RANDOM/ PRODIGY TRIVIA/VALLEY BOOK 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Where is the DORSAL RESPIRATORY GROUP located

A

Medulla

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2
Q

Ventral Respiratory Group can influence both

A

Inspiratory and expiratory

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3
Q

Pneumotaxic located in (thinkPP)

A

PONS

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4
Q

Pneumotaxic center now called

A

PRG (Pontine Respiratory GROUP)

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5
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors are found MOSTLY in the

A

Carotid bodies but also in aortic bodies

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6
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors responds to

A

Decreased PaO2 < 60 mmHg
Increased H+ (low pH)
increased PaCO2

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7
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors ARE MOST RESPONSIVE TO

A

Decrease in arterial blood O2, when PaO2, falls below 60mmHg

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8
Q

The glossopharyngeal nerve carries afferent information from the

A

CAROTID BODIES

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9
Q

VAGUS nerve carries afferent information from the

A

AORITC BODIES and LUNG STRETCH receptors

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10
Q

Central chemoreceptors response to

A

Hydrogen ions

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11
Q

WHat normally drives Co2

A

VENTILATON

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12
Q

The pleural membranes couple the

A

Lungs to the chest wall

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13
Q

What is intrapleural pressure

A

The pressure in the space between the inside of the chest wall and the lungs

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14
Q

Intrapleural pressure is always

A

NEGATIVE (subatmospheric) during normal Tidal breathing.

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15
Q

Intrapleural pressure becomes more negative during ______and more less negative during

A

during inspiration; Expiration

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16
Q

Intrapulmonary pressure is ______during inspiration and______during expiration .

A

negative, positive

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17
Q

When does INTRAPLEURAL PRESSURE BECOMES POSITIVE

A

Forced expiration OR during exp effort against a closed glottis, such as the Valsava maneuver.

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18
Q

1 atm = ____mmhg = _____cm H2O

A

760; 1033 cm H2O

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19
Q

MV is normally____

A

4Lmin

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20
Q

CO is normally

A

5L min

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21
Q

The average V/Q for the lungs is

A

0.8

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22
Q

In the upright position, the dependent lung is at the

A

Base

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23
Q

In the upright position, the nondependent lung is at the

A

APEX

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24
Q

When the patient in the lateral decubitus position is anesthesized and paralyzed what occurs

A

a V/Q mismatch develops, ventilation is the non-dependent lung increases (because the dependent lung is difficult to insufflate) but the distribution of blood flow does not changes, compared to the awake, spontaneously breathing patient.

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25
Q

Always decreases whenever there is a V/Q mismatch

A

PaO2

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26
Q

The decrease in PaO2 seen with V/Q mismatch may be accompanied with

A

Hypocapnia,
Normocapnia
Hypercapnia

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27
Q

A-A gradient change with age

A

PAO2 - PaO2 = 0.21 x (age + 2.5)

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28
Q

Estimating PaO2

A

Multiple percent O2 in the inspirate gas mixture by 5 ( EX: 0.6 FiO2 is 60 x 5 = 300mmhg

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29
Q

Estimating PAO2

A

Multiple percent O2 in the inspirate gas mixture by 5

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30
Q

When V/Q is 0 there is

A

ABSOLUTE right to Left shunt

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31
Q

Normal PAO2 - PaO2 when breathing room air

A

5-15 mmHg

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32
Q

Normal PAO2 - PaO2 when 100 % O2

A

100 mmHg

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33
Q

Do you CPAP the dependent or nondependent lung

A

the NONDEPENDENT

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34
Q

Do you PEEP the dependent or nondependent lung

A

DEPENDENT

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35
Q

Most effective intervention for the NONdependent lung

A

CPAP

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36
Q

West zone describe _______in the lung

A

PERFUSION

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37
Q

West zone are not

A

Anatomically fixed zones, they are variable, functional zones, dependent upon body position

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38
Q

Compared with zone 1, zone 3 is

A

Better ventilated, better perfused has a lower V/Q ratio

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39
Q

Zone 1 vs Zone 3 negative intrapleural pressure

A

less negative intrapleural pressure

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40
Q

Zone 1 vs Zone 3 size alveoli

A

Zone 3 smaller alveoli

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41
Q

The zone 4 lung requires

A

4th pressure, P interstitial fluid

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42
Q

Zone1, 2, 3 , 4

A

Zone 1: PA>Pa.Pv
Zone 2: Pa> PA>Pv
Zone 3: Pa> Pv> PA
Zone 4: Pa>Pisf>Pv> PA

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43
Q

Zone 4 mnemonic

A

aiVA

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44
Q

The patient is preoxygenated to

A

Fill the FRC with O2,

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45
Q

What is oxygen consumption

A

250 ml O2/min

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46
Q

Found in the FRC

A

2500 ml so divided by 250 per min, you have 10 minutes

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47
Q

In response to alveolar hypoxia, The alveolar arterioles constrict

A

thereby decreasing shunt blood flow

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48
Q

When does VA inhibit HPV

A

> 1 MAC

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49
Q

Cannot be measured by spirometry

A

FRC, RV and TLC

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50
Q

Ratio that is useful in distinguishing between restrictive and obstructive disease

A

FEV1/FRC

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51
Q

What is the best lung volume test for assessing for small airway disease>

A

FEF 25-75 (MMEF) MidMaximal expiratory flow

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52
Q

Normal FEV1/FVC

A

4 L / 5 L =0.8 FEV1/FVC ratio

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53
Q

Obstructive FEV1/FVC Examples

A

FEV1 = 1.3 L/ FVC 3.1

FEV1/FRC ratio is 0.42 (42%)

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54
Q

Obstructive disease is present when

A

Both FEV1 and FVC are low

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55
Q

What is the Normal FEV1/FVC ratio

A

> 0.7

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56
Q

Restrictive disease is present when

A

both FEV1 and FVC are LOW but the RATION is equal or greater than 0.7

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57
Q

For restrictive and obstructive disease always calculate

A

the FEV1/FRC ratio

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58
Q

Criteria to cancel case FEV1 and FEV1/FRC ratio

A

If FEV1 < 2L and FEV1/FRC ratio < 50% more sophisticated lung fuction tests are needed.

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59
Q

Restricted loop are associated with

A

smaller volume

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60
Q

Intrapleural pressure increases with

A

FORCED VITAL EXPIRATION or VALSAVA maneuvers.

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61
Q

During forced expiration , intrapleural pressure becomes

A

Positive

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62
Q

AS liquid flow through a tube, the pressure Increases or decreases

A

DECREASES (falls)

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63
Q

In the airway pressure

A

decreases, as gas flow along the bronchioles. THIS IS THE PHYSICAL BASES or airway closure.

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64
Q

US 65-45

A

Upright closing capacity = FRC upright at 65

Sitting ———————–= ——— sitting at 45

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65
Q

Lung compliance with aging

A

INCREASES

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66
Q

FRC with aginst

A

Increases

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67
Q

Except for the cricothyroid muscle, the instrinsic muscles of the larynx are innervated by WHAT MOTOR NERVE/

A

RLN

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68
Q

Oxyhemoglobin curve becomes steep when PaO2 falls below

A

60 mmhg

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69
Q

The patient is given meperidine for premedication , what happens to the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve and the Co2 Blood dissociation curve?

A

Oxyhgb curve to the right

CO2 shifts left

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70
Q

What is the PaO2 when the SaO2 is 90%?

A

Think 40-90 rule
40mmHg - 70% SPO2
50mmHg - 80% SPO2
60mmHg - 90% SPO2

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71
Q

What % of Co2 is carried in the blood as bicarbonate?

A

90%

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72
Q

What enzyme (s) is (are) responsible for producing Bicarbonate in the rbc?

A

Carbonic Anhydrase

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73
Q

If PaCo2 is 30 mmhg how much Co2 is dissolved in blood . Give answer to 2 decimal places

A

30 x 0.067 = 2.01 mL

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74
Q

Peripheral chemoreceptors are most sensitive to

A

Decreased PaO2 (< 60 mmHg )

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75
Q

What nerve carries sensory information from the carotid and what nerve carries sensory information from the aortic bodies?

A

Carotid - Glossopharyngeal

Aortic - VAVUS

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76
Q

What nerve carries sensory information from the carotid and what nerve carries sensory information from the aortic bodies?

A

Carotid - Glossopharyngeal
Aortic - VAVUS
CGAV

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77
Q

Where are ventilation and perfusion greatest in the normal healthy lung in the awake individuals?

A

Ventilation greatest in the Dependent lung

Perfusion greatest in the DEPENDENT lung

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78
Q

Compare PACO2 in the base with PACO2 in the apex when the patient is in the prone position?

A

PACO2 is the same in the base of the supplies

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79
Q

Compared with non-dependent lung each of the following is greater in dependent lung, except:

A

ALVEOLAR DIAMETER

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80
Q

Compared with non-dependent lung each of the following is greater in dependent lung

A

Ventilation
Perfusion
PACO2

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81
Q

A patient breathing room air has a PaO2 of 45 mmHg , a PAO2 of 80 mmhg and a PaCO2 of 75 mmHg what is the problem?

A

There is a Ventilation;perfusion abnormality.

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82
Q

What is the problem if the patient has a segment of the lung with a ventilation:perfusion ratio of zero?

A

Patient has a RIGHT to LEFT SHUNT

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83
Q

The patient’s spirometric recordings reveal an FEV1 of 2L and an FVC of 4 L that values indicates

A

Obstructive disease (ratio is 50%)

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84
Q

For obstruction loop : top is _________ and bottom is _______

A

Expiratory bottom is Inspiratory (it’s flipped compared to volume capacity graph)

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85
Q

To remember if the APEX triangle points more toward EXPIRTORY it

A

Extrathoracic obstruction

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86
Q

What happens to pulmonary (lung) compliance and chest wall compliance as you age?

A

Pulmonary compliance increase

Chest wall compliance decrease

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87
Q

Vd is

A

Theoretical volume, Drug in body / concentration in plasma

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88
Q

Clearance (Cl) is

A

Theoretical volume of plasma completed cleared of drug in a given period of time.

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89
Q

Elimination half life vs elimination half time

A

half life –> time it takes for the total amount of drug, in the body to decrease by one half.
elimination half time –> plasma concentration of a drug to fall by one-half.

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90
Q

What the BODY does to the drug

A

PharmacoKINETICS

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91
Q

Time is

A

CONCENTRATION

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92
Q

Life is

A

AMOUNT

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93
Q

TCLA

A

Time–>concentration

Life –> Amount

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94
Q

Constant amount of drug eliminated per unit of time

A

Zero Order kinetics

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95
Q

Drugs that undergo zero order kinteics

A

Phenytoin, Alcohol, ASA

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96
Q

When the plasma concentration of any drugs exceeds the capacity of metabolizing enzymes

A

Zero Order kinteics.

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97
Q

First order kinetics (think FF)

A

CONSTANT FRACTION

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98
Q

Alpha phase is

A

Distribution

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99
Q

bEta phase is

A

ELIMINATION (B-e)

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100
Q

T 1/2 B (half time Beta) =

A

0.693 Vd/ Cl

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101
Q

How many half lives are required to eliminates at LEAST 98% of a drug?

A

6

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102
Q

Type I phase reaction

A

Oxidation
Reduction
Hydrolysis
Methylation

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103
Q

What is the important pathway of metabolism for PROCAINAMIDE , hydralazine and isoniazid

A

ACETYLATION

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104
Q

Acid better absorbed in

A

Acidic

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105
Q

Basic better absorbed in

A

Basic

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106
Q

For acid , if pH < pka =

if pH > pKa =

A

Nonionized

IONIZED

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107
Q

For basic, if pH< Pka=

if pH>pKa

A

Ionized

Nonionized

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108
Q

ANother way to say that a substance has accepted a hYDROGEN H+ ion is to say that the susbtance in

A

PROTONATED>

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109
Q

What combination will most facilitate trapping of LA by the fetus?

A

Maternal alkalosis AND fetal acidosis

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110
Q

What combination will most PREVENT PASSAGE of LA to the UTERUS

A

Fetal ACIDOSIS

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111
Q

Weak acids and weak bases are provided in solution as

A

SALTS

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112
Q

Weak acids name has the

A

Cation first (calcium…, mag this, sodium this)

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113
Q

Weak bases name has the

A

anion last (drug chloride, drug sulfate)

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114
Q

Propofol is a (weak acid or weak base)

A

WEAK ACID

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115
Q

Propofol in physiologic ph

A

99.98 % nonionized.

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116
Q

All LAs are

A

Weak bases

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117
Q

Base + acid

A

MORE IONIZED

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118
Q

In general the lower the pKa of the local anesthetic, the_____the proportion of LA in ______form

A

GREATER the proportion of LA in NONIONIZED form at physiologic pH of 7.4 and FASTER ONSET OF BLOC

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119
Q

Potency of LA is based on

A

LIPID solubility (SLP)

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120
Q

> 90 % protein binding La

A

Ropivacaine 94%

Bupivacaine 95%

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121
Q

The duration of ACTION is longer for LA that exhibit ______protein and _______lipid solubility

A

GREATEST PROTEIN BINDING and HIGHEST LIPID SOLUBILITY

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122
Q

More important than lipid solubility when it comes to duration of action

A

PROTEIN BINDING

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123
Q

LA absorption : generally

A

the greater the tissue blood flow, the greater the rate of absorption

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124
Q

Mnemonic to remember absorptbion

A

IvTicPEBSubAC
IV –>Tracheal –>Intercostal—> Paracervical –> Epidural –> Brachial plexus –> Subarachonid,sciatic fem –>Subcutaneous.

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125
Q

Sympathetic block compared to sensory block

A

2-6 dermatomes HIGHER than sensory block

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126
Q

MOTOR block compared to sensory block

A

2 dermatomes lower than sensory bloc

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127
Q

For myelinated axons, _____nodes of Ranvier must be blocked to stop nerve conduction

A

2-3 nodes

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128
Q

The greater the frequency of action potentials, the

A

Faster the nerve is blocked, by local anesthetic

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129
Q

The LA must attach to the sodium channel when it is in the

A

INACTIVATED STATE

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130
Q

Both required to a conduciton block

A

Both nonionized, and ionized forms of LA
the nonionized cross the lipid bilary the ionized form attaches to the inside of sodium channel and LOCKS it shut in the INACTIVATED STATE

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131
Q

Key target of LA is the

A

Voltage-gated sodium channels.

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132
Q

LA degree of blockade depends on both

A

Concentration and volume.

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133
Q

Max dose of bupivacaine w/ EPI

A

2.5 mg/kg

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134
Q

Max dose of bupivacaine w/O EPI

A

2mg/kg

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135
Q

Max single dose of Bupivacaine

A

175 mg

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136
Q

Max single dose LIDOCAINE

A

300 mg

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137
Q

Max single dose of ROPIVACAINE

A

200

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138
Q

Max dose of Lidocaine w/o epinephrine is

A

4.5 mg/kg

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139
Q

Max dose of Lidocaine w/ epinephrine is

A

7mg/kg

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140
Q

Ropivacaine dose per kg

A

3 mg/kg

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141
Q

Lidocaine plasma concentration 1-5 mcg/ml

A

Analgesia therapeutic

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142
Q

What is the therapeutic lidocaine plasma concentration?

A

1-5 mcg/ml

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143
Q

Lidocaine plasma concentration 5-10 mcg/ml

A
Light headedness
Tinnitus
Visual disturbances'
Tongue numbness
Muscle twitching
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144
Q

The recommended maximum leakage current allowed in operating room equipment is:

A

10 μA

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145
Q

Lidocaine plasma concentration 10-15 mcg/ml

A

Seizures

Convulsions

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146
Q

Lidocaine plasma concentration 15-25 mcg/ml

A

Unconsciousness
Coma
Respiratory arrest

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147
Q

Lidocaine plasma concentration >25 mcg/ml

A

Cardiovascular depression

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148
Q

Drug will be eliminated slowly it is back

A

Clearance is small and Vd is large

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149
Q

Potency is directly related to

A

Lipid solubility

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150
Q

MAC to potency

A

INVERSELY related to potency

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151
Q

Oil gas partition coefficeints

A

NDSIEH (nitrous, des, sevo, iso, enflu, halothane)

1.4, 18, 55, 98,98, 224

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152
Q

Greatest sensitization to catecholamines occur with

A

Halothane.

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153
Q

Oil gas partition coefficients is a measure of

A

LIPID SOLUBILITY

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154
Q

Decrease CO induction is

A

FAST

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155
Q

Increase CO induction is

A

SLOW

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156
Q

Sevoflurane decrease arterial BP and SVR vs des/iso

A

Greater decrease with des and iso than sevo

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157
Q

Solubility of a gas and temperature

A

Inverse relationship

as temperature increases, solubility decreases

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158
Q

More inhlational agent will dissolve in blood if the patient is

A

HYPOTHERMIC

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159
Q

More inhlational agent will dissolve in blood if the patient is HYPOTHERMIC , what explains this phenomenon

A

Le Chatelier’s principle.

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160
Q

Blood/ Gas coefficient HIGH to low

A
HIS ND
Halothane 2.54
Isoflurane 1.46
Sevoflurane 0.69
Nitrous oxide 0.46
Desflurane 0.42
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161
Q

Alveoli are

A

WINDOWS TO THE BRAIN

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162
Q

Speed of uptake of anesthetic and elimination from the brain is________ related to blood solubility

A

INVERSELY RELATED

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163
Q

Mirror the brain partial pressure at steady state.

A

Alveolar partial pressure of the anesthetic

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164
Q

The CNS effects after bolus injection of an IV anesthetic are terminated primarily by

A

REDISTRIBUTION

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165
Q

Diazepam and protein binding

A

98%

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166
Q

2 that ketamine causes

A

nystagmus

Hypertonous

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167
Q

IV anesthetic with bronchodilation properties

A

Ketamine

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168
Q

Meperidine to morphine potency

A

1/10th

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169
Q

Meperidine metabolite

A

Normeperidine

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170
Q

Phenylpiperidine derivative

A

Fentanyl, meperidine

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171
Q

Fentanyl to morphine potency

A

Fentanyl 75-125x more potent

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172
Q

Fentanyl what organ serve as inactive storage site?

A

LUNGS with 75% of the INITIAL DOSE UNDERGOING FIRST PASS PULMONARY UPTAKE.

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173
Q

Meperidine crosses placenta

A

YES ALL OPIOIDS DO

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174
Q

Thienyl analogue of fentanyl

A

Sufentanil

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175
Q

Sufentanil potency

A

5-10x more than fentanyl

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176
Q

Alfentanil potency

A

1/5 to 1/10 less potent than fentanyl

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177
Q

VP pressure measure at

A

20C

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178
Q

VP pressure of gases: HIGH to low (DHIES)

A
Desflurane
Halothane
Isoflurane
Enflurane
Sevoflurane
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179
Q

VP pressure of gases: Des (mmHg)

A

669

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180
Q

VP pressure of gases: Halothane

A

244

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181
Q

VP pressure of gases: Isoflurane

A

240

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182
Q

VP pressure of gases: Enflurane

A

172

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183
Q

VP pressure of gases: Sevo

A

157 -170

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184
Q

Vapor pressure and output MNEMONIC (HLH)

A

Higher vapor pressure agent PLACED in a vaporizer with LOWER vapor pressure agent , the concentration of agent delivered to the patient will be HIGHER than the dial setting

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185
Q

Vapor pressure and output MNEMONIC (LHL)

A

Lower vapor pressure agent placed in a vaporizer with HIGHER vapor pressure agent, the concentration of agent delivered to the patient will be LOWER than the dial setting.

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186
Q

The partial pressure of saturated water vapor at 37C is

A

47 mmHg

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187
Q

Law of LAPLACE

A

T = (P x r) /2

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188
Q

Law that. applied to blood vessels

A

Law of Laplace

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189
Q

LAW of laplace explains why smaller alveoli empty into

A

LARGE ALVEOLI causing atelectasis in patients with ARDS

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190
Q

POISEUILLE”S law

A

Q = Pi r^4 Change in P/ 8 n L

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191
Q

Diffusion hypoxia explains by which law

A

GRAHAM’s

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192
Q

Boyles is the

A

VP (Volume/Pressure relationship)

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193
Q

Charles goes into

A

Vtach (Volume to Temperature)

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194
Q

Gay Lussac’s law is the

A

PT (pressure to Temp)

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195
Q

Is uterine blood flow autoregulated

A

NO

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196
Q

TI =

A

TD50/ED 50

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197
Q

What is the number that shows how much a gas will dissolve in a liquid at a certain temperature?

A

OSTWALD.

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198
Q

A principle for calculating CO from oxygen uptake or CO elimination and Oxygen or CO2 concentration in arterial and venous blood

A

Fick principle

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199
Q

Describe behavior of non-ideal gases

A

Van der waal

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200
Q

Gas pressure is inversely proportion to gas volume at constant Temperature?

A

Boyle’s

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201
Q

Total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of all partial pressure

A

DALTON”s

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202
Q

6.02 x 10 ^23

A

AVOGADRO

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203
Q

Gas pressure increase if temperature increases and volume does not change.

A

Gay-lussac

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204
Q

One mole of ideal gas occupies 22. 4 L at 0C and 1 atm

A

Avogadro

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205
Q

Law”: Volume increases when temperature increases , if pressure is constant

A

Charles

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206
Q

Twice as much O2 will dissolve in arterial blood if alveolar pressure of O2 is doubled

A

HENRY’s LAW

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207
Q

if alveolar pressure of O2 is doubled, how much O2 will dissove

A

twice as much

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208
Q

Number revealing laminar vs turbulent flow

A

Reynolds

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209
Q

Concentration effect which law

A

FICK’s law of diffusion

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210
Q

Explained how pressure, tube radius, length and fluid viscosity contribute to laminar flow

A

Hagen-Poiseuille law

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211
Q

Tension in the wall of blood vessel is_______ to the radius

A

PROPORTIONAL

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212
Q

Tension in the wall of blood vessel is proportional to the radius which law

A

Laplace

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213
Q

The lateral pressure of fluid flowing through a CONSTRICTED SEGMENT of tubing is decrease

A

Bernoulli principe

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214
Q

What law explains normal tidal breathing?

A

Boyles’

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215
Q

Muscle relaxants are what kind of compounds

A

Quarternary ammonium

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216
Q

Desflurane, enflurane isoflurane and sevoflurane are

A

halogenated ETHERS

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217
Q

SVR = MAP - CVP/CO x80 which law permits this calculation

A

OHM’s LAW

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218
Q

Salt form or a weak acid naming examples

A

Sodium “drug” example

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219
Q

If ph of stomach is 2.0 which orally admininstered drug will be most NONIONIZED

A

A weak acid with pKa 6.2

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220
Q

A local anesthetics is a

A

WEAK BASE with a PKA greater than 7.4

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221
Q

4-8 mesh soda lime prevents

A

Channeling while providing an adequate surface area for CO2 absorption.

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222
Q

What is the partial pressure of a gas if its concentration is 5%?

A

38 mmHg (760 mmHg x 5/ 100)

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223
Q

If a gas exerts a partial pressure of 15 mmHg its concentration is ____%

A

2.0 % (1.97 % to be exact)
set up proportion
760mmHg/100% = 15 mmHg/ x

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224
Q

In the reaction of CO2 with soda lime the final producs are

A

CARBONATES

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225
Q

Which pulmonary function test uses boyle’s law?

A

Plethysmotraphy for determination of FRC

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226
Q

THE GENERATION OF colloid osmotic pressure in the plasma is the principle function of

A

Albumin

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227
Q

A 3% stock solution of drug is available. You need to make 50 ml of a 0.6 mg/ml solution. How many mL will you take from stock solution to make the dilute solution

A

1ml

0.6 mg = 1 ml for 50 ml you need 30 mg
3% solution is 30 mg/ml

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228
Q

Sevoflurane is added to a flask sitting on a table, what is the concentration of sevoflurane above the liquid?

A

22%

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229
Q

The lipid bilayer of the cell membrane is most IMPERMEABLE to what

A

Charged ion such as Potassium ions

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230
Q

Between gases not including Nitrous which one has the lowest Blood gas coefficient

A

Desflurane

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231
Q

What is the relative humidity of alveolar gas?

A

100%

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232
Q

When the tank pressure gauge on a tank of N2O begins to fall, the tank

A

NO LONGER CONTAINS N2O liquid form

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233
Q

The rotator flowmeter is an example of

A

Variable orifice flowmeter

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234
Q

An agent with a Blood gas partition of 12 an an oil gas partition coefficient of 0.5 builds up ______and ____potency

A

Slowly; and lacks potency

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235
Q

Substance that most readily cross the placenta or blood/brain barrier?

A

highly lipid soluble, NONIONIZED

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236
Q

Lowest oil:gas partition coefficient

A

Desflurane

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237
Q

Immediately after onset of 50% N2O administration, the volume of the stomach may

A

Increase

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238
Q

If flow is laminar and the radius of a tube is tripled , the flow through the tube will increase

A
81 fold
HOw:  Lets assume to radius you started with was 2 
so r^4 of 2 is 16
Now: radius tripled (2 x3 =6 )
so r^4 of 6 is 1296 

When you divide 1296 / 16 = 81

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239
Q

What can be measured with a wright respirometer?

A

Tidal Volume

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240
Q

1: 500,000 concentration is _____mcg/ml

A

2 mcg/ml. (remember all ratio divide 1,000,000 by the :xxxxxxx )

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241
Q

What property of helium makes it a useful agent?

A

LOW DENSITY (makes flow more laminar)

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242
Q

When halothane is added to a flask containing 100% O2, the new concentration of O2 will be

A

68%

How: use VP of desflurane which is 244 mmHg /760 mmHg x 100 % = 32%
100%-32% = 68% for O2

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243
Q

The cylinder of N2O cools after it is turned on , what explains this cooling?

A

Joule-Thompson effect

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244
Q

Tension in the blood vessel wall will be lowest in the

A

Capillary

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245
Q

During diastole, the tension in the LV wall increases, what explains this

A

Law of laplace

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246
Q

When you put an ETT in an autoclave, the cuff expans, this is an application of

A

Charles LAW

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247
Q

When the length of an IV needle is doubled, what happens to flow from the IV bag, and what law applies?

A

Flow is halved, Hagen-poiseuilles’ law applies

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248
Q

How much Co2 is dissolved in arterial blood when PaCo2 is 70 mmHg

A

4.69 mL CO2/ 100 mL blood

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249
Q

When is the partial pressure of CO2 increases, more hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions are produced: Which law or principle applies?

A

Le Chatelier’s principle

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250
Q

The reaction of CO2 with soda lime is a

A

NEUTRALIZATION

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251
Q

What is the concentration of a solution in % if 250mg is added to 50ml of water?

A

250/50 = 5 mg/ml

the way i do it
I know 2% lidocaine is 20 mg /ml
2 % = 20 mg/ml
    x = 5 mg/ml 
(5 x2) / 20 = 0.5%
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252
Q

Soda lime greatest concentration is

A

Calcium Hydroxide Ca(OH)2

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253
Q

Which law explains atelectasis with patient with ARDS

A

LAPLACE

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254
Q

If MAP is 100mmHg , CVP is 10mmHg, CO is 4.5L/min , the resistance to flow through the Systemic circulation in dynes-cm^-5 is

A

1600

Formula is : MAP-CVP/CO x 80

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255
Q

When flow is turbulent, the resistance to flow is dependent on what property of the fluid?

A

DENSITY

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256
Q

What important changes occurs when laminar flow changes to turbulent flow?

A

Resistance increases

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257
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors decrease the ability of the kidneys to reabsorb bicarbonate, resulting a

A

hyperchloremic acidosis.

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258
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors would be avoided in patients with

A

acidosis, especially a normal-anionic-gap acidosis

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259
Q

As a result, because bicarbonate is filtered by the ciliary process in the formation of aqueous humor,

A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors reduce the formation of aqueous humor and can be used to decrease intraocular pressure

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260
Q

Bicarbonate is filtered by the

A

ciliary process in the formation of aqueous humor,

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261
Q

A bourdon gauge reads 100 psi, what is the pressure inside the cylinder ? 1 atm= 14.5 psi

A

114.5 psi. (it is the pressure GAUGE reading + 14.5)

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262
Q

If your tire gauge reads 34 psi (pounds per square inch), then the absolute pressure is

A

34 psi plus 14.7 psi = 48.7

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263
Q

2 bubbles, one with a radius of 2mm called P(s) and the other one with a radius of 4mm P (L) how does the pressure inside the large bubble compared to the pressure inside the small bubble (Ps)

A

The pressure of the large bubble is half the pressure of the small bubble

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264
Q

VP from Low to HIGH (SEI-HD)

170-172-240-244-669

A
Sevoflurane, 170 mmHg
Enflurane, 172 mmHg
Isoflurane, 240 mmHg
Halothane, 244 mmHg
Desflurane, 669 mmHg
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265
Q

What happens to alveoli that do not have surfactant?

A

Smaller alveoli collapse into larger ones.

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266
Q

Parameters used to calculate reynold’s number ?

A

Velocity of the fluid
Viscosity
Diameter of the tube

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267
Q

With laminar flow the gas flow rate is

A

directly proportional to the pressure gradient along the tube

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268
Q

Nebulizers use

A

venturi tubes

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269
Q

As an E-cylinder of oxygen empties, ice crystals form near the outlet, this is explained by what?

A

Joule-Thompson

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270
Q

What explains why opening a cylinder slower , allow the expanding gas to draw energy from the environment to maintain an equal distribution of energy, we observe no changes in temperature of the gas

A

2nd law of Thermodynamics (Entropy)

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271
Q

Rapid expansion of a gas causes the temperature to ________as explains by the ______Effect

A

decrease ; Joule-Thompson Effect

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272
Q

Reynolds number formula is

A

Vpd/n
v: velocity
d: diameter
p density

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273
Q

When sevoflurane is accidentally placed in a halothane vaporizer and the dial is set a 1% , the % delivered will be

A

less than 2%

274
Q

What volume will be occupied by 16 g (half a mole) of O2 at standard temperature and pressure (Assume o2 is an ideal gas?

A

11.2 ( Full mole at STP is 22.4)

275
Q

When Nitrous is turned on, gas bubbles in the body expand, what law applies?

A

Fick’s Law of diffusion

276
Q

What is the partial pressure of isoflurane when the concentration delivered to the patient is 1.5%?

A

760 mmHg x 1.5% = 11.4 mmHg

277
Q

The desflurane vaporizer is electrically heated to _______which creates a vapor pressure of ________inside the vaporizer, regardless of ambient pressure

A

39 degrees centigrade, 2 atmospheres

278
Q

For desflurane, The number on the dial reflects the percentage that will be delivered. So at any altitude, when you dial 5%, it will give you _______ But when that 5% desflurane leaves the vaporizer at high altitude, what happens?

A

It will give you 5%; is delivered to the patient is 5% of a decreased ambient pressure, so the partial pressure of desflurane in the alveoli will be much less that it would be at sea level. Thus, you will need to dial a higher concentration at high elevation to attain the same clinical effect as at sea level with desflurane (Tec-9) vaporizer.

279
Q

If desflurane is HIGH ALTITUDE, when you dial 5%, the vaporizer will give you______%. The partial pressure delivered will be ______

A

5% , the

280
Q

Desflurane at HIGH altitude

A

dial a HIGHER concentration at HIGHER elevation to attain the same clinical effect ,

281
Q

For gases, What is physiologically important is the

A

partial pressure (mm Hg), not the concentration.

282
Q

What determines whether a patient is anesthetized,

A

The partial pressure of the anesthetic agent

283
Q

Does the partial pressure of the anesthetic change with altitude?

A

Does not change at different altitudes.

284
Q

At a higher altitude where the barometric pressure is _______of that at sea level. The amount of isoflurane Vapor output ______due to ______barometric pressure.

A

½ that at sea level, the amount of isoflurane vapor output increases due to the lower barometric pressure. Therefore, the settings that delivered 2% isoflurane now deliver 4% isoflurane. However, according to Dalton’s law, the partial pressure of isoflurane delivered would be approximately the same at both altitudes since 2% isoflurane at 760mm Hg (15.2 mm Hg) is the same as 4% isoflurane at 380mm Hg (15.2 mm Hg).

285
Q

What conditions will optimize the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid?

A

INCREASED PARIAL PRESSURE

DECREASED TEMPERATURE

286
Q

The buildup of an inhalational anesthetic in the brain is fastest for an agent that has

A

Low blood solubility

287
Q

The most potent inhalational anesthetics have

A

HIGH lipid solubility

288
Q

If the Ostwald blood: gas partition coefficient is 2, then each liter of blood will have as many molecules as one liter of alveolar gas?

A

TWICE

289
Q

If the partial pressure of a gas over a liquid doubles, the amount of gas dissolved in the liquid

A

DOUBLES

290
Q

Henry’s law

A

gas law that states that the amount of dissolved gas in a liquid is proportional to its partial pressure above the liquid. The proportionality factor is called Henry’s law constant.

291
Q

Which gas can be liquified at room temperature?

A

Nitrous oxide

292
Q

When a gas cylinder connected to an anesthetic machine is turned on quickly and the pressure in the connecting pipes and gauges rises rapidly, the process is

A

ADIABATIC and temperature increases substantially

293
Q

What is Adiabatic changes?

A

Rapid expansion OR compression of a gas WITHOUT equillibration of energy with the surrounding environment NO increase or decrease in energy. BUT THE TEMPERATURE WILL BE HIGHER

294
Q

Medical air at atmospheric pressure is composed of _____and _____? what are the partial pressures and how are they calculated ?

A

Nitrogen and Oxygen
79% x 760 mmHg = 600.4mmHg
21% x 760mm Hg= 159.6 mmHg

295
Q

Which inhalational anesthetic has a blood:gas partition coefficient of 1.4?

A

Isoflurane

296
Q

Recovery from which of the following inhalational agents will be fastest?

A

Desflurane

297
Q

What happens to pressure in the middle ear when the N2O is turned off?

A

It decreases

298
Q

Substance “X” will diffuse at a faster rate across the alveolar-capillary wall than substance “Y” if substance “ X is more _________

A

Lipid soluble

299
Q

The rate of diffusion of a gas accross the alveolar capillary membrane is inversely proportional to the

A

THICKNESS OF THE MEMBRANE

300
Q

The factors that determine the amount of gas diffusing across the alveolar capillary membrane are described by

A

FICK’s LAW

301
Q

Which of the following substances does not penetrate the BBB?

A

Mannitol

302
Q

Graham’s law

A

Rate of effusion of a gas is INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL To the square root of its molecular weight.

303
Q

N2 and N2O are diffusing through the air (not across a membrane). N2 will diffuse fast than N2O. Whose law applies>

A

GRAHAM’s LAW

304
Q

IV infusion of which of the following substances would be most effective in promoting the osmotic movement of water into the circulation from the extracellular space>

A

ALbumin

305
Q

The pressure in a cylinder of O2 decreases at it empties, what law applies?

A

IDEAL

306
Q

When a full E-cylinder of Oxygen is brought from the loading dock where the temperature is 40C to the OR where the temperature is set at 21C. the pressure in the cylinder will increase or decrease, whose law applies?

A

pressure will decrease, GAY lussacs law (P1/T1 = P2/T2)

307
Q

Helium/oxygen mixture are used medically for

A

UPPER AIRWAY OBSTRUCTION

308
Q

What is the water vapor pressure in the alveoli?

A

47 mmHg

309
Q

The clinically significant different between N2 and N2O is their

A

BLOOD SOLUBILITIES

310
Q

When the partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood increase from 100 to 600mmHg the amount of dissolved O2 increases BY how much.?

A

100 x 0.003 = 0.3
600 x 0.003 = 1.8
1.8 - 0.3 = 1.5 mL O2/100ml blood

311
Q

What 2 parameters are used to calculate RESISTANCE to flow through a tube?

A

UM NOT SURE That’s the right answer (PRESSURE and gradient) per valley

312
Q

In venturi tube, the lateral pressure upstream from the narrowing is

A

GREATER than in the narrowed region

313
Q

High temperature may be generated when empty cylinders are

A

Transfilled from larger cylinders

314
Q

High temperature may be generated when empty cylinders are Transfilled from larger cylinders . This is called the

A

ADIABATIC EFFECT

315
Q

The Joule-Thompson effect describes the decrease in temperature when a

A

Gas exiting a compressed cylinder expands freely

316
Q

Soda lime consists of silica, water

A

Sodium hydroxide
Potassium hydroxide
Calcium hydroxide

317
Q

What law permits calculation of resistance to flow through at tube?

A

Omh’s LAW

318
Q

If isoflurane is placed in an enflurane vaporizer and the dial is set at 2% what will be the delivered concentration of isoflurane?

A

Greater than 2%

319
Q

The Jet ventilator operates on

A

Le chatelier’s principle

320
Q

A mechanism used to reduce the pressure of a gas as it rises from a compressed gas cylinder to a usable, nearly constant pressure is a.

A

REGULATOR

321
Q

The greater the distance between an Xray source and the anesthetist , the lower the intensity of exposure tot the xrays. The law describing this is the

A

INVERSE SQUARE LAW

322
Q

The density of a gas determines

A

ITS FLOW THROUGH an ORIFICE

323
Q

In the supine individual, the pressure in the dorsalis pedis is greater than in the aorta. This is explained by

A

The SUPERIMPOSITION PRINCIPLE

324
Q

Which of the following principles is utilized in the delivery of a gas through a side arm port?

A

Bernoulli’s

325
Q

The partial pressure of Oxygen in air at one atmosphere is

A

159mmHg

326
Q

The mass spectometer is reading 5% for ETCO2, what is approximate equivalent in mmHg?

A

38 mmHg (0.05x760)

327
Q

Lipid bilayer is made up of

A

Cholesterol
Phospholipids
Proteins
Symmetrical

328
Q

Competitive antagonists attach to receptors and

A

Prevents attachment of agonists

329
Q

Flow is 5L/min, (2.5L /min O2, and 2.5L/min of N2O) through a copper kettle vaporizer, and a 2% concentration of halothane is achieved. If N2o runs out, the halothane concentration delivered to the patient will be?

A

4%

330
Q

If halothane is added to a flask sitting on a lab bench containing 100% O2, what will be the resulting partial pressure of O2 in the gas above the halothane liquid?

A

760mmhg-243 (halothane) =517

331
Q

If isoflurane is placed in an enflurane and you set the dial at 2% what will happen the % of anesthetic delivered?

A

A higher concentration of isoflurane will be delivered than the 2% dialed in (HLH)

332
Q

Purity of gases

A

Pharmacopeia + National formulary

333
Q

O2 has a critical temperature _____room temperature

A

BELOW

334
Q

Standards for medical devices and gases set by

A

FDA

335
Q

Sets basic performance and SAFETY REQUIREMENTS for components of anesthesia machines, endotracheal tubes, and connections, pressure and vaccum and gas pressure regulators

A

American National Standards Institutes (ANSI)(

336
Q

Each cylinder test by interior hydrostatic pressure once every

A

5 years

337
Q

ALl cylinders must be marked according to

A

Interstate commerce commissions regulations.

338
Q

The cylinder should be open slightly for a moment to

A

clear the outlet of possible dust. CRACKING the cylinder

339
Q

Can generate heat and cause combustion with cylinder

A

ADIABATIC heat of compression.

340
Q

The cylinder safety device is a simple plus of

A

SOFT METAL ALLOY called WOOD’s metal,

341
Q

At what temperature would the wood’s metal melt

A

200F

342
Q

Prevents cylinder gas from escaping machine through pipeline supply hoses?

A

Check valve in DISS

343
Q

Check valve in pipeline inlet assembly is a

A

Floating valve and seats according to pressure.

344
Q

What is the name of the gauge that shows Oxygen tank pressure?

A

Bourdon

345
Q

In a dual hanger yoke system, what prevents one cylinder from emptying into the other?

A

There is a free-floating valve for each cylinder and the Oxygen E cylinder with the greater pressure closes the free-floating valve of the other

346
Q

The 1st and 2nd stage regulator are what kind of valve

A

DIAPHRAGM

347
Q

1st stage regular decrease pressure to

A

45psig

348
Q

Cylinder vs pipeline pressure

A

Cylinder pressure decreased to slighly less than pipeline pressure to prevent depletion of cylinder contents when attached to pipeline.

349
Q

2nd stage regulator

A

Reduces pressure from 50psig to 16

350
Q

Oxygen flush valve flow rate____at what pressure ___

A

35-75 ml/min; 50 psig

351
Q

Oxygen failure cut off valve, where do O2 and N2O mix

A

They don’t mix

352
Q

Gases are joined for the first time in the

A

COMMON MANIFOLD

353
Q

Oxygen failure cutoff valve : oxygen pressure must be maintain at least

A

25 psig to keep valve open

354
Q

Fail safe systems analyze O2 pipeline content?

A

NO they only analyze pressure.

355
Q

Does the fail-safe protect from cross over pipeline

A

NO

356
Q

Read ball float at the

A

middle

357
Q

Thorpe tube largest at the

A

TOP

358
Q

What happens if inspiratory valve sticks open?

A

Exp volume will exhaust through the insp limb. ETCO2 waveform will be elevated.

359
Q

What happens if expiratory valve sticks open?

A

Insp volume will not enter the ETT but instead will bypass and exhaust through the exp limb.

360
Q

Desflurane boils at

A

22.8C.

361
Q

What happen when the vaporizer is tipped then leveled?

A

Liquid vapor will get into the VAPORIZER CHAMBER and the carrier flow will carry MORE AGENT to the patient

362
Q

What happen when the vaporizer is tipped then leveled?

A

Liquid vapor will get into the VAPORIZER CHAMBER and the carrier flow will carry MORE AGENT to the patient. MORE AGENT picked up means HIGHER CONCENTRATION of agent delivered to the patient. It may be a lethal dose.

363
Q

Largely eliminated the tipping problem?

A

Cassette vaporizer and TEC 6

364
Q

Low pressure is ___psi

A

16 psi

365
Q

Yoke check valve is part of _____pressure system

A

HIGH

366
Q

Vaporizer check valves part of ____pressure system

A

Low.

367
Q

When does scavenging occur?

A

After exhalation

368
Q

2 actions in case of a suspected pipeline crossover

A

turn on back up O2

Disconnect pipeline

369
Q

Oxygen FLUSH valve is

A

BALL/SPRING valve

370
Q

PRIMARY function of ANY free floating valve is to

A

Prevent gases from leaking out of the system.

371
Q

Ball and spring valve function

A

ALL OR NONE

Permits gas flow after you have made a connection.

372
Q

Open system reservoir, rebreathing

A

No reservoir, no rebreathing

373
Q

Examples of open system

A

Nasal cannula

simple face mask

374
Q

Open drop ether an ______system

A

Open

375
Q

Insufflation is an example of what type of breathing system?

A

Open

376
Q

The only system without reservoir is

A

OPEN

377
Q

This breathing system requires INCREASES GAS FLOW

A

SEMI OPEN

378
Q

Semi Closed and rebreathing , reservoir

A

Partial rebreathing

Reservoir

379
Q

Mapleson worst for controlled ventilation

A

Mapleson A

380
Q

Mapleson BEST for spontaneous ventilation

A

Mapleson A

381
Q

Mapleson E

A

NO bag and valve

382
Q

Maplesons mnemonic

A
A- APL by the patient
B- Both APL and FGF by the Patient
C- No corrugation
D- APL Distant from the patient
E- no bagee no valvee
F-  F***No valve
383
Q

The most common CIRCUIT SYSTEM used today

A

BAIN circuit, which is a modified Mapleson D.

384
Q

In the BAIN circuit, FGF is through a

A

SMOOTH tube not the corrugated tubing

385
Q

Mapleson used in both spontaneous and controlled ventilation

A

BAIN

386
Q

BAIN: FGF must be

A

2.5 X patient’s MV

387
Q

During controlled ventilation: best to least maplson

A

DFE>BC>A

388
Q

Best mapleson preventing rebreathing during spontaneous ventilation

A

A>DFE>CB

389
Q

LMA and coughing

A

less coughing on ermergence

Less risk of bronchospasm

390
Q

LMA and airway reflexes

A

contraindicated with intact airway reflexes due to the risk of laryngospasm

391
Q

LMA classic can it be used to facilitate fiberoptic or blind oral intubation

A

YES : LARGEST tube allowed is 6.0

392
Q

LMA to establish an _____airway

A

EMERGENCY

393
Q

The RODS mnemonic is used to

A

Identify difficulty extraglottic device situation

394
Q

RODS stands for

A

Restricted mouth opening
Obstruction
Distorted airway or disrupted airway
Stiff lung or stiff cervical spine

395
Q

Peak airway pressure and LMA?

A

PAP < 20 cmH20 indicated

396
Q

Initial cuff pressures will vary with the patient

A

LMA size, head position, anesthetic depth

397
Q

LMA cuff pressure shouldd not exceed

A

60cm H20

398
Q

What is the MOST COMMON ADVERSE EFFECT of Using LMA

A

SORE THROAT

399
Q

FASTRACH LMA features

A

CURVED RIGID AIRWAY tube
Integrated GUIDING HANDLE
EPIGLOTTIS ELEVATING BAR
GUIDING RAMP

400
Q

What part of the FASTTRACH LMA is used for insertion , reposition and removal?

A

The Intergrated handle at the proximal end of the barrel.

401
Q

The position of the FASTrach LMA can be optimized by

A

LaAN P(Lateral - anterior Posterior manipulation by using the INTERGRATED handle.

402
Q

What is the CHANDY maneuver?

A

lateral , anterior posterior manipulation of the handle.

403
Q

What is the LMA Proseal

A

The first DOUBLE lumen SGA

404
Q

The 2nd lumen of the LMA proseal is used for

A

Diagnosis of malposition
passive emptying of stomach
Active emptying of stomach

405
Q

The LMA proseal vs LMA supreme

A

LMA supreme is a single use version of the proseal

406
Q

When selecting an LMA proseal , you should

A

SIZE DOWN from the LMA classic size

407
Q

KING Laryngeal tube: cuffs

A

SMALL ESOPHAGEAL CUFF

Larger HYPOPHARYNGEAL CUFF

408
Q

After insertion of King Laryngeal cuff

A

BOTh CUFF INFLATED by injecting air into JUST ONE inFLATION PORT

409
Q

King Laryngeal tube if ventilation is inadequate

A

tube too deep

410
Q

Cannot intubate cannot ventilate tube

A

Esophageal tracheal combitube ( ETC)

411
Q

Adverse effects of SGAs

A

Aspiration

Sore throate

412
Q

Single use SGAs/

A

Most SGAs are not disposable, single use.

413
Q

SGA specific cleaner

A

Endozime

414
Q

Max use per LMA

A

40

415
Q

When fully inserted the LMA rest agains the

A

UPPER esophageal sphincter

416
Q

Largest ETT tube through size 3-6 LMA

A

3- 6.0 mm
4- 6.00
5 -7mm
6- 7mm

417
Q

LMA size and largest ETT size 1-2.5> how to remember?

A
Add "2.5 to each size"
Size 1 + 2.5 = 3.5 
Size 1.5 + 2.5 = 4
Size 2 + 2.5 = 4.5
Size 2.5 + 2.5 = 5
418
Q

Neonates to children up to 30 kg (<5, 5-10, 10-20, 20-30) Max cuff volume

A

4, 7, 10, 14

419
Q

LMA size 3 - 6 max cuff volume

A

3, 4, 5, 6

20,30,40,50

420
Q

Fiberoptic size (mm) for LMA neonate <5kg up to 30kg

A

2.7, 3, 3.5, 4.0

421
Q

Which nerve when stimulated will cause laryngospasm?

A

Stimulation of vagus nerve during light anesthesia (S

422
Q

LMA vs ETT bronchospasm and laryngospasm is

A

LESS with ETT

423
Q

BIS with low probability of explicit recall

A

70-60

424
Q

GA BIS

A

40-60

425
Q

DEEP hypnotic state BIS

A

40-20

426
Q

FLAT LINE EEG BIS

A

0-10

427
Q

Light anesthesia BIS

A

90-70

428
Q

Large V wave

A

TR
RV failure
Constrictive pericarditis
Tamponade.

429
Q

RA pressure range

A

1-8mmhg

430
Q

Hypovolemia CVP_____PCWP____

A

Low low

431
Q

LV failure CVP ________ PCWP ____

A

Normal or high

High

432
Q

Cardiac Tamponate: CVP ______PCWP___

A

High; high

433
Q

PE: CVP_______PCWP

A

High; nomral

434
Q

Max wedge time

A

15 seconds

435
Q

Insertion site PAC

A
  1. Su (Subclavian)
  2. RIJ (Right IJ)
  3. LIJ (Left IJ)
  4. RA (Right Antecubital)
  5. LA(Left Antecubital)
  6. Femoral
To RIGHT ATRIUM
15 (+10 for RV, + 15 for PA) 
20 (+10 for RV, + 15 for PA) 
25 (+10 for RV, + 15 for PA) 
40 (+10 for RV, + 15 for PA) 
45 (+10 for RV, + 15 for PA) 
50 (+10 for RV, + 15 for PA)
436
Q

Aline upstrokes reflects 2

A

Contractility and SVR

437
Q

Upstroke is faster is contractility is_____and SVR is_____

A

Increased; decreasd

438
Q

Function of valve is to change pressure

A

Diaphragm

439
Q

This valve regulates the flow of N2O vial oxygen pressure

A

Fail safe valve

440
Q

Free floating valve

A

Cylinder valve

441
Q

Pulse ox is used to assess

A

Oxygenation

442
Q

May cause falsely elevated pulse ox reading

A

Methemoglobin

443
Q

Assessing a patient’s CO2 elimination by END tideal CO2 measurement is called

A

CAPNOMETRY

444
Q

DISS PREVENTS accidental misconnections by altering

A

Size of connection, type of pipe thread

445
Q

CYLINDER REGULATOR first stage convert cylinder pressure to

A

45 pSI

446
Q

The most fragile part of the gas machine is the

A

FLOW TUBES

447
Q

Cauda equina extends

A

L1 to S5

448
Q

Epidural space widest at

A

L2

449
Q

Narrowest at level

A

C5

450
Q

The epidural space is a

A

POTENTIAL SPACE that is bound by the DURA and LIGAMENTUM FLAVUM

451
Q

The principle site of action of neuraxial blockade is the

A

NERVE ROOT within the spinal cord.

452
Q

The best means for treating HYPOTENSION during spinal anesthesia is

A

PHYSIOLOGIC not pharmacologic. GIVE IV FLUIDS if not normovolemic, if NORMOVOLEMIC give ephedrine.

453
Q

Fibrinolytic or thrombolytic no neuraxial for

A

10 days

454
Q

Heparinization can occur

A

1 hour after catheter removal

455
Q

Clavicles level

A

C4

456
Q

Skin to epidural space average adult

A

4-6cm

457
Q

Order of sensitivity to LA block is

A

large myelinated > smaller myelinated > unmyelinated

458
Q

To assess lost of temperature sensation: most sensitive indicator

A

ALCOHOL swab to assess loss of temperature sensation is the most sensitive indicator of initial onset of sensory block. PINPRICK MOST ACCURATE OVERALL>

459
Q

Anechoic

A

Appears black on image

460
Q

Hyperechoic

A

Appears bright

461
Q

HOW MUCH TO INJECT FOR AXILLARY BLOCK

A

40 ML

462
Q

CERVICAL PLEXUS BLOCK

A

4 ML

463
Q

HOW MUCH TO INJECT FOR ISB ?

A

40 ML

464
Q

SUPRACLAVICULAR + INFRACLAVICULAR

A

20-30 ML

465
Q

Medial RADIAl nerve how much

A

4 ML

466
Q

Ankle BLOCK

A
Posterior tibial
DEEP PERONEAL
SURAL
Saphenous
Superficial PERONEAL
467
Q

Common nerve aka

A

fibular nerve

468
Q

Responsible for pain and temperature

A

C and unmyelinated

469
Q

The most common causative organism in epidural abscesses is

A

Staphylococcus aureus

470
Q

The posterior dermatomes located at L4 correst to

A

Intercristal line
Tuffers line
Superior iliac crest

471
Q

Hypobaric

A

sterile water

472
Q

Isobaric

A

CSF

473
Q

Hyperbaric

A

Dextrose

474
Q

To avoid catheter migration during or following the combined spinal epidural anesthetic, which spinal needle gauge size would be appropriate

A

28Ga

475
Q

3 in one block is (LOM)

A

Lateral femoral cutaneous
Obturator
Femoral

476
Q

1sst and 2nd most common nerve injury post op

A

Ulnar nerve

Brachial plexus.

477
Q

Claw hand associated with

A

Ulnar nerve injury

478
Q

Foot drop associated with

A

Lithotomy

479
Q

Results in permanent vision loss

A

Ischemic optic neuropathy

480
Q

Left arm abducted > 90 degrees

A

Brachial plexus

481
Q

Opposition of the first and fifth finger is preclcuded

A

median nerve injury

482
Q

Weakened skeletal muscle below the knee is a symptom of what injury

A

SCIATIC

483
Q

Most common injured nerve of the lower extremity

A

common peroneal

484
Q

Plantar flexion for a long time which nerve at risk

A

anterior tibial

485
Q

Compression of this nerve against the pelvic brim

A

Femoral

486
Q

Saphenous nerve is a branch of the

A

FEMORAL

487
Q

Unable to adduct leg, decrease sensation medial thigh

A

OBTURATOR ( saphenous is only sensory)

488
Q

IM injection vein in UPPER outer quadrant of the buttock to prevent injury to the

A

SCIATIC

489
Q

3 nerves causing foot drop

A

Sciatic
Common peroneal
Anterior tibial.

490
Q

Pregnancy and FRC

A

Decreased by 20%

491
Q

Lungs that remains unchanged

A

TLC, VC, IC

492
Q

Ventilation and pregnancy

A

MV increases 45%

Alveolar ventilation increase 45%

493
Q

Oxygen consumption

A

Increase 20% to 30% at rest

100% in 2nd stage of labor

494
Q

HR and pregnancy

A

Increase 20-30%

495
Q

CO increases mainly due to

A

increase in SV

496
Q

Coagulation and fibrinogen in pregnancy

A

increased

497
Q

Considered full stomach starting week

A

12

498
Q

Dilutional anemia is due to

A

Increased in Plasma volume to a greater extend than Red blood cell volume.

499
Q

CO , SV, HR

A

CO up 40-50%
SV up 20-50%
HR up 20-

500
Q

Decreased factor in pregnancy

A

11 and 13

501
Q

Unchanged factor

A

2 and 5

502
Q

UBF at term is

A

700-800ml/min

503
Q

2 factors causing decrease UBFl

A

decrease perfusion pressure

504
Q

Pregnancy GFR, CO and RBF

A

ALL increased

505
Q

BUN and CR in pregnancy

A

Normal due to increase in RBF and GFR

506
Q

GFR increase by____% by ____th gestational week and remains elevated until delivery

A

50% ;16th,

507
Q

Uterine artery pressure is determined by

A

Maternal systemic arterial pressure.

508
Q

Definitive treatment for preeclampsia is

A

DELIVERY of the fetus

509
Q

Diagnosis of preeclampsia can be made if

A

Thrombocytopenia <100000, Cr, 1.1

510
Q

BEST Indicator of coagulopathy in the pre-eclamptic patient

A

PLATELET COUNT ON ADMISSION

511
Q

Earliest sign of magnesium toxicity ?

A

Marked depresion of DTRs.

512
Q

Level needed to be secured for a c-section

A

T-4

513
Q

How much of the total uterine blood flow goes to the intervillous space?

A

550ml/min

514
Q

Plasma fibrinogen DIC

A

<150 (in pregnancy 400-650)

515
Q

Most serious in GASTROCHISIS

A

Dehydration and infection

516
Q

high fever croup vs epiglotittis

A

Epiglottitis

517
Q

Rapid vs slow progress croup vs epiglotittis

A

Rapid epiglottitis

518
Q

Within umbilical vs lateral to umbilitus

A

Omphalocele(within)

Gastrochisis (Lateral )

519
Q

Omphalocele mortality related to

A

CaRdiac and chromosomal abnormalities.

520
Q

No amnion with

A

Gastrochisis

521
Q

Cystic fibrosis: resp pattern

A

Obstruction pattern

522
Q

Early symptoms NOT SIGN of MH

A

Masseter spasm

Tachycardia

523
Q

Early SIGN of MH

A

Increased ETCO2
peaked t waves on ECG
HYPERKALEMIA

524
Q

Hallmark of intravascular fluid depletion in neonate and infants is

A

Hypotension without tachycardia

525
Q

Major cause of perioperative morbidity and mortality in pediatric patients

A

Hypoxia

526
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia profound arterial hypoxemia is due to

A

RIGHT TO LEFT SHUNT

527
Q

Pediatric major mechanism for heat production

A

Nonshivering thermogenesis

528
Q

Concern for paradoxical air embolism may occur in the neonate because of

A

Patent foramen ovale

529
Q

Correct ETT tube is confirmed by

A

Bilateral breath sounds

530
Q

In a patient with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, peak inspiratory airway pressure be

A

20

531
Q

A child is born with congenital diaphragmatic hernia, which pathways allow blood to bypass the lung completely

A

Patent Foramen of fallot

Patent ductus arteriosus

532
Q

PRevent hypothermia with gastrochisis vs omphalocele

A

Gastrochisis

533
Q

Correct dose of dandrolene

A

2-3 mg/kg every 5-10 minutes

534
Q

Obese surgical patients leads that are best to detect cardiac ischemia

A

Lead V5, Lead I

535
Q

Do not exceed this PEEP for obese patient

A

15cmH2o

536
Q

What is the most common cause of postoperative mortality after bariatric surgery?

A

THROMBOEMBOLISM

537
Q

Appropriate pre-op anesthetic plan for cardiac tamponade

A

Positive inotrope

538
Q

Accidental SUBARACHNOID injection occurs during intended epidural, RAPID early sign is

A

DYSPNEA

539
Q

Max dose of dandrolene treat MH

A

10 mg/kg

540
Q

In PACU patient stated that she remembers some stuff you should

A

Tell the patient what happened

541
Q

Stimulation of what receptor explains why arterial diastolic BP may decrease when epinephrine is administered with a local anesthetic?

A

Beta 2 adrenergic receptor

542
Q

At NMJ, aminophylline

A

INCREASES THE RELEASE OF ACH from the motor nerve terminal

543
Q

Votalge gated sodium channel is in the INACTIVATED state in all but which of the following situation>

A

Severe hypokalemia

544
Q

Patient cannot ADDUCT the thumb what nerve is blocked by LAs

A

ULNAR

545
Q

Aspiration is a risk associated with anesthesia for patients with each of the following diseases except

A

MS

546
Q

Immediate deliver if decelerations are

A

LATE with no beat to beat variability

547
Q

Applying pressure for the patient who has already lost consciousness how much pressure in KG?

A

4 kg

548
Q

ANSI standards for reservoir bag require that the pressure not exceed _____when the bag is distended how many times its normal capacity ?

A

50cm H2O ; 4

549
Q

The American national standards institute Z79.9 1979 was replaced in ________ with

A

1988; American Society for TESTING and materials F1161-88 standard.

550
Q

2 year old ETT tube + suction catheter

A

4.0 at 8F

551
Q

Muscle that DILATES the vocal cords

A

Posterior cricoarytenoids (thought thryroarytenoids)

552
Q

Hypoxemia during one-lung anesthesia is most effectively treated by:

A

periodic inflation of the collapsed lung with oxygen, early ligation of the ipsilateral pulmonary artery and CPAP to the collapsed lung offer consistently effective improvement in oxygenation.
The application of PEEP to the ventilated lung, changes in the ventilatory parameters and oxygen insufflation to the collapsed lung may offer marginal improvement in oxygenation.

553
Q

FEV 1 of 2L and FVC of 2.5 L suggest

A

RESTRICTIVE (ratio is 0.8 but volumes are low )

554
Q

What happens to blood flow and the diameter of arterial blood vessels in ischemia region of the brain when the patient is hyperventilated?

A

Blood flow increase

Arterial vessel diameter NO CHANGE

555
Q

Produce the GREATER blockade when in the epidural space?

A

3% Chlorprocaine

556
Q

In chronic respiratory acidosis, the PaCO2 is

A

elevated above the upper limit of the reference range, with a normal or near-normal pH secondary to renal compensation and an elevated serum bicarbonate levels (ie, >30 mEq/L).

557
Q

Incidence of PERIOPERATIVE reinfarction for a patient who had an MI 7 months ago is

A

5%

558
Q

Protamine dose and bond

A

1.1 -1.3 mg per 100 units of heaprin. IONIC BOND

559
Q

3 in 1 block FOL

A

Femoral
Obturator
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve.

560
Q

Hernial sac Gastrochisis

A

ABSENT

561
Q

Hernial sac omphalocele

A

Present

562
Q

Congenital abnormalities gastrochisis

A

PRESENT

563
Q

Omphalocele congenital abnormalities

A

Absent

564
Q

TEC 6 VAPORIZER calibrated in LA is brought to colorado springs, the % delivered willbe

A

HIGHER than the dial setting.

565
Q

Concentration and dose of mannitol is

A

20%, 1g/kg

566
Q

Who is responsible for quality assurance?

A

The hospital

567
Q

What drug would you not give in the perioperative period to the patient undergoing surgery for pheochromocytoma

A

DROPERINOL.However, droperidol when used in pheochromocytoma, has been reported to produce a paradoxical hypertensive response.

568
Q

Most SENSITIVE for VAE?

A

TEE

569
Q

What drug for altering hemodynamic status should generally be avoided in the patient with idiopathy subaortic hypertrophic stenosis?

A

NITROGLYCERIN (REDUCE CO)

570
Q

Drugs to be avoided in the patient with cystic fibrosis?

A

ATROPINE

571
Q

INCREASE with aging

A

PaCO2

572
Q

Vital capacity with aging

A

Decreases

573
Q

Bladder cancer removal procedure

A

Controlled Cystectomy

574
Q

Bladder cancer removal procedure

A

Radical Cystectomy

575
Q

Needed for RADICAL CYSTECTOMY

A

Controlled hypotension

576
Q

Pulmonary parameters that decrease in geriatric

A

Total lung capacity.

577
Q

breast milk fasting

A

4 hours

578
Q

3 months to 3 years EBV

A

75-80ml

579
Q

At what point during pregnancy does the maternal intragastric pressure increase, often resulting in heartburn?

A

3rd trimester

580
Q

Breathing circuit pressure is limited to

A

125cm H2O

581
Q

Which of the following are part of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles

A

Cricothyroid
Oblique artytenoid
Thyroarytenoid

582
Q

Prominent pathophysiologic derangements associated with MR?

A

LV volume overload

583
Q

End result of INCREASED in HR in patient with Mitral stenosis?

A

PULMONARY EDEMA

584
Q

Signs and symptoms of RA include

A

Pain on swallowing

585
Q

HYPERVENTILATION produces which electrolyte disturbance

A

HYPOCALCEMIA

586
Q

Not a Quaternary ammonium

A

Physostigmine

587
Q

How many unidirectional valves does the semiclosed anesthetic breathing system have?

A

2

588
Q

Compare the difference between MEANS of three of more NORMALLY DISTRIBUTED DATA SETS would be

A

ANALYSIS of VARIANCE

589
Q

Not a contraindication to Jet ventilation

A

Patient under 2 years of age.

590
Q

IMPORTANT CV effect of pneumoperitoneum

A

Distention of the vagus nerve during insufflation

591
Q

2, 3 DPG is which biochemical pathway

A

GLYCOLYSIS

592
Q

Nominal data

A

yes or no
Eye color
Blood type
Male or female

without providing any quantitative value.

593
Q

Interval data

A

statistical research, school grading, scientific studies and probability

594
Q

Ordinal data?

A

well-known example of ordinal data is the Likert scale.

595
Q

Ordinal data example

A

Age, gender

596
Q

Test is most appropriate to evaluate the difference between expected and observed frequencies from nominal data?

A

Chi-squared analysis

597
Q

Electrolyte disturbances are expected during WHIPPLE ? low CKM

A

HYPOCALCEMIA
HYPOKALEMIA
HYPOMAGNESEMIA

598
Q

Nerve supplies motor innervation to the superior oblique muscle of the eye?

A

TROCHLEAR

599
Q

St john’s wort is an inducer, what else should you know about it?

A

CNS Stimulation

600
Q

Echinacea is associated with

A

Immunosuppression

Hepatic dysfunction

601
Q

Black Cohosh is associated with

A

Hypotension

602
Q

Garlic, Ginseng, Ginger , Gingko all associated with

A

increased bleeding

603
Q

Ginseng is associated with increased bleeding, what else should you know about it?

A

CNS stimulation

604
Q

Hoodia herbal supplements is associated with

A

Altered glucose control

605
Q

Kava herbal supplements anesthetic considerations:

A

CNS depression, decreased MAC

606
Q

Valerian herbal supplements anesthetic considerations:

A

CNS depression, decreased MAC

607
Q

Herbal meds and supplements are stopped

A

2 weeks before surgery.

608
Q

Herbal meds and supplements: REGULATED by FDA

A

No!!!

609
Q

Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) metabolizes epinephrine to and

A

metanephrine

610
Q

Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) metabolizes

norepinephrine to

A

normetanephrine.

611
Q

Subsequently, monamine oxidase (MAO) further metabolizes metanephrine and normetanephrine to

A

vanillymandelic acid (VMA).

612
Q

What enzyme further metabolizes metanephrine and normetanephrine to

A

vanillymandelic acid (VMA).

613
Q

The sensory neuropathies associated with HIV include.

A

distal sensory polyneuropathy and antiretroviral toxic neuropathy (ATN) secondary to the treatment

614
Q

Occurs in 10% to 35% of patients who are seropositive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

A

Symptomatic neuropathy o

615
Q

Occurs in 10% to 35% of patients who are seropositive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).

A

Symptomatic neuropathy

616
Q

Characteristics of human immunodeficiency virus neuropathy include:

A

Distal polyneuropathy

Allodynia

617
Q

The clinical features of HIV sensory neuropathy typically include.

A

painful allodynia and hyperalgesia. The onset is gradual and most commonly involves the lower extremities

618
Q

The neuropathy and dysesthesia associated with HIV progress from the

A

distal to the more proximal structures.

619
Q

Postintubation croup: is secondary to

A

inflammation of subglottic structures

620
Q

Postintubation croup usually occurs at the

A

level of the cricoid, since this is the narrowest part of the pediatric airway.

621
Q

Postintubation croup is associated with

A

early childhood (1 - 4 years).

622
Q

Unlike laryngospasm, postintubation croup is seen

A

some time after extubation, usually within 3 hours.

623
Q

Evoked motor response of the tibial nerve using a nerve stim would most expected to elicit

A

Plantar flexion at the ankle and foot inversion

624
Q

Intraosseous access for babies

A

Tibial 1-2 cm below but also medial to the tibial tuberosity

625
Q

Highest sensitivity vs highest specificity for pheochromocytoma tests

A

Highest specificity is Urinary VMA

Highest sensitivity is Plasma free metanephrines.

626
Q

The web space between first and 2nd toes are innervated by

A

Deep peroneal nerve

627
Q

Child with Epiglotittis induction of anesthesia should occur where?

A

In the operating room with the presence of a skilled surgeon as well as advanced airway management equipment

628
Q

Child with Epiglotittis induction of anesthesia preferred method and whY?

A

Inhalation induction, allows for spontaneous ventilation . MAINTAINING INTACT AIRWAY TAKES PRIORITY since patient at high risk for airway compromise.

629
Q

Most common complication occuring in the PACU

A

NAUSEA

630
Q

Most common complication following a retrobulbar block prior to cataract surgery

A

HEMATOMA because of close proximity of the ophtalmic artery

631
Q

Most important aspect of a successful TAP BLOCK

A

Using adequate volume of LA. Spread throughout a fascial plane

632
Q

Blood loss spinal vs GA for THA

A

Less blood loss with spinal

633
Q

Spinal stenosis patients report pain that

A

Exacerbates by standing or walking

634
Q

Hallmark of spinal stenosis

A

relief of symptoms with bending forward.

635
Q

The apneic oxygenation technique affords adequate oxygen delivery, but progressive respiratory acidosis limits the use of this technique to 10 - 20 minutes in most patients. Arterial PaCO2 rises

A

rises 6 mm Hg in the first minute followed by a rise of 3 - 4 mm Hg during each subsequent minute. In this patient this will produce a 27 - 34 mm Hg increase, resulting in a PaCO2 of 67 to 74 mm Hg.

636
Q

Insulin secretion is increased by

A

stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system through the vagus nerves.

637
Q

Key elements in the AANA’s definition of wellness include: (Select 3)

A

effective adaptation, resilience, coping mechanisms

638
Q

IntraOcular pressure with succinylcholine

A

Increase

639
Q

IntraOcular pressure with hypoxemia

A

increase

640
Q

IntraOcular pressure with laryngoscopy

A

increase

641
Q

The most powerful inspiratory muscles are the

A

external intercostals.

642
Q

Raise the sternum and contribute to inspiration_______ as do the _______and ______

A

The sternocleidomastoid muscles ; anterior serratus and scalene muscles.

643
Q

The primary muscles of expiration are the

A

abdominus rectus muscles and the internal intercostals.

644
Q

A patient is undergoing a pulmonary function test in which they are asked to inhale and exhale as deeply as possible for 15 seconds. What is the test called?

A

Maximum voluntary ventilation

645
Q

Because the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is higher than it is in the blood, it will move across the pulmonary capillary membrane into the blood by

A

diffusion.

646
Q

The carotid bodies are capable of sending messages to the central respiratory centers to increase ventilation via the

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

647
Q

Under what structure does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve pass?

A

Innominate artery

648
Q

These are the only causes of true hyperventilation (where the patient’s minute ventilation increases to the point that respiratory alkalosis results). They are:

A

arterial hypoxemia
metabolic acidosis, and
central nervous system alteration.

649
Q

Respiratory Alkalosis electrolyte disturbances:

K+; Ca2+, BP, Phosphate , _____and ______

A

hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypotension, hypophosphatemia, cardiac dysrhythmias, and potentiation of digoxin toxicity.

650
Q

Serotonin is a vasoconstrictor in most vascular beds, but has vasodilatory properties in the

A

vasculature of the heart and skeletal muscle.

651
Q

Local anesthetics produce an ordered progression of blockade of

A
Temperature sensation first
Proprioception (kinesthetic sense)
Motor function
Sharp pain
Light touch.
652
Q

The primary mechanism by which gastroesophageal reflux occurs is a

A

transient lowering of the lower esophageal sphincter pressure, not a chronic decrease in the lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

653
Q

NSAIDs fundamentally inhibit the synthesis of

A

Prostaglandins

654
Q

Which of the following calcium channel blockers would be most effective at relieving chest pain due to myocardial ischemia? (select two)

A

nifedipine

nicardipine

655
Q

The profound hypotension seen with spinal shock is related to the level at which the lesion is located (cervical injuries produce more severe hypotension than do lumbar injuries) and is due primarily to a

A

drop in preload caused by dilation of the capacitance vessels.

656
Q

Pt had a stroke about 3 months ago ,should you proceed with surgery?

A

Patients who have a perioperative stroke are eight times more likely to die within 30 days of surgery. Because of this, elective surgery should be delayed for at least 9 months following a stroke

657
Q

Injecting 2 mL of local anesthetic at the base of the palatoglossal arch will anesthetize which branches of the glossopharyngeal nerve? (select two)

A

Pharyngeal and lingual

658
Q

Upon what factors does the composition of the inspired gas mixture a patient receives depend? (select four)

A

The vaporizer dial setting
The fresh gas flow rate
The volume of the breathing circuit
Gas absorption by the circuit

659
Q

The response of the orbicularis oculi most closely represents that of the

A

adductor pollicis

660
Q

Monitoring the corrugator supercilii muscles will most closely parallel that of what muscles?

A

the laryngeal adductor muscles.

661
Q

At an increased altitude, an older Tec isoflurane vaporizer will deliver

A

a higher volume percent than the dial setting. For example, at 10,000 feet the atmospheric pressure is about a third less at 500 mmHg. If we turn on our isoflurane vaporizer at 0.89%, the decrease in ambient pressure results in a doubling in the volume percent output of the gas from 0.89% to 1.75%. But, if we multiply that 1.75% times 500 mmHg (the new atmospheric pressure) we get a partial pressure of isoflurane of 8.77 mmHg. So despite a huge jump in the percent output, the partial pressure doesn’t increase that much.

662
Q

A decrease in the in the single twitch response isn’t seen until what % of the receptors are blocked? When does the response disappear?

A

75-80% of the receptors are blocked, and the response disappears when 90% of the receptors are blocked

663
Q

Which alteration would be consistent with the development of a leak in the bellows in a system using an oxygen-driven ventilator? (select two)

A

An increase in the FiO2

An increase in peak inspiratory pressure

664
Q

At standard pressure, the boiling points for inhalation anesthetics in degrees Celsius are: Desflurane-Isoflurane-48.5, Halothane-50.2, Enflurane-56.5, and Sevoflurane-58.5.

A

22.8,

665
Q

At standard pressure, the boiling points for inhalation anesthetics in degrees Celsius are : ISO

A

48.5

666
Q

At standard pressure, the boiling points for inhalation anesthetics in degrees Celsius are : Halothane-

A

50.2,

667
Q

At standard pressure, the boiling points for inhalation anesthetics in degrees Celsius are :Enflurane

A

56.5,

668
Q

At standard pressure, the boiling points for inhalation anesthetics in degrees Celsius are Sevoflurane

A

-58.5.

669
Q

At standard pressure, the boiling points for inhalation anesthetics in degrees Celsius are : HIGH to low mnemonic

A

DI -HES

670
Q

Rh(D) immune globulin is administered to prevent Rh sensitization in

A

Rh-negative women.

671
Q

Induction of general anesthesia for which of the following procedures carries the highest risk for aspiration?

A

Zencker’s Diverticulostomy

672
Q

Zencker’s Diverticulostomy induction

A

Always RSI

673
Q

Contraindication to the administration of intravenous contrast media : women

A

Pregnancy is

674
Q

The onset of neuromuscular blocking agents is prolonged in the elderly primarily because of (select two)

A

an increase in circulatory time

a decrease in skeletal muscle blood flow

675
Q

What are the three most common entry sites for an amniotic fluid embolism?

A

Placenta
Endocervical veins
Uterine trauma site

676
Q

What hemodynamic change would you expect to see when the anhepatic phase of a liver transplant is initiated?

A

Hypotension

677
Q

What is the drug of choice for the treatment of acute myocardial ischemia?

A

Nitroglycerin

678
Q

The formula for PBW for males is:

A

PBW (male kg) = 50 + 0.91 X (height (cm) - 152.4).

679
Q

The formula for PBW for females is:

A

PBW (female kg) = 45.5 + 0.91 X (height (cm) - 152.4).

680
Q

The PR interval should be measured from the ___ of the P wave to the ___ of the QRS.

A

beginning, beginning

681
Q

What are the only intravenous anesthetics that can produce burst suppression?

A

Etomidate and propofol

682
Q

When inserting an Eschmann stylet during intubation, the stylet should be advanced into the trachea until

A

the 25 cm marking is at the lip