Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Emma Micro II > Random (Quizzes) > Flashcards

Random (Quizzes) Flashcards

1
Q

T/F

There is a vaccine for fifth disease.

A

F

parvo B19 –> fifth disease aka slapped cheek disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

antigenic shift

A

segments of the virus undergo reassortment by virtue of a mixture of virus affecting humans and that affecting animals –> pandemic outbreak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

antigenic drift

A

genes encoding the HA and NA proteins of the viral capsid undergo frequent changes

–> new viral strains, epidemics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T/F

Influenza B virus undergoes antigenic shift.

A

F, can only undergo antigenic drift bc mainly infects humans.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F

Influenza A virus undergoes antigenic shift.

A

T, can undergo antigenic shift bc infects humans/other mammals/birds –> epidemics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Both influenza A and B can undergo antigenic ___.

A

drift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F

A point mutation can lead to pandemics.

A

F

A point mutation may cause antigenic drift that could lead to local epidemics, but not to pandemics (large portion of the population has no immunity to the new strain.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

bronchilitis

A

causes wheezing, seen in RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

disseminated infection in transplant pt

A

adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_____ infection of the mother is a major factor in fetal infection and causes most of fetal infections.

(primary or reactivation)

A

primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The most common cause of congenital viral infection is caused by …

A

primary infection of the mother with CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

rash w/ lesions in varying stages of development

A

VZV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

rash w/ lesions all at same stage of development

A

small pox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Small pox lesions are _____ whereas chickenpox lesions/vesicles are more _____.

A

Small pox lesions are DEEP/FIRM whereas chickenpox lesions/vesicles are more SUPERFICIAL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

chicken pox rash location

A

centripetal (chest, trunk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

small pox location

A

face, extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cut off to distinguish encephalitis vs meningitis based on CSF profile

A

There is no absolute cut off, but CSF wbc count usu lower in encephalitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Ceftriaxone is active against many of the bacteria that cause ______ (Strep. pneumoniae, B. burgdorferi)

A

meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

why foscarnet is useful in HSV/CMV resistance…

A

Does not req phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which influenza drugs have efficacy only w/i first 48 hr?

A

oseltamivir

zanamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

protein channel which enhances viral uncoating

A

M2 (influenza A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ganciclovir AE

A

BM suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

child hallucinations

A

oseltamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CMV drug with electrolyte abnormalities

A

foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

antiviral freq associated w/ N/V

A

oseltamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A mutation of ________ may confer both acyclovir and ganciclovir resistance.

A

thymidine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

toxoplasmosis prophylaxis is given when CD4 is

A

below 100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

HIV RNA can be detected approx ____ after acute infection.

A

10-15 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

HIV Ab can be detected approx ____ after acute infection.

A

several weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

____ is used to diagnose HIV

A

4th generation HIV antigen/antibody combination assay

+ after 20 d infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Syncytium-inducing viral phenotype

A

CXCR4-tropic HIV virus

fusion infected and uninfected CD4 cells

poorer outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

non-syncytium-inducing virus

A

CCR5-tropic virus HIV virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Low CD4 counts (generally below _) commonlly increase the risk of developing an opportunistic infection.

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Development of a CD8 cellular response is a characteristic of …

A

long term non progressors

controls viral replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

facial lipoatrophy

A

complication of use of older NRTIs mitochondrial toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Poor initial ___ responses correlate with rapid progression to AIDS

A

CTL

vs long-term non progressers who have very strong CTL responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

support for early tx of HIV

A

discovery that gut associated T cell destruction resulted in release of LPS and chronic T cell activation and chronic T cell activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which HIV viral protein first engages the CD4+ T-cell receptor?

A

GP 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

CD4 <50 opportunistic infection

A

CMV retinitis

40
Q

CD4 50-100 opportunistic infection

A

CNS lymphoma

41
Q

CD4 200-500 opportunistic infection

A

pneumococcal pneumonia

42
Q

> 500 opportunistic infection

A

herpes zoster (shingles)

43
Q 
slow progression
fevers
hypoxia
worsening SOB
oral sores
weight loss
A

PCP

44
Q

MRI ring enhancing lesions

A

toxoplasma gondii

45
Q

CD4

A

<200

46
Q

when to give prophylaxis for cryptococcus in HIV pt

A

not given in US

47
Q

hyperCHL associated antiviral

A

protease inhibitors

48
Q

protease inhibitors are often given w low dose of ___

A

ritonavir (inhib CYP34A)

49
Q

blocks reverse transcription of HIV RNA to DNA by inhibiting reverse transcriptase

A

NNRTI

50
Q

NRTI

A

DNA synthesis chain termination

51
Q

HIV drugs to avoid in preg

A

dolutrgravir

NNRTIs

52
Q

HIV has an _____, which accounts for its ability to produce viral strains with mutations conferring drug resistance even before initiation of treatment

A

error-prone reverse transcriptase

53
Q

most cases of this are asymptomatic

A

zika

54
Q

one serotype infection offers no protection against other serotypes

A

dengue

55
Q

arthralgia, arthritis, morning stiffness

A

chikungunya

56
Q

neuroinvasive disease most comm seen in elderly

A

west nile virus

57
Q

hand/foot/mouth

A

coxsackie

58
Q

hyper infection immunosuppressed

A

strongyloides stercoralis

59
Q

seizures

brain cysts

A

taenia sodium eggs (pig)

60
Q

walking barefoot

A

strongyloides

61
Q

duffy

A

P. vivax blood antigen receptor for entry into rbc

62
Q

check G6PD

A

primaquine

63
Q

latent phase of Pv and Po is due to

A

hypnozoites

64
Q

Premunition

A

development of partial immunity to malaria in an indivual who lives in a malaria endemic area and sustains repeated malaria infections

65
Q

spherule with many small spheres inside

A

coccidioides

66
Q

anytime CSF suggests lymphocytic predominance, low glucose profile –> order

A

crypyococcal antigen test

even if pt non-HIV +

67
Q

If clinical picture of TB fits, start ___ right away.

A

RIPE

68
Q

latent TB tx

A

INH for 9 mo.

69
Q

TB presenting as recrudescent disease occurs at which CD4 count in HIV pt?

A

(extrapulmonary sites)

@ any CD4 count but usu lower

70
Q

early bactericidal therapy

A

INH

71
Q

cryprospordia will stain + in ___ with ___ stain

A

cryprospordia will stain + in STOOL with ACID-FAST stain

72
Q

toxoplasmosis reactive in immunocompromised most comm occurs in the ___ or ___

A

brain or eye

73
Q

sandfly

A

Leishmania

74
Q

which Leishmania has higher risk of mucocutaneous disease/erosion of mucous membranes

A

Leishmania braziliensis

75
Q

ocular involve is seen in acute or reactivated toxo?

A

reactivated

76
Q

toxo dx

A

serology (ocular fluid)

77
Q

T/F

culture can be done for toxo dx

A

F

protozoa do not grow in culture

78
Q

T/F

stool antigen is helpful to detect Entamoeba histolytica

A

T

trophozoites w/ ingested rbc

79
Q

T/F

serologies are helpful to detect Entamoeba histolytica

A

only if invasive disease has developed

80
Q

immune response to bacterial polysaccharide antigen vaccines

A

thymus-independent vaccines

directly activate B cells to develop into plasma cells that produce IgM –> little/no memory

81
Q

vaccine eliciting strong T cell response

A

a live virus (will result in infected cells that can present virus peptides on MHC I –> CD8 T

82
Q

immune response to adjuvants

A

stimulate innate acute inflammatory response (using PRRs like TLR-4)

trigger maturation of dendritic cells

(adaptive thinks theres an infection)

exp. DTap
HepB
pneumococcal

83
Q

_______ is preferred over levofloxacin for the treatment of atypical pathogens

A

azithromycin

avoids adverse effects associated with quinolone use, including aortic aneurysm rupture, QT prolongation, and tendonitis

84
Q

tx plan for severe pneumonia

A

cefepime
vanco
AZT

(pseudomonas
MRSA
atypicals)

85
Q

pneumonia from a freshwater source

A

legionella
(air conditioner, etc)

an atypical

tend to have underlying lung disease

GI sx

86
Q

_____ is an endemic fungi that is inhaled from dusty desserts of the South West.

A

Coccidiomycosis

87
Q

_____ causes a pulmonary infection that can be self-limiting in the healthy and cause nodular and cavitary diseases in the immunocompromised

A

Coccidiomycosis

88
Q

atypicals abx

A

floroquinolones

macrolides

89
Q

stroke pt at risk for which mechanism of infection

A

aspiration of oral flora

90
Q

high opening P on LP

A

cryptococcus

91
Q

Which abx are empirically given to cover Pneumococcal meningitis?

A

vancomycin AND ceftriaxone

92
Q

fungal meningitis typical population affected

A

immunocompromised

93
Q

The most common cause of lymphocytic predominant meningitis with normal glucose is viral meningitis, especially in ____ pts.

A

young, immunocompetent

94
Q

AIDS pt, with lymphocytic meningitis w/ low glucose, and a high opening pressure on lumbar puncture

A

Cryptococcus meningitis

–> india ink

95
Q

ascending flaccid paralysis

A

W. Nile

96
Q

__ meningitis is usually in patients with travel history, homelessness, incarceration etc. a.

A

TB

Emma Micro II (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions