Anatomy and Vet Diagnostics Flashcards
Animal A&P, Urinalysis, Hematology, Parasitology, Chemistry, Cytology, Microbiology, Radiography & Imaging Tech
Which of the following would be found in abundance in a skeletal muscle cell?
a. Golgi Complex
b. Mitochondria
c. Lysosomes
d. SER
b. Mitochondria
(Cells that use a large amount of energy have large numbers of mitochondria.)
Which of the following uses active transport?
a. Diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Sodium-potassium pump
d. Facilitated diffusion
c. Sodium-potassium pump
Diffusion, Facilitated diffusion, Osmosis & Filtration are “Passive processes”
Endocytosis, Exocytosis & Active transport (Sodium-potassium pump) are “Active processes”
Which of the following contains hyaline cartilage?
a. Articular cartilage in a long bone
b. The pinna of the ear
c. Ligaments
d. Pubic symphysis
a. Articular cartilage in a long bone.
Articular cartilage is hyaline cartilage that covers the ends of the bones.
The stomach is ____ to the heart.
a. distal
b. rostral
c. cranial
d. caudal
d. caudal
Cranial = toward the head
Caudal = toward the tail
Rostral = toward the nose
Distal = point farthest from the backbone
Which of the following houses osteocytes in compact bone?
a. Lacunae
b. Haversain canal
c. Lamellae
d. Canaliculi
a. Lacunae
Haversain canal = houses blood vessels
Lamellae = concentric rings of bone
Canaliculi - small canals that radiate out, connecting lacunae and central haversain canal
These striated cells are joined by intercalated disks and have a single, centrally located nucleus.
a. Flat bone
b. Smooth muscle
c. Cardiac muscle
d. Neurons
c. Cardiac muscle
Flat bone = thin flat bones that have a protective function.
Smooth muscle = spindle-shaped, smooth cells with a centrally located nucleus
Neurons = cells that conduct impulses
Schwann cells
a. form myelin in the CNS
b. are part of the immune system
c. are supportive and protective only
d. are also known as the nodes of Ranvier
c. are supportive and protective only
Oligodendrocytes = form myelin in the CNS
Schwann cells = form myelin in the PNS
Which vessel contains oxygenated blood?
a. Vena cava
b. Jugular vein
c. Pulmonary artery
d. Pulmonary vein
d. Pulmonary vein
Veins = transports blood to the heart
pulmonary vein from lungs to heart (only vein that transports oxygen)
Artery = transports blood away from heart
pulmonary artery from heart to lungs (only artery that is non-oxygenated)
During contraction, the electrical impulse is the heart travels through several structures. Which of the following is the correct order of transmission?
a. Purkinje fibers, bundle of His, SA node, AV node
b. AV node, SA node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
c. SA node, AV node, Purkinje fibers, bundle of His
d. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
d. SA node, AV node, bundle of His, Purkinje fibers
RBCs placed in a ____ solution will gain water through osmosis and hemolyze.
a. hypotonic
b. hypertonic
c. isotonic
a. hypotonic
Hypotonic = (RBC gain) extracellular fluid is less concentrated than the intracellular fluid
Hypertonic = (RBC lose) extracellular fluid is more concentrated than the intracellular fluid
Isotonic = concentrations of the extracellular and intracellular fluids are equal
Food travels through the stomach of the ruminant in what order?
a. Reticulum, rumen, omasum, abomasum
b. Rumen, reticulum, abomasum, omasum
c. Rumen, omasum, reticulum, abomasum
d. Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum
d. Rumen, reticulum, omasum, abomasum
Rumen = largest compartment, “fermentation vat”
Reticulum = Passageway for food “honeycomb” or “hardware compartment”
Omasum = Grinds up food and absorbs water and bicarbonate
Abomasum = “True stomach” mixes food with enzymes, initiates chemical digestion
In the digestive system, which cells produce the necessary hydrochloric acid?
a. Parietal cells
b. Chief cells
c. Schwann cells
d. Melanocytes
a. Parietal cells
Parietal cells = one of four cells types located in the Fundic region of the stomach.
Mucous neck cells - secrete mucus
Chief cells - produce the enzyme pepsinogen
Endocrine cells - produce the hormone gastrin
Schwann cells = form myelin in the PNS
Melanocytes = located in the epidermis layer of skin, known as “Pigment cells”
During inhalation, the diaphragm moves
a. ventrally
b. dorsally
c. caudally
d. cranially
c. Caudally.
ventral = away from the backbone
dorsal = toward the backbone
caudal = toward the tail
cranial = toward the head
The outer cortex of the kidney contains all of the following except
a. Bowman capsule.
b. loop of Henle.
c. proximal convoluted tubules.
d. distal convoluted tubules.
b. loop of Henle
Renal cortex = Bowman capsule, proximal & distal convoluted tubules.
Renal medulla = loop of Henle and collecting tubules.
Which of the following hormones is responsible for stimulating milk production?
a. Epinephrine
b. Calcitonin
c. Thyroxin
d. Prolactin
d. Prolactin
Epinephrine = a catecholamine that acts on the sympathetic nervous system to cause vasoconstriction.
Thyroxine = thyroid hormone
An increase in carbon dioxide causes
a. an increase in respiratory rate
b. a decrease in respiratory rate
c. dyspnea
d. a Hering-Breuer reflex
a. an increase in respiratory rate
dyspnea = difficult breathing
Hering-Breuer reflex = regulatory feedback reflex for the generation and patterning of respiratory activity during too much inhalation.
The auditory ossicles are located in the
a. cochlea
b. outer ear
c. middle ear
d. inner ear
c. middle ear
Outer ear = the pinna to the tympanic membrane
Middle ear = air filled houses 3 ossicles: malleus (hammer), incus (anvil) and stapes (stirrup)
Inner ear = fluid filled houses cochlea, vestibule and semicircular canals
ADH (vasopressin) causes water reabsorption and is released by which gland?
a. Pituitary
b. Adrenal medulla
c. Adrenal cortex
d. Spleen
a. Pituitary Gland
Which of the following has a prostate but no bulbourethral gland?
a. Cat
b. Dog
c. Cow
d. Horse
b. Dog
Dogs = prostate only
Cat = prostate and bulbourethral glands
Horse = seminal vesicles, prostate, bulbourethral glands and ampulla
Which of the following layers of skin contains “waterproofing” cells?
a. Stratum corneum
b. Stratum germinativum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Corium
c. Stratum granulosum
Stratum corneum = superficial, nonvascular, cornified layer of keratocytes constantly
being shed and replaced
Stratum germinativum = deepest layer and actively growing that contains melanocytes.
Corium (Dermis) = contains arteries, veins, capillaries, lymphatics and nerve fibers.
Which task would be considered an example of post-analytical quality control or quality assurance measures?
a. Fasting the patient
b. Performing a cleaning cycle on the analyzer
c. Running controls
d. Calibrating the instrument
b. Performing a cleaning cycle on the analyzer
Fasting the patient, Running Controls and Calibrating the instrument are all to be done before (pre-analytical) testing.
Urine samples should be analyzed within _____ for maximum valid information.
a. 2 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 12 hours
b. 30 minutes
Urinalysis should be performed within 20-30 minutes after collection.
Which finding is common in feline urine samples?
a. Bilirubinuria
b. Proteinuria
c. Lipiduria
d. Glucosuria
c. Lipiduria
Bilirubinuria, proteinuria, and glucosuria may or may not be present in feline urine, depending on the sample
It is recommend that urine sample size be standardized. An adequate sample of fresh urine is considered to be ____
a. 1ml
b. 5ml
c. 10ml
d. 20ml
b. 5ml
1 mL is not sufficient and both 10 and 20 mL exceed the ideal sample size.
Which urine cast, observed in low numbers, is a typical finding?
a. Hyaline
b. WBC casts
c. RBC casts
d. Waxy
a. Hyaline
WBC, RBC and Waxy casts are not typically found in urine.
Which is the preferred anticoagulant for conducting hematology in a parrot?
a. Heparin
b. EDTA
c. B-hydroxybutyric acid
d. Ascorbic acid
a. Heparin
Heparin is the preferred anticoagulant when conducting hematological examinations in both birds and reptiles. EDTA is the best anticoagulant for hematological testing in most mammals.
Which cells are critical in maintaining hemostasis?
a. Erythrocytes
b. Leukocytes
c. Macrophages
d. Platelets
d. Platelets
Hemostasis = stopping of blood flow
Blood samples collected immediately postprandial may be __
a. icteric
b. high in TPP
c. lipemic
d. low in RBCs
c. lipemic
postprandial = after eating
Which urine collection method is optimal for bacterial culture?
a. Manual expression
b. Cystocentesis
c. Midstream
d. Litter pan pour-off
b. Cystocentesis
Diluted urine samples that have a SG less than plasma are described as ___
a. baruric
b. hypersthenuric
c. hyposthenuric
d. isosthenuric
c. hyposthenuric
iso- (the same as), hypo- (less than), and
hyper- (greater than).
Baruric is another term
for hypersthenuric and the SG is greater than about
1.012
Which cellular morphology change is often associated with Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia (IMHA)?
a. Rouleaux formation
b. Microclots
c. Hypochromasia
d. Agglutination
d. Agglutination
Rouleaux formation increase in any species may
indicate an inflammatory or neoplastic condition.
Hypochromasia is more common with an irondeficiency anemia. Microclots are caused by difficulty in sample collection or clotting pathologies.
A stress leukogram can develop over several hours and persists for several days. How does the CBC reflect a stress leukogram?
a. Mature Neutropenia, Monocytosis, Lymphocytosis
b. Lymphocytosis, Mature Neutrophilia
c. Mature Neutrophilia, Monocytosis, Lymphopenia, Eosinopenia
d. Lymphopenia, Mature Neutrophilia, Eosinopenia
c. Mature Neutrophilia, Monocytosis, Lymphopenia, Eosinopenia
Stress Leukogram = Decrease Lymph, EOS & Increase NEU, Mono
Physiological Leukogram = Increase Lymph, NEU
A glucocorticoid-induced leukogram is also known as:
a. Relative polycythemia
b. Stress leukogram
c. Physiological thrombocytosis
d. Physiological leukogram
b. Stress leukogram
Relative polycythemia, Physiological thrombocytosis and leukogram = Result from a splenic contraction from epinephrine release due to excitement, fear, pain and/or manual compression during restraint.
What does Anisocytosis mean?
Variation in erythrocyte size. Normal in healthy cattle and cats.
Normocyte, Macrocyte, Microcyte
Hypochromasia is a lacking of ___ and an increase of ___
Lacking of Typical Color and an increase of Central Pallor
What are found when there is oxidative injury resulting in denaturing of the hemoglobin?
a. Howell Jolly bodies
b. Heinz bodies
c. Basophilic stippling
d. nRBC
b. Heinz bodies
Howell Jolly bodies - remnants of nuclear chromatin
Basophilic stippling - found with lead poisoning or regenerative responses
nRBC - Immature RBC, usually rubricytes and metarubricytes
MCHC is calculated by multiplying
a. dividend of PCV/RBCs by 1000
b. Hb by 10 and dividing by product of total RBC count
c. Hb concentration by 100 and dividing by PCV
d. PCV by 10 and dividing product by total RBC count.
c. Hb concentration by 100 and dividing by PCV
MCH = (Hb concentration X 10) / RBC count
MCV = (PCV X 10) / RBC count
Which RBC index corresponds to the size of the cells?
a. MCHC
b. MCV
c. PCT
d. PDW
b. MCV
Mean Cell Volume
Which test is considered most accurate in evaluating percentage of RBCs in the circulating blood volume?
a. Total erythrocyte count
b. Packed Cell Volume
c. Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin
d. Relative reticulocyte count
b. Packed Cell Volume
Which is true of reticulocytes?
a. They are mature erythrocytes that still contain ribosomes
b. Wright stain causes a polychromatophilic staining, or diffuse, blue-grey color.
c. In cats, both punctate and aggregate forms should be counted in a reticulocyte count.
d. Organelles are not visible with new methylene blue stain.
b. Wright stain causes a polychromatophilic staining, or diffuse, blue-grey color.
In cats, only aggregate forms are counted.
Basophilic stippling is the presence of small, blue-staining granules within
a. erythrocytes
b. leukocytes
c. platelets
d. basophils
a. erythrocytes
Basophilic stippling may be found in lead poisoning or regenerative response
Which test is used to estimate urine solute osmolar concentration?
a. Urine pH
b. Cystocentesis
c. Specific Gravity
d. Osmometry
d. Osmometry
NRBCs are typically found in peripheral blood in which species of animals?
a. Ruminant and equine
b. Avian and reptile
c. Equine and reptile
d. Avian and equine
b. Avian and reptile
What component is more commonly used for coagulation testing?
a. Citrate
b. Sodium heparin
c. EDTA
d. Sodium fluoride
a. Citrate
Which test is used to determine abnormalities in the common and extrinsic coagulation pathways?
a. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
b. Buccal mucosal bleeding time
c. Prothrombin time (PT)
d. Thrombocyte count
c. Prothrombin time (PT)
aPTT = Intrinsic
Which of the following is known as the hair follicle mite?
a. Cnemidocoptes spp.
b. Sarcoptes spp.
c. Demodex spp.
d. Notoedres spp.
c. Demodex spp.
Equine pinworm is caused by
a. Syphacia obvelata
b. Parascaris equorum
c. Hymenolepis nana
d. Oxyuris equi
d. Oxyuris equi
Syphacia obvelata = mouse pinworm
Parascaris equorum = equine roundworm
Hymenolepis nana = rat tapeworm (dwarf tapeworm)
In puppies, transplacental transmission is the primary route of infection for
a. Toxascaris
b. Toxocara canis
c. Isospora canis
d. Toxoplasma gondii
b. Toxocara canis = dog roundworm
Toxacaris = dog/cat roundworm, Ingestion of eggs
Isospora canis = now called Cystoisospora spp. Coccidia. Ingestion of oocyst
Toxoplasma gondii = a feline roundworm spp., ingestion of cysts in meat
All of the following are zoonotic except
a. Echinococcus spp.
b. Chorioptes spp.
c. Giardia spp.
d. Toxocara canis
b. Chorioptes spp. - skin mites that cause mange in domestic animals
Echinococcus spp. = tapeworm
Toxocara canis = dog roundworm
The condition term “Pediculosis” refers to
a. infestation with ticks
b. infestation with flies
c. infestation with lice
d. infestation with mites
c. infestation with lice
Fasciola hepactica is a
a. cestode
b. trematode
c. nematode
d. protozoan
b. trematode
Sucking lice have which characteristic?
a. Body laterally compressed, broad head
b. Scutum ornate
c. Narrower head than the thorax
d. Basis capitulum
c. Narrower head than the thorax
Biting lice = head wider than thorax
The prepatent period of Dirofilaria immitis is
a. 9 to 12 months
b. 6 to 8 months
c. 12 to 16 weeks
d. 295 days
b. 6 - 8 months
Psoroptes spp. inhabit the following hosts:
a. large animals
b. cats
c. rabbits
d. both a. and c.
d. both a. and c. (large animals and rabbits)
Trichuris vulpis produces the following egg type
a. ascarid
b. larvated
c. bipolar
d. morulated
c. bipolar
ascarid = example Roundworm (Toxocara spp.)
larvated = example Stomach worm (Physaloptera spp.)
morulated = example Hookworms (Ancylostoma spp.)
Which one of the following external parasites can live in the stomach?
a. Ticks
b. Bots
c. Lice
d. Fleas
d. Bots?
Which best describes the physical characteristics of Capillaria aerophila ova?
a. Oval with asymmetrical bipolar plugs
b. Spherical, contains striations
c. Clear thin walled oocyst
d. Operculated containing miracidium
a. Oval with asymmetrical bipolar plugs
Which parasite causes Hydatidosis?
a. Echinococcus multilocularis
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Dipylidium caninum
d. Sarcocystis spp.
a. Echinococcus multilocularis
Trichinella spiralis = Trichinellosis
Dipylidium caninum = Cestodiasis
Sarcocystis spp. = Sarcocystises, Sarcosporidiosis
Borrelia Burgdorgeri is transmitted by
a. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
b. deer tick
c. Pacific Coast dog tick
d. Fowl tick
b. deer tick
Rhipicephalus sanguineus (brown dog tick) = Babesia canis and Ehrlichia canis
Pacific Coast dog tick = Rocky Mt. spotted fever, Tularemia, Q fever
Fowl tick = Not routinely seen
Taenia spp. ova resemble
a. Moniezia spp.
b. Dipylidium caninum
c. Echinococcus spp.
d. Anoplocephala spp.
c. Echinococcus spp.
Dark brown, thick, radially striated eggshell. Six-hooked hexacanth embryo.
Which is not associated with zoonotic toxocariasis?
a. Ocular larval migrans
b. Neurological larva migrans
c. Visceral larva migrans
d. Cutaneous larva migrans
d. Cutaneous larva migrans
Cellophane tape is used to detect ova of
a. Cheyletiella spp.
b. Thread worm
c. Guinea worm
d. Dioctophyma renale
a. Cheyletiella spp. (threadworms and pinworms)
Which of the following parasites require a slug or snail as an IH to complete its life cycle?
a. Protostongylus refescens spp.
b. Dictyocaulus spp.
c. Parascaris equorum
d. Sarcocystis neurona
a. Protostongylus refescens spp.
The prepatent period for Ancylostoma caninum is
a. 2 to 3 weeks
b. 63 days
c. 10 days
d. 2 months
a 2 to 3 weeks
Which of the following parasites is not an internal parasite?
a. Eimeria spp.
b. Ehrlichia spp.
c. Giardia spp.
d. Trypansosoma spp.
b. Ehrlichia spp.
Eimeria spp. = coccidia
Trypansosoma spp. = Blood parasite trypanosomes
