bots?

57
Q

Which best describes the physical characteristics of Capillaria aerophila ova?
a. Oval with asymmetrical bipolar plugs
b. Spherical, contains striations
c. Clear thin walled oocyst
d. Operculated containing miracidium

A

a. Oval with asymmetrical bipolar plugs

58
Q

Which parasite causes Hydatidosis?
a. Echinococcus multilocularis
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Dipylidium caninum
d. Sarcocystis spp.

A

a. Echinococcus multilocularis

Trichinella spiralis = Trichinellosis
Dipylidium caninum = Cestodiasis
Sarcocystis spp. = Sarcocystises, Sarcosporidiosis

59
Q

Borrelia Burgdorgeri is transmitted by
a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
b. deer tick
c. Pacific Coast dog tick
d. Fowl tick

A

b. deer tick

Rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog tick) = Babesia canis and Ehrlichia canis
Pacific Coast dog tick = Rocky Mt. spotted fever, Tularemia, Q fever
Fowl tick = Not routinely seen

60
Q

Taenia spp. ova resemble
a. Moniezia spp.
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Echinococcus spp.
d. Anoplocephala spp.

A

c. Echinococcus spp.

Dark brown, thick, radially striated eggshell. Six-hooked hexacanth embryo.

61
Q

Which is not associated with zoonotic toxocariasis?
a. Ocular larval migrans
b. Neurological larva migrans
c. Visceral larva migrans
d. Cutaneous larva migrans

A

d. Cutaneous larva migrans

62
Q

Cellophane tape is used to detect ova of
a. Cheyletiella spp.
b. Thread worm
c. Guinea worm
d. Dioctophyma renale

A

a. Cheyletiella spp. (threadworms and pinworms)

63
Q

Which of the following parasites require a slug or snail as an IH to complete its life cycle?
a. Protostongylus refescens spp.
b. Dictyocaulus spp.
c. Parascaris equorum
d. Sarcocystis neurona

A

a. Protostongylus refescens spp.

64
Q

The prepatent period for Ancylostoma caninum is
a. 2 to 3 weeks
b. 63 days
c. 10 days
d. 2 months

A

a 2 to 3 weeks

65
Q

Which of the following parasites is not an internal parasite?
a. Eimeria spp.
b. Ehrlichia spp.
c. Giardia spp.
d. Trypansosoma spp.

A

b. Ehrlichia spp.

Eimeria spp. = coccidia
Trypansosoma spp. = Blood parasite trypanosomes

VTNE (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions